SECTION 5 STUDY EMT BASIC CHAPTERS 27 – 32

Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of hypoperfusion?

a. Dilation of the pupils

b. Altered mental status

c. Delayed capillary refill

d. Increased heart rate

b. Altered mental status Correct
Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient’s compensatory response to blood loss?

a. Hypotension

b. Pale, cool skin

c. Tachycardia

d. Tachypnea

a. Hypotension Correct
Which of the following is a characteristic of venous bleeding?

a. It often requires the use of a tourniquet.

b. It cannot lead to life-threatening amounts of blood loss.

c. It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled.

d. It commonly requires the use of pressure point compression.

c. It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled.
Which of the following should increase the EMT’s suspicion of internal bleeding?

a. Fall from a height two or more times the patient’s height

b. All of the above

c. Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen

d. High-speed motor vehicle collision

b. All of the above
Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has a gunshot wound to his right leg and has active, steady, dark red bleeding. He is awake, pale, and diaphoretic. He has a strong radial pulse of 112 per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg. He has no other injuries or complaints. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of steps in the management of this patient?

Select one:

a. Cervical spine immobilization, high-concentration oxygen, direct pressure, and pressure point compression

b. High-concentration oxygen, elevation of the extremity, and application of ice

c. High-concentration oxygen, tourniquet, PASG, and elevation of the extremity

d. Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg

d. Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg
The use of PASG is NOT advised for which of the following injuries?

Select one:

a. Gunshot wound to the chest

b. External bleeding of the lower extremities

c. Internal bleeding to the lower extremities

d. Pelvic fracture

a. Gunshot wound to the chest
Which of the following BEST explains the reason for minimizing scene-time for the trauma patient with significant hemorrhage or the potential for significant hemorrhage?

Select one:

a. Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival.

b. There is nothing the EMT can do for a patient in shock.

c. It gives the EMT less opportunity to make mistakes in the patient’s care.

d. All of the above

a. Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival.
Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now?

Select one:

a. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved hand, and elevate the arm.

b. Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.

c. Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery.

d. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage.

b. Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.
Which of the following is part of the body’s compensatory response to blood loss?

Select one:

a. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.

b. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.

c. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases.

d. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases.

a. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.
Which of the following is recommended in situations in which a tourniquet must be used?

Select one:

a. Remove the tourniquet as soon as bleeding is controlled to minimize further damage to the limb.

b. Use a material that is wide and thick.

c. Apply a bulky dressing and bandage over the tourniquet.

d. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow or knee.

b. Use a material that is wide and thick. Correct
Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients at the body’s cellular level?

Select one:

a. Perfusion

b. Osmosis

c. Circulation

d. Hydrostatic pressure

A. PERFUSION
The most common form of a hemostatic agent is:

Select one:

a. hemostatic powder.

b. hemostatic tourniquet.

c. hemostatic dressings.

d. hemostatic granular.

c. hemostatic dressings.
Which of the following may occur when there is bleeding from a large vein?

Select one:

a. Transmission of bloodborne illnesses

b. Air embolism

c. Hypoperfusion

d. All of the above

d. All of the above Correct
When deciding where to transport a patient who is in hypovolemic shock or who has the potential for developing hypovolemic shock, which of the following is the most important service to be provided by the receiving hospital?

Select one:

a. Immediate surgical capabilities

b. Rehabilitation services

c. Availability of a chaplain

d. Critical-care nursing

a. Immediate surgical capabilities Correct
Which of the following must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding?

Select one:

a. All of the above

b. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost.

c. A younger person can tolerate more blood loss than an older one.

d. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the ground.

b. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost. Correct
Which of the following distinguishes irreversible shock from other stages of shock?

Select one:

a. Cell damage and death in the vital organs

b. Delayed capillary refill time

c. Low blood pressure

d. Altered mental status

a. Cell damage and death in the vital organs Correct
Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding?

Select one:

a. To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood

b. To prevent hypoperfusion

c. To make clean up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call

d. To prevent the spread of infectious diseases

b. To prevent hypoperfusion Correct
Which of the following circumstances may result in hypoperfusion?

Select one:

a. Blood vessels are dilated.

b. All of the above

c. There is external bleeding.

d. The heart is damaged.

b. All of the above Correct
Which of the following is the major cause of shock that the EMT will encounter?

Select one:

a. Excessive sweating

b. High blood pressure

c. Hemorrhage

d. Vomiting

c. Hemorrhage Correct
Which of the following BEST describes the function of blood?

Select one:

a. It clots, flows, transports, protects, and excretes to fight disease and life.

b. It is a life-giving liquid that supports all the body’s functions to maintain hypoperfusion.

c. It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation.

d. It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients to maintain lack of perfusion.

c. It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation. Correct
Which of the following will worsen the condition of the patient in shock?

