Quality Management

People view quality subjectively and in relation to differing criteria based on their individual roles in the production-marketing value chain.
TRUE
The transcendent definition of quality provides a means by which quality can be measured or assessed as a basis for practical business decisions.
FALSE
According to the product perspective of quality, larger number of product attributes are equivalent to higher quality.
TRUE
The user perspective of quality judges a product based on how well the product performs its intended function.
TRUE
According to the manufacturing perspective of quality, quality is based on the relationship of product benefits to price
FALSE
was the primary means of quality control during the first half of the twentieth century.
TRUE
During the 1940s and 1950s, after the world war II, the quality of products was the most important priority of top managers as it was recognized as the key to worldwide success.
FALSE
Although quality can drive business success, it cannot guarantee it, and one must not infer that business failures or stock price drops are the result of poor quality.
TRUE
The Six Sigma approach for quality improvement requires increased levels of training and education for both managers and front-line employees.
TRUE
It is the responsibility of the marketing and sales department to learn about the products and product features that consumers want, and the prices they are willing to pay for those products.
TRUE
The receiving department in an organization ensures that the delivered items are of the quality specified by the purchase contract.
TRUE
The function of tool engineers in manufacturing industries is to work with product design engineers to develop realistic specifications.
FALSE
The inspection step in manufacturing should ideally be used as a means of gathering information that can be used to improve quality of the products rather than simply to remove defective items.
TRUE
If quality is built into the product properly, inspection should be unnecessary except for auditing purposes and functional testing.
TRUE
The production of services typically requires a lower degree of customization than does manufacturing.
FALSE
Services cannot be inventoried or inspected prior to delivery as manufactured goods
TRUE
Manufacturing is generally more labor intensive compared to services
FALSE
Services are produced prior to consumption.
FALSE
Customers evaluate a service primarily by the quality of the human contact.
TRUE
The quality assurance team in a firm is solely responsible for ensuring that the products produced meet the required quality specifications.
FALSE
The accounting function helps in achieving quality by identifying areas of quality improvement and tracking the progress of quality improvement programs.
TRUE
High quality of products is an important source of competitive advantage for organizations.
TRUE
Instituting a strategy of quality improvement usually helps to increase short-run profitability
FALSE
Today, organizations are asking employees to take more responsibility for acting as the point of contact between the organization and the customer.
TRUE
Employees who embrace quality as a personal value often go beyond what they’re asked or normally expected to do in order to provide extraordinary service to a customer
TRUE
Which of the following perspectives of quality considers quality to be synonymous with superiority or excellence?
a. Product perspective
b. Transcendent perspective
c. Value perspective
d. Manufacturing perspective
b. Transcendent perspective
Which of the following is true of the transcendent or judgmental perspective of quality?
a. It is of little practical value to the managers, as standards of excellence vary considerably among individuals.
b. It provides a precise and universally acceptable definition for quality.
c. It defines quality on the basis of the relationship of product benefits to price.
d. It provides a means by which quality can be measured or assessed as a basis for practical business decisions.
a. It is of little practical value to the managers, as standards of excellence vary considerably among individuals.
A consumer electronics company introduced a new music system into the market with multiple features like built in alarm, mobile and iPod charger, radio and many more. The company is trying to influence the _____ perspective of quality by providing multiple features in a single product.
a. product
b. user
c. value
d. transcendent
a. product
Which of the following perspectives of quality judges a product on the basis of how well the product performs its intended function?
a. Value perspective
b. Product perspective
c. User perspective
d. Manufacturing perspective
c. User perspective
The value perspective defines quality of a product on the basis of:
a. the ability of the product to perform its intended function.
b. the relationship of product benefits to price.
c. the quantity of some product attribute.
d. the product’s conformance to its specifications.
b. the relationship of product benefits to price.
