Spine + Extras AT214

Seventy-five percent of back flexion occurs at the joint between:
L5-S1
A syndrome characterized by the narrowing of the spinal canal that can impinge the spinal cord resulting in burning and tingling bilaterally is known as:
Spinal stenosis
Which of the following postures results from an increased curve in the lumbar spine?
Lordosis
Which of the following is not a group of the erector spinae muscles
Cervicis
Which lumbar vertebra is most likely to slip as a result of spondylolisthesis
L5
Axial loading combined with flexion of the cervical vertebrae from a force to the top of the head could lead to a fracture of which vertebrae
C5-C6
Sports movements that characteristically hyperextend the lumbar spine are likely to cause
Spondylolysis
Which of the following is (are) sign(s) of cervical neck fracture?
All the above
This spinal pathology on palpation will often present with a step deformity
Spondylolisthesis
Most serious cervical injuries in football result from purposeful
Axial loading as a result of spearing
The major muscle of back extension is the:
Erector spinae
The outer periphery of the intervertebral disk composed of strong fibrous tissue is called the:
Annulus fibrosus
Which of the following portions of the spine have a convex curve anteriorly?
Cervical, lumbar
The postural position resulting in hip extension from an anterior shift of the pelvis is called:
Swayback
Adolescents engaging in sports such as gymnastics and swimming are prone to accentuation of the kyphotic curve and backache common to:
Scheuermann’s disease
____________ is a condition that is characterized by wedge fractures, disk space abnormalities, and degeneration of vertebral epiphyseal end plates is seen in:
Scheuermann’s disease
The most discernible difference between a cervical dislocation and a cervical fracture is:
The position of the neck
The most common mechanism for acute low back strain is:
Extension with trunk rotation
When occurs, the athlete is unable to move certain parts of the body and complains of numbness after trauma; but after a short while the numbness disappears and free movement is possible.
Cervical cord neuropraxia
Which of the following should not be done when managing a bleeding nose?
Tilt the head back to decrease bleeding
All of the following are ways to manage a fractured tooth EXCEPT:
Attempt to reattach the fracture piece
Which condition is a progressive degenerative disease of the brain and also involves the accumulation of tau protein?
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy
A test used to determine the degree of attention span is the
Color word test
Which of the following fractures is the third most common and results in epistaxis and diplopia as well as numbness of the cheek?
zygomatic
Which of the following eye injuries is painless and results in the athlete seeing floating specks, flashes of light and having blurred vision?
Detached retina
An athlete who starts to exhibit symptoms of giddiness, attention difficulties, anxiety, and headaches hours or days after a collision may be considered to have:
Post concussion syndrome
Which of the following can occur if an athlete who has sustained a previous concussion, is returned to play prior to resolution of symptoms, and receives another head injury?
Second-impact syndrome
Which of the following symptoms are not indicative of a serious eye injury?
Excessive watering of the eye
After the head is struck, the brain continues to move in the fluid and may be contused against the opposite side, causing this type of injury:
contrecoup
Which of the following describes the inability of an athlete to remember events after the injury has occurred?
Anterograde amnesia
Management of an avulsed tooth includes all the following EXCEPT:
Scrub the tooth with a sterile gauze pad to get dirt off
An orbital fracture of the eye:
Can result in double vision
The treatment preferred by most physicians for an athlete with a hernia is:
To undergo surgical repair
Abdominal rigidity and pain at McBurney’s point may indicate:
Appendicitis
Getting the “wind knocked out” of you is characteristic of a:
Blow to the solar plexus
A condition in which the pleural cavity becomes filled with air that has entered through an opening in the chest is called:
pneumothorax
A protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a portion of the abdominal wall is called a(n):
hernia
The condition in which an athlete takes a violent blow or compression to the chest, without any accompanying rib fracture, and presents with severe pain during breathing, coughing up of blood, and shock is known as:
hemothorax
Hematuria in an athlete participating in contact or collision sports is a sign or symptom of:
A kidney contusion
In managing a scrotal contusion, the first responsibility is to:
Reduce test spasm
A blow to the rib cage can contuse the:
Intercostal muscles
A direct blow to the anterolateral aspect of the thorax, or a sudden twist, or falling on the ball, can compress the rib cage and can result most often in a:
Costochondral separation
Any athlete who receives a severe blow to the abdomen or back region should be instructed to check for:
Blood in the urine
Tapping over the transverse carpal ligament tests for:
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Which bone in the wrist is most commonly dislocated?
Lunate
Which of the following nerve roots provides innervation to the opponens digiti minimi?
C8
Which of the following is the most common cause of wrist sprains?
Forced hyperextension
Stenosing tenosynovitis of the first tunnel of the wrist through which the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus move is characteristic of:
De Quervain’s disease
To ensure the most complete healing of a PIP dorsal dislocation, constant splinting must be maintained at a 30-degree angle of flexion for how long?
3 weeks
A deformity caused by a rupture of the extensor tendon over the middle phalanx is called:
Boutonniere defomity
Which of the following tests is used to detect De Quervain’s syndrome?
Finkelstein’s test
Which side of the arm receives the most frequent impact and therefore is where the majority of bruising occurs?
ulnar
Which nerve controls extension of the fingers, wrist and thumb?
radial
Which of the following tests may be used to determine the function of the radial and ulnar arteries supplying the hand?
Allen’s test
A sprain of the ulnar collateral ligament of the MCP joint of the thumb caused by forceful abduction of the proximal phalanx is called:
Gamekeeper’s thumb
A wrist fracture resulting from the radius and ulna being forced backward and upward (hyperextension), is called a:
Colle’s fracture
Which of the following finger nail deformities results from thyroid problems?
Spooning
Which of the following results from a repeated static contraction of the forearm muscle that correlates to medial tibial stress syndrome?
Forearm splints
Severe point tenderness in the anatomical “snuffbox” may indicate a fracture of which bone?
Scaphoid
Which of the following is not a result of forced hyperextension of the wrist?
De Quervain’s syndrome
Which of the following conditions is due to a developmental abnormality of the wrist characterized by anatomic changes in the radius, ulna and carpal bones leading to palmar and ulnar wrist subluxation?
Madelung deformity
Which of the following tendons is involved with mallet finger?
Extensor Digitorum
Which of the following results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon?
Jersey finger
Fractures of the transverse and spinous processes in the lumbar spine present little danger to the athlete and will usually permit considerable activity within the range of pain tolerance.
True