Select one:

a. Transporting without first splinting all extremity fractures

b. Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient’s fear and anxiety

c. Applying high-concentration oxygen when it is not needed

d. Elevating the patient’s legs 8 to 10 inches

b. Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient’s fear and anxiety Correct
Which of the following is the most effective way of controlling external bleeding?

Select one:

a. Using direct pressure with a dressing

b. Running cold water over the wound

c. Using an ice pack

d. Elevating the affected part

a. Using direct pressure with a dressing Correct
Your patient is a 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chain saw. It appears that he has lost about 600 cc of blood. Which of the following is NOT part of the proper management of this patient?

Select one:

a. Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water

b. Use of a tourniquet

c. Administering oxygen

d. Using direct pressure to control the bleeding

a. Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water
Which of the following is responsible for most of the signs and symptoms of early shock?

Select one:

a. The body’s attempts at compensation for blood loss

b. Internal bleeding

c. External bleeding

d. Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels

a. The body’s attempts at compensation for blood loss
In which of the following vessels does the vital exchange take place and also has the thinnest walls through which oxygen, nutrients, and wastes can pass?

Select one:

a. Capillaries

b. Microvenules

c. Arterioles

d. Veins

a. Capillaries
For which of the following shock patients would the use of PASG be contraindicated?

Select one:

a. A 23-year-old pregnant woman with obvious fractures of both femurs

b. A 7-year-old male with massive soft-tissue loss of the left thigh from a shark bite

c. A 70-year-old female who is vomiting blood and has crackles in her lungs

d. A 50-year-old man whose pelvis has been crushed by a forklift

c. A 70-year-old female who is vomiting blood and has crackles in her lungs Correct
Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing?

Select one:

a. An open wound to the neck

b. An open wound to the chest

c. An open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding

d. All of the above

d. All of the above
Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries?

Select one:

a. Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

b. Cervical spine precautions

c. Application of a disinfectant solution

d. Provision of high-concentration oxygen

a. Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT
Which of the following is of concern in a patient who received burns to his hand when he grabbed a live electrical wire?

Select one:

a. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface.

b. The patient remains an electrocution hazard to rescuers for several minutes after being removed from the source of electricity.

c. Toxic gases were inhaled.

d. The burning will continue for hours, perhaps days.

a. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface.
Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin?

Select one:

a. Fascia

b. Adipose tissue

c. Epidermis

d. Dermis

c. Epidermis
According to the Rule of Nines for infants and young children, the patient’s head and neck account for what percentage of the total body surface area?

Select one:

a. 14 percent

b. 13.5 percent

c. 9 percent

d. 18 percent

D. 18 PERCENT
Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury?

Select one:

a. All of the above are appropriate.

b. Anticipate vomiting.

c. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient’s vital signs are normal.

d. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities.

a. All of the above are appropriate.
When using the rule of palm to estimate the approximate body surface area burned, the patient’s palm equals about what percentage of the body’s surface area?

Select one:

a. 1 percent

b. 3 percent

c. 5 percent

d. 2 percent

A. 1 PERCENT
For which of the following patients should the EMT carefully continue to monitor the patient’s ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport due to the greatest risk of respiratory failure?

Select one:

a. A 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest

b. A 17-year-old male with a blistering sunburn on his face

c. A 34-year-old male who opened the radiator of his car and had hot fluid spray on his chest, resulting in redness and pain in an area about the size of the patient’s hand

d. A 28-year-old male who spilled a strong industrial acid on his legs

a. A 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest
An injury caused by heavy pressure to the tissues, such as when an extremity is trapped under a fallen tree, that results in damage to muscle cells and the accumulation of waste products in the tissue is called a(n):

Select one:

a. crush injury.

b. abrasion.

c. contusion.

d. evisceration.

a. crush injury.
Which of the following is NOT a type of avulsion?

Select one:

a. The skin is stripped off the hand, like removing a glove.

b. A finger is cut off with a butcher’s saw.

c. The skin is partially torn away from the foot.

d. An ear is partially torn away from the head.

b. A finger is cut off with a butcher’s saw.
Your patient is a 14-year-old male who crashed his bicycle, landing prone and sliding along a gravel trail. He has deep abrasions to his hands, arms, chest, and knees. The patient has small pieces of gravel, twigs, and dirt embedded in the abrasions. Which of the following is the best way to manage this situation after taking cervical spine immobilization?

Select one:

a. Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.

b. Use a tongue depressor to scrape large pieces of debris out of the wounds, place the patient on high-concentration oxygen, and transport.

c. Do not attempt to remove any debris, apply pressure dressings over the embedded material if necessary, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport.

d. Use your fingers to pick embedded debris from the wound, bandage with moist saline dressings in place, and transport.

a. Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.
Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?