Kosher’s, a supermarket in Surbury, employs various strategies to provide good quality products to consumers at lower prices compared to other competing stores. This marketing strategy is most likely to influence the _____ perspective of quality.
a. user
b. product
c. manufacturing
d. value
d. value
Which of the following perspectives of quality judges quality of a product on the basis of consistency in meeting product specifications?
a. Manufacturing perspective
b. User perspective
c. Value perspective
d. Transcendent perspective
a. Manufacturing perspective
The _____ perspective defines quality as the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bears on its ability to satisfy given needs.
a. value
b. transcendent
c. manufacturing
d. customer
d. customer
The ultimate purchaser of a product or service is referred to as a(n) _____.
a. supplier
b. external customer
c. consumer
d. internal customer
c. consumer
Shenzen Electronics, a cell phone manufacturing company, buys microphones and bluetooth handsets from Atid Infotech which manufactures cell phones and cellular accessories. For Atid Infotech, Shenzen is a(n) _____.
a. consumer
b. supplier
c. external customer
d. internal customer
c. external customer
Which of the following is true regarding internal customers of an organization?
a. They buy products or services for their own personal use.
b. They receive goods or services from suppliers within the organization.
c. They are the ultimate purchasers of a product or service.
d. They do not add any value to the product before it reaches the consumer.
b. They receive goods or services from suppliers within the organization.
Customers generally view quality from the _____ perspective.
a. transcendent
b. manufacturing
c. value
d. user
a. transcendent
Which of the following perspectives of quality is most likely to be meaningful to people who work in marketing because they are responsible for determining the needs and expectations of the customers?
a. User perspective
b. Manufacturing perspective
c. Value perspective
d. Transcendent perspective
a. User perspective
The value perspective of quality is most important at the _____ stage in the creation and delivery of goods and services.
a. manufacturing
b. design
c. marketing
d. distribution
b. design
Which of the following perspectives of quality is meaningful for production workers who are responsible for guaranteeing that design specifications are met during production?
a. User perspective
b. Customer perspective
c. Product perspective
d. Manufacturing perspective
d. Manufacturing perspective
Which of the following perspectives of quality provides the basis for coordinating the entire value chain?
a. Customer perspective
b. User perspective
c. Transcendent perspective
d. Value perspective
a. Customer perspective
Which of the following is true of quality management during the age of craftsmanship that existed before the advent of industrial revolution?
a. Inspection was the primary means of quality control.
b. Various statistical methods and control charts were being used to identify quality problems in production processes and to ensure consistency of output.
c. Ensuring quality of the products was the responsibility of the quality departments and not the workers who were directly involved in creating the products.
d. Quality assurance was informal and efforts were made to ensure that quality was built into products by the people who produced them.
d. Quality assurance was informal and efforts were made to ensure that quality was built into products by the people who produced them.
The concept of total quality is defined as a(n):
a. customer-focused, results-oriented approach to business improvement that integrates
many traditional quality improvement tools and techniques with a bottom-line and strategic orientation.
b. people-focused management system that aims at continual increase in customer satisfaction at continually lower real cost.
c. structured approach to organizational management that is used to prioritize and select
projects that have high benefits relative to the effort involved in accomplishing them.
d. integrated approach to organizational performance management that results in lower consumption of resources.
b. people-focused management system that aims at continual increase in customer satisfaction at continually lower real cost.
Which of the following is true regarding the six-sigma approach to quality improvement?
a. It does not address problems involving cost reduction and efficiency.
b. It integrates many traditional quality improvement tools and techniques that have been tested and validated over the years, with a bottom-line and strategic orientation.
c. It become less effective in addressing problems related to quality and efficiency if the six sigma tools are combined with lean tools from the Toyota production system.
d. It focuses entirely on the training and education of managers and not the front-line employees and the technical staff in the organization.
b. It integrates many traditional quality improvement tools and techniques that have been tested and validated over the years, with a bottom-line and strategic orientation.
The marketing and sales department in an organization contributes to the quality of the product by:
a. bringing together technical staffs from both the buyer’s and suppliers’ companies to design products and solve technical problems.
b. designing and maintaining the tools used in manufacturing and inspection of goods.
c. learning the products and product features that consumers want and knowing the prices that consumers are willing to pay for them.
d. ensuring that the items delivered by the suppliers are of the quality specified by the purchase contract.
c. learning the products and product features that consumers want and knowing the prices that consumers are willing to pay for them.