Select one:

a. A strong possibility of contamination

b. An object that remains impaled in the body

c. Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding

d. All of the above

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
Which of the following is a consideration in determining a burn’s severity?

Select one:

a. Body surface area involved in the burn

b. The type of agent that caused the burn

c. Other illnesses or injuries the patient may have

d. All of the above

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
In caring for a 27-year-old male who has a large laceration on his anterior forearm, you have noticed that your pressure dressing has become saturated with blood. Which of the following should you do next?

Select one:

a. Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.

b. Apply an ice pack over the original dressing.

c. Remove the saturated dressings and apply a large trauma dressing.

d. Apply a tourniquet.

a. Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.
While assessing a patient with partial thickness burns to his chest and neck, what should be your highest priority (even if there are no symptoms presently)?

Select one:

a. Hypothermia

b. Airway

c. Bleeding

d. None of the choices

b. Airway
You are assessing a 30-year-old male patient that had his arm caught in a piece of machinery. By the time you arrive he has been freed. The patient tells you that he does not understand why you were called, but as you inspect the injured limb you notice a small puncture wound. You should have a high index of suspension of which of the following injuries?

Select one:

a. Puncture

b. High-pressure injection

c. Crush injury

d. Chemical burn

b. High-pressure injection
Burns pose a greater risk to infants and children for which of the following reasons?

Select one:

a. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn.

b. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of heart problems associated with the burn.

c. None of the above

d. Infants and children have a greater risk of infection from the burn.

a. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn.
An injury in which the epidermis remains intact, but blood vessels and cells in the dermis are injured, is called a(n):

Select one:

a. abrasion.

b. avulsion.

c. concussion.

d. contusion.

D. CONTUSION
Which of the following is recommended when caring for an amputated part?

Select one:

a. Rinse away debris with saline solution and place the part in a container of ice.

b. Always transport the amputated part with the patient.

c. Wrap the part in aluminum foil to preserve body temperature.

d. Seal the part in a plastic bag and place it in a pan of water cooled by an ice pack.

d. Seal the part in a plastic bag and place it in a pan of water cooled by an ice pack.
While assessing a 78-year-old male patient who escaped an apartment fire with partial thickness burns to both arms, the EMT must be aware of which of the following?

Select one:

a. Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn.

b. The burn is the most serious injury to the patient.

c. Being involved in a crime makes the patient part of the chain of evidence, requiring a police officer to ride with you to the hospital.

d. The patient may need to be questioned by police and fire officials about the cause of the fire.

a. Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn.
Which of the following layers of the skin is the most important in insulating the body against heat loss?

Select one:

a. Subdural layer

b. Parietal layer

c. Epidermis

d. Subcutaneous layer

d. Subcutaneous layer
Which of the following is true concerning lacerations?

Select one:

a. They may be caused by blunt trauma.

b. They may be caused by penetrating trauma.

c. They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage.

d. All of the above

d. All of the above
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques?

Select one:

a. Application of an ice pack or chemical cold pack

b. Running cold water over the wound

c. Elevation of the injured part

d. Direct pressure

d. Direct pressure
A burn extending into the subcutaneous fat would be classified as which type of burn?

Select one:

a. Superficial

b. Deep partial thickness

c. Full thickness

d. Superficial partial thickness

c. Full thickness
Which of the following BEST describes a partial thickness burn?

Select one:

a. The skin is charred or blackened and lacks sensation.

b. The skin is red and moist with blister formation.

c. The skin is red, but dry and painful.

d. The skin is white and dry with no sensation of pain.

b. The skin is red and moist with blister formation.
Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury?

Select one:

a. Avulsion

b. Abrasion

c. Contusion

d. Evisceration

c. Contusion
Which of the following BEST describes an avulsion?

Select one:

a. A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue

b. An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object

c. An accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling

d. The epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface

a. A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the skin’s status in the case of a closed chest injury?

Select one:

a. The skin may be penetrated and occluded.

b. The skin is penetrated.

c. Internal contusions and lacerations cannot occur.

d. The skin is not penetrated.

d. The skin is not penetrated.
Which of the following is a strategy to maintain an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin?

Select one:

a. Wrap the dressing circumferentially with gauze.

b. Do not use occlusive dressings in this case.

c. Manually maintain pressure.

d. Do not use adhesive tape.

c. Manually maintain pressure.
Some drawbacks to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing include:

Select one:

a. skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.

b. a flutter valve is difficult to create.

c. sterility cannot be ensured unless the materials were autoclaved.

d. foil cannot create an airtight seal.

a. skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.
Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries?

Select one:

a. The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

b. Cervical spine precautions

c. Provision of high-concentration oxygen to the patient

d. Application of a disinfectant solution during clean-up

a. The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT
In addition to lacerations, blunt trauma resulting in a closed chest injury creates the potential for which of the following internal injuries?

Select one:

a. Avulsion

b. Contusion

c. Abrasion

d. Evisceration

B. CONTUSION
You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of illness, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient?

Select one:

a. Searching for presence of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension

b. Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds

c. Performing a distal neurological assessment

d. Verifying trauma center ER bed availability

b. Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds
Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma?

Select one:

a. Pancreas

b. Kidneys

c. Intestines

d. Liver

d. Liver
Which of the following BEST describes an evisceration?

Select one:

a. An open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude

b. The epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface

c. An accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling

d. A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue

a. An open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude
Which of the following injuries does NOT produce distended neck veins?

Select one:

a. Cardiac tamponade

b. Tension pneumothorax

c. Traumatic asphyxia

d. All of the answer choices may cause distended neck veins.

d. All of the answer choices may cause distended neck veins.
Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing?

Select one:

a. An open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding

b. An open wound to the chest

c. An open wound to the neck

d. All of the above

d. All of the above
Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax?

Select one:

a. Shortness of breath

b. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury

c. Signs and symptoms of shock

d. Distended neck veins

b. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury
Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

Select one:

a. Use a porous material such as a 4″ by 4″ gauze pad.

b. None of the above

c. Trim the dressing so that it is the exact size of the wound.

d. Tape the dressing securely on three sides.

d. Tape the dressing securely on three sides.
The pathophysiology of _________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point where the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately, usually secondary to trauma.

Select one:

a. hemopneumothorax

b. pericardial effusion

c. cardiac tamponade

d. commotio cordis

c. cardiac tamponade
You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1-2 minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions?

Select one:

a. Tension pneumothorax

b. Cardiac tamponade

c. Commotio cordis

d. Aortic dissection

c. Commotio cordis
While palpating the radial pulses of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, you notice a difference in the strength of the pulses bilaterally. This is a finding that you suspect may be associated with:

Select one:

a. flail chest.

b. tension pneumothorax.

c. aortic dissection.

d. commotio cordis.

c. aortic dissection.
Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include:

Select one:

a. massive hemorrhage.

b. irritation and peritonitis.

c. absence of unilateral pulses.

d. increasing intrathoracic pressures.

b. irritation and peritonitis.
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of respiratory failure and should be carefully monitored for ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport?

Select one:

a. Tension pneumothorax

b. Abdominal evisceration

c. Flail chest

d. Hemopneumothorax

a. Tension pneumothorax
Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being “hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach.” Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient?

Select one:

a. Reducing the swelling around his eyes by applying a cold pack

b. Getting a description of the assailants

c. The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained

d. The possibility of a pneumothorax

d. The possibility of a pneumothorax
Which of the following is true concerning lacerations?

Select one:

a. They may be caused by blunt trauma.

b. They may be caused by penetrating trauma.

c. All of the above

d. They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage.

c. All of the above
Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?

Select one:

a. All of the above

b. The strong possibility of contamination

c. Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding

d. The object that remains impaled in the body

a. All of the above
Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest?

Select one:

a. A section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems

b. The fracture of one rib in two or more consecutive places

c. The fracture of at least four ribs in two or more places

d. A lung that has been punctured by a fractured rib, resulting in a buildup of air

a. A section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems
What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following a traumatic asphyxiation?

Select one:

a. The patient has become hypoxic due to a chest injury and the finding suggests central cyanosis.

b. High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.

c. Bluish or reddish facial discoloration is not associated with traumatic asphyxiation; a pale discoloration is usually present.

d. The physiological strain of the body results in a flushed appearance and increased risk of a hypertensive event.

b. High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.
Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a four-sided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

Select one:

a. It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.

b. It eliminates the need to continue monitoring the patient’s respiratory status.

c. It prevents the development of a hemothorax by allowing blood to escape.

d. It allows easy access for re-examination of the wound en route to the hospital.

a. It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.
The mechanism of injury in which a patient’s chest has struck an immovable object, such as a steering wheel, may most accurately be described as a:

Select one:

a. blunt trauma injury.

b. compression injury.

c. penetrating injury.

d. coup contrecoup injury.

b. compression injury.
The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss.

Select one:

a. 1

b. 0.5

c. 3

d. 5

C. 3
What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax with each breath?

Select one:

a. An open chest wound

b. A sucking chest wound

c. A closed tension pneumothorax

d. A gurgling chest wound

b. A sucking chest wound
A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?

Select one:

a. Hemothorax

b. Tension pneumothorax

c. Pneumothorax

d. Hemopneumothorax

b. Tension pneumothorax
Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered?

Select one:

a. Flail chest

b. Hemothorax

c. Pneumothorax

d. Traumatic asphyxia

d. Traumatic asphyxia
Which of the following traumatic chest injuries may result in massive, often fatal internal hemorrhage?

Select one:

a. Aortic dissection

b. Cardiac tamponade

c. Hemothorax

d. Hemopneumothorax

a. Aortic dissection
Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury?

Select one:

a. All of the answer choices are appropriate.

b. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities.

c. Anticipate vomiting.

d. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient’s vital signs are normal.

a. All of the answer choices are appropriate.
What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries?

Select one:

a. All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding, leading to hypoperfusion.

b. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.

c. Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient.

d. Splints do not adequately fit the patient’s extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization.

b. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.
The part of the skeleton that is made up from the skull and spinal column is called the:

Select one:

a. boney skeleton.

b. torso.

c. appendicular skeleton.

d. axial skeleton.

d. axial skeleton.
Which of the following structures connect bone ends, making joints more stable?

Select one:

a. Ligaments

b. Cartilage

c. Periosteum

d. Tendons

a. Ligaments
Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints?

Select one:

a. Cartilage

b. Smooth muscle

c. Ligaments

d. Peritoneum

a. Cartilage
Where could you find the phalange bones?

Select one:

a. Lower extremities

b. Upper extremities

c. Hands and feet

d. Skull and neck

c. Hands and feet
Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures?

Select one:

a. Hemorrhage

b. Nerve damage

c. All of the above

d. Swelling

C. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Which of the following bones is found in the chest?

Select one:

a. Ilium

b. Tarsals

c. Metacarpals

d. Sternum

d. Sternum
Which of the following BEST describes the compartment syndrome?

Select one:

a. A non life-threatening condition caused by orthopedic injuries in which blood flow is stopped when the bone ends compress the blood vessels.

b. A life-threatening condition caused by trapping the blood flow by a fracture when the bone ends cut the blood vessels.

c. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure.

d. A serious condition caused by the amount of equipment that must be carried in the ambulance compartments.

c. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure.
Which of the following is an injury to the musculature of an extremity?

Select one:

a. Sprain

b. Luxation

c. Strain

d. Fracture

c. Strain
Which of the following describes an open extremity injury?

Select one:

a. The joint capsule has been torn open during a dislocation.

b. Bone ends have lacerated through the soft tissues and skin from the inside.

c. Both A and B

d. A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone.

C. BOTH A AND B
A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries?

Select one:

a. A possible fracture of the cervical spine

b. A possible fracture of the humerus

c. Suspected multiple fractures of the femur, tibia, and fibula

d. A possible fracture of the femur

d. A possible fracture of the femur
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues?

Select one:

a. It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments.

b. It reduces pain.

c. It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury.

d. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.

d. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.
When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what “Six Ps”?

Select one:

a. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pad

b. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure

c. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pressure

d. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure

d. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure
Which of the following is NOT a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT?

Select one:

a. Splint an isolated extremity injury before moving the patient to the stretcher.

b. Immobilize the site of an extremity injury from the joint above it to the joint below it.

c. Check the distal neurovascular function before and after splinting.

d. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

d. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.
A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, “How much traction should I pull?” The partner’s BEST reply is which of the following?

Select one:

a. The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds.

b. The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10 percent of the patient’s body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.

c. Pull enough traction to give the patient some relief from the pain.

d. No traction splint applied in the field pulls true traction; they must pull 20 pounds of countertraction.

b. The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10 percent of the patient’s body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.
Which of the following complications may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity?

Select one:

a. Compromising circulation to the extremity

b. Converting a closed fracture to an open one

c. All of the above

d. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury

d. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________.

Select one:

a. wrist; shoulder

b. forearm; humerus

c. wrist; elbow

d. fingertips; shoulder

b. forearm; humerus
Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Select one:

a. Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay.

b. Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center.

c. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.

d. Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury.

c. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.
A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is BEST managed by which of the following techniques?

Select one:

a. Placing two long padded board splints on either side of the extremity, extending from the shoulder to the wrist

b. Using an upper extremity traction splint

c. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body

d. Using a long-arm air splint

c. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body
Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of:

Select one:

a. pelvic dislocation syndrome.

b. pelvic trauma/fracture.

c. priapism.

d. spinal fracture or injury.

b. pelvic trauma/fracture.
Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following complications should you anticipate?

Select one:

a. Shock

b. All of the above

c. Damage to internal organs

d. Damage to the nerves of the lower extremities

B. ALL OF THE ABOVE
A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder it “pops back into place.” What should your next step be?

Select one:

a. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.

b. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient.

c. Continue splinting and report the popping sound to the triage nurse when you arrive at the hospital.

d. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.

a. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
Messages from the body to the brain are carried by which of the following types of nerves?

Select one:

a. Sensory

b. Skeletal

c. Motor

d. Cranial

A. SENSORY
Which of the following is controlled by the left side of the brain?

Select one:

a. Sensation in the left arm

b. Sensation of the right leg

c. Movement of both lower extremities

d. Movement of the left arm

B. SENSATION OF THE RIGHT LEG
To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached?

Select one:

a. Thoracic

b. Sacral

c. Cervical

d. Lumbar

a. Thoracic
How many cervical vertebrae are there?

Select one:

a. 7

b. 12

c. 5

d. 4

A. 7
A fracture of which of the following bones would be considered a skull fracture?

Select one:

a. Temporal bone

b. Nasal bones

c. Maxilla

d. Any of the above

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Which of the following is classified as an open head injury?

Select one:

a. Contusion without a skull fracture

b. Laceration with a skull fracture

c. Laceration without a skull fracture

d. Both A and B

b. Laceration with a skull fracture
Which of the following is a sign of possible brain injury?

Select one:

a. A deep laceration of the scalp

b. Projectile vomiting

c. Irregular breathing pattern

d. All of the above

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has a contusion on his forehead, is confused, and is bleeding from his nose. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 80/58 mmHg, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and his skin is cool and clammy. Which of the following sets of injuries should you suspect?

Select one:

a. Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding

b. Head injury

c. Head injury and spine injury

d. Head injury and internal bleeding

a. Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding
Hyperventilation of a patient with a severe brain injury means that bag-valve-mask ventilations are provided at a rate of ________ per minute.

Select one:

a. 20

b. 24

c. 30

d. 34

A. 20
Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury?

Select one:

a. Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood

b. Increasing blood flow to the brain

c. Decreasing blood flow to the brain

d. Decreasing the patient’s blood pressure

c. Decreasing blood flow to the brain
Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true?

Select one:

a. It is a bruising of the brain tissue.

b. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury.

c. It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness.

d. All of the above

b. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury.
Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury?

Select one:

a. Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ears or nose

b. Administration of 100 percent oxygen

c. Failure to keep the patient awake and talking

d. Improper management of airway and ventilation

d. Improper management of airway and ventilation
Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury?

Select one:

a. Thoracic and lumbar

b. Cervical and lumbar

c. Cervical and sacra

d. Thoracic and sacra

b. Cervical and lumbar
In most cases, which of the following is the correct way to provide initial management of a suspected cervical spine injury?

Select one:

a. Hold the patient’s head still in a neutral, “eyes forward” position.

b. Gently apply pressure to the top of the patient’s head.

c. Maintain the patient’s head and neck in the position they are found.

d. Provide approximately 15 pounds of upward cervical traction.

a. Hold the patient’s head still in a neutral, “eyes forward” position.
Your patient is pregnant at 20 weeks’ gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine?

Select one:

a. Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position.

b. Place the patient supine on the backboard.

c. Place the patient on her left side on the backboard.

d. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

d. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.
Which of the following signs is LEAST likely to indicate a traumatic brain injury?

Select one:

a. Low blood pressure

b. Irregular breathing pattern

c. Vomiting

d. Irrational behavior

a. Low blood pressure
Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury?

Select one:

a. Cerebral laceration

b. Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments

c. Gunshot wound to the head

d. Concussion

d. Concussion
Of the following patients, which injury is the highest priority to receive controlled hyperventilation?

Select one:

a. A 25-year-old female victim of battery who is awake but complains of a headache and has bloody fluid draining from her nose and left ear

b. A 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli

c. A 25-year-old male who regained consciousness one or two minutes after being struck on the head by a baseball bat and is now asking repetitive questions

d. A 70-year-old male who struck his head when he fell in the parking lot, has a large laceration on his forehead, and is disoriented

b. A 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli
When blood accumulates between the brain and the dura mater, what is the result?

Select one:

a. Epidural contusion

b. Subdural contusion

c. Epidural hematoma

d. Subdural hematoma

d. Subdural hematoma
Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries?

Select one:

a. Soft cervical collars

b. Five-pound sand bags

c. Rigid cervical collars

d. All of the above

c. Rigid cervical collars
At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated?

Select one:

a. Only when directed to do so by medical control

b. When the patient is secured to a long backboard

c. After a short immobilization device has been applied

d. After a cervical collar has been applied

b. When the patient is secured to a long backboard
Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient’s head for spinal immobilization?

Select one:

a. Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance

b. Neutral, in-line “eyes forward” position

c. Stabilized in position found

d. The “sniffing” position

b. Neutral, in-line “eyes forward” position
Which of the following may be a hazard of an improperly fitting cervical collar?

Select one:

a. Allows hyperextension of the neck

b. Prevents the patient from opening his mouth

c. Allows flexion of the neck

d. All of the above

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move?

Select one:

a. The EMT at the head of the patient

b. The EMT with the highest level of training

c. The EMT with the most seniority

d. The EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient

a. The EMT at the head of the patient
Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing the straps on a long spine board?

Select one:

a. Legs, torso, head

b. Head, torso, legs

c. Torso, legs, head

d. Head, legs, torso

c. Torso, legs, head
Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle?

Select one:

a. Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard.

b. Have the patient stand up and then do a “standing take-down” onto a long backboard.

c. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine.

d. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

d. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.
For which of the following patients would the use of a short spine immobilization device be appropriate?

Select one:

a. A 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain

b. An unresponsive driver who was found in the driver’s seat of a pickup truck that crashed into a tree

c. A 15-year-old male who struck a curb with his motorized scooter and flipped over the handlebars

d. A 77-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is in an awkward position lying on her side on the landing

a. A 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain
When using a short spine immobilization device, which part of the body is secured last?

Select one:

a. Arms

b. Torso

c. Head

d. Legs

C. HEAD
In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed?

Select one:

a. If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head

b. If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet

c. If the helmet interferes with airway management

d. If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid

c. If the helmet interferes with airway management
Which of the following is NOT used to calculate a patient’s GCS?

Select one:

a. Eye movement

b. Verbal response

c. Work of breathing

d. Motor response

c. Work of breathing
Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae?

Select one:

a. Peripheral nervous system

b. Central nervous system

c. Autonomic nervous system

d. All of the above

a. Peripheral nervous system
What is another name for the zygomatic bone?

Select one:

a. Malar

b. Maxillae

c. Temporal

d. Mandible

a. Malar
The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person’s back are known as which of the following?

Select one:

a. Vertebrae

b. Foramen magnum

c. Spinous process

d. None of the above

D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
Which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull?

Select one:

a. Foramen magnum

b. Orbits

c. Spinous process

d. Temporomandibular joint

a. Foramen magnum
You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute; you notice an abrasion to the side of her head. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110, a pulse of 60 beats per minute, and slightly irregular breathing. The patient’s presentation is most likely caused by which of the following?

Select one:

a. Increased intracranial pressure

b. Coup-contrecoup injury

c. Closed head injury

d. Increased arterial pressure

a. Increased intracranial pressure
You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice bruising behind both ears. This is known as what?

Select one:

a. Fatigue signs

b. Warrior’s signs

c. Soldier’s signs

d. Battle’s signs

d. Battle’s signs
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological assessment that looks at which of the following?

Select one:

a. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response

b. Grip strength, verbal response, and eye opening

c. Verbal response, motor response, and AVPU

d. Motor response, arm movement, and speech

a. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response
While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that which of the following conditions may develop?

Select one:

a. Deep vein thrombosis

b. Air embolus

c. Air thrombosis

d. Deep vein embolus

b. Air embolus
Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve?

Select one:

a. Spinous process

b. None of the above

c. Malar

d. Dermatome

d. Dermatome
You are treating a 35-year-old male patient that has been involved in a motorcycle incident. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 60/40, a pulse of 66 beats per minute, and respirations of 18 breaths per minute. The patient’s presentation is most likely caused by which of the following?

Select one:

a. Cardiogenic shock

b. Septic shock

c. Increased intracranial pressure

d. Neurogenic shock

d. Neurogenic shock
What is the definition of multisystem trauma?

Select one:

a. Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury.

b. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies.

c. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.

d. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties.

c. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.
What is the BEST option an EMT has when encountering poor BVM compliance when attempting to ventilate a patient?

Select one:

a. Address ventilation en route to the hospital or ALS intercept.

b. Place the patient on supplemental oxygen.

c. Begin chest compressions.

d. Involve two people in the procedure.

d. Involve two people in the procedure.
Which of the following choices is NOT a justifiable reason for delaying transport of a critical trauma patient?

Select one:

a. Immobilizing the patient to a long spine board

b. Suctioning the airway

c. Awaiting arrival of the patient’s parents on-scene

d. Ventilating a patient in respiratory distress

c. Awaiting arrival of the patient’s parents on-scene
What type of trauma triage criteria regarding transport would a finger amputation receive?

Select one:

a. Trauma center

b. Any hospital, as long as on-line medical direction approves the facility’s capabilities

c. The patient’s choice of destination

d. Any hospital with surgical facilities

d. Any hospital with surgical facilities
You are transporting a stable patient who was involved in a minor fall from a ladder at a height of about 10 feet to a local community hospital. You assumed full spinal precautions not only because the patient has midline back pain in the sacrum, but also because he was knocked unconscious. While transporting, the patient begins to become increasingly confused, develop an irregular respiratory rate, and experience a drop in heart rate with an increase in blood pressure. You just called in a radio report and are about 7 minutes from the hospital. A trauma center is about 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the BEST transport decision?

Select one:

a. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic.

b. Continue transporting to the local hospital since it’s the closest facility.

c. Continue transporting to the local hospital because you’ve already given report and they accepted the patient.

d. Call medical control for advice from the trauma center.

a. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic.
You encounter an accident on a busy intercity street while on duty. Calling into dispatch, you make note that the occupants of both vehicles are outside, and request additional units to proceed non-emergently. You approach an elderly male who is rubbing his back and left shoulder. During secondary assessment of past medical history, you make note of several important details: The patient is on high blood pressure medications, and has had a heart attack in the past. He is complaining of midline thoracic pain on palpation of his spine and left shoulder pain, which may have been from the seat belt, but is refusing care and transport. The patient did not lose consciousness. Based on this information, which transport decision would be most appropriate for this patient?

Select one:

a. Allow the patient to sign a refusal.

b. Take the patient to a local community hospital.

c. Call for ALS intercept.

d. Take the patient to a trauma center.

b. Take the patient to a local community hospital. Correct
What is the height from which an adult fall would meet trauma triage criteria set forth by the CDC?

Select one:

a. 25 feet

b. 20 feet

c. 10 feet

d. 15 feet

b. 20 feet
A respiratory rate of less than _______ in infants is a significant finding and indicates a critical patient, who should be immediately transported to a trauma center if secondary to trauma.

Select one:

a. 30

b. 25

c. 18

d. 20

D. 20
Which one of the following is NOT a key decision for the EMT when faced with a multisystem or multiple trauma patient?

Select one:

a. Is the patient seriously injured?

b. Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene?

c. Do I need to minimize on-scene time?

d. Should I transport to a trauma center?

b. Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene?
What trauma triage guidelines did the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention release in order to guide the most injured patients into trauma centers?

Select one:

a. Teamwork, timing, and transport

b. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision

c. Lights, sirens, and diesel

d. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

d. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury
What is the definition of multiple trauma?

Select one:

a. A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury.

b. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.

c. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties.

d. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies.

a. A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury.
Which one of the following patients would justify the need to directly transport to a trauma center based on special patient considerations?

Select one:

a. An end-stage renal disease patient who tripped and fell and is complaining of shoulder pain on the same side as his shunt

b. An elderly patient on anticoagulants who slipped out of her wheelchair and is complaining of pelvic pain

c. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC

d. An unlicensed teenage driver who has a pulse rate of 120 after a MVC and a 4 minute EMS response

c. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC
You are dispatched to a motorcycle crash with one patient involved. What is the most important intervention to perform first?

Select one:

a. Stabilize the pelvis to a long spine board

b. Manually stabilize the cervical spine

c. Begin chest compressions

d. Suction the vomit and secretions from the airway

b. Manually stabilize the cervical spine
What are some of the most important critical decisions an EMT can make on the scene of a serious trauma?

Select one:

a. Whether to await ALS care on-scene or begin BLS transport

b. Load and go versus stay and play

c. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision

d. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

c. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision
A respiratory rate of less than _______ and greater than _______ in cases of trauma are criteria for immediate transportation to a trauma center according to the CDC physiologic guidelines.

Select one:

a. 5; 45

b. 12; 20

c. 8; 32

d. 10; 29

d. 10; 29
What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) measurement of altered mental status, which according to CDC guidelines necessitates transport to a trauma center?

Select one:

a. 13

b. 12

c. 14

d. 8

A. 13
According to CDC guidelines, a systolic blood pressure of less than _______ indicates a patient should be transported to a trauma center.

Select one:

a. 80

b. 100

c. 110

d. 90

d. 90
Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following?

Select one:

a. Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual.

b. Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on-scene.

c. Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.

d. Respond above and beyond the call of duty.

a. Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual.
What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use which will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival?

Select one:

a. Lights, sirens, and diesel

b. Teamwork, timing, and transport

c. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

d. Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers

B. Teamwork, timing, and transport
Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered MOST severe, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center?

Select one:

a. Flail chest

b. Closed head injury

c. An open (compound) midshaft femur fracture

d. Midline cervical spine pain

a. Flail chest