The purchasing department helps a firm in achieving quality by:
a. defining long-term and short-term production requirements for filling customer orders and meeting anticipated demand.
b. ensuring that the products are assembled correctly and eliminating the causes that can lead to defects or errors in the final product.
c. collaborating with product design engineers to develop realistic specifications for the product.
d. providing quality-improvement training to suppliers.
d. providing quality-improvement training to suppliers.
Who among the following in an organization are responsible for selecting appropriate technologies, equipment, and work methods for producing quality products?
a. Production workers
b. Salespeople
c. Industrial engineers
d. Tool engineers
c. Industrial engineers
Which of the following functions in the manufacturing system is responsible for specifying long-term and short-term production requirements for filling customer orders and meeting anticipated demand?
a. Product design and engineering
b. Manufacturing and assembly
c. Production planning and scheduling
d. Industrial engineering and process design
c. Production planning and scheduling
The inspection and testing function in a manufacturing system contributes to the quality of the product by:
a. gathering information that can be used to improve the quality of the products.
b. selecting quality-conscious suppliers and ensuring that purchase orders clearly define the quality requirements specified by product design and engineering.
c. designing and maintaining the tools used in manufacturing of products.
d. selecting appropriate technologies, equipment, and work methods for producing quality products.
a. gathering information that can be used to improve the quality of the products.
The production of services differs from manufacturing as services:
a. can be inspected prior to delivery.
b. require lesser customization compared to manufactured goods.
c. produce outputs that are mostly intangible.
d. are less labor intensive and involve minimal human interaction.
c. produce outputs that are mostly intangible.
Which of the following is true regarding production of services?
a. Compared to manufacturing, it is easier for service organizations to identify and measure customers’ needs and performance standards as they involve human contact.
b. The production of services typically requires a lower degree of customization than
does manufacturing.
c. Compared to manufacturing, production of services is typically less labor intensive.
d. Services are produced and consumed simultaneously
d. Services are produced and consumed simultaneously
Customers evaluate a service primarily by the:
a. speed of the service.
b. accuracy of the service.
c. quality of the human contact.
d. degree of customization offered by the service.
c. quality of the human contact.
Which of the following is a negative impact of information technology on the customer service provided by service organizations?
a. It has increased the labor intensity involved in the production of services.
b. It has resulted in lesser personal interaction between consumers and service providers leading to decreased customer satisfaction among some consumers.
c. It has decreased the speed of service.
d. It has restricted the ability of the customers to compare products with competitor brands before making a purchase.
b. It has resulted in lesser personal interaction between consumers and service providers leading to decreased customer satisfaction among some consumers.
The _____ function helps an organization in achieving quality by exposing the costs of poor quality and opportunities for reducing it.
a. marketing and sales
b. manufacturing and assembly
c. legal services
d. finance and accounting
d. finance and accounting
Which of the following business support functions helps in achieving quality by ensuring that the product labeling, packaging, and safety measures are in compliance with the rules and regulations?
a. Marketing and sales
b. Legal services
c. Tool engineering
d. Finance and accounting
b. Legal services
The quality assurance function helps to achieve quality by:
a. ensuring that the firm provides adequate training to its salespeople so that they can appropriately answer all customer queries.
b. ensuring that the firm complies with laws and regulations regarding such things as product labeling, packaging, safety, and transportation.
c. providing special statistical studies and analyses to the manufacturing or business support functions.
d. authorizing sufficient budgeting for equipment, training, and other means of assuring quality.
c. providing special statistical studies and analyses to the manufacturing or business support functions.
Which of the following terms best represents a firm’s ability to achieve market superiority?
a. Flexibility
b. Agility
c. Quality assurance
d. Competitive advantage
d. Competitive advantage
The book “Quality Is Free” is written by _____.
a. Philip Crosby
b. Edwards Deming
c. Malcolm Baldrige
d. Joseph Juran
a. Philip Crosby
Improved conformance in production or service delivery tends to increase profitability as:
a. it helps in differentiating the product from its competitors and improves the perceived value of the product.
b. it ensures that the services are performed according to the convenience of the customer.
c. it leads to lower costs through savings in rework, scrap, resolution of errors, and warranty expenses.
d. it leads to improved employee motivation.
c. it leads to lower costs through savings in rework, scrap, resolution of errors, and warranty expenses.
Organizations can ensure that the quality is rooted in their culture by:
a. encouraging employees to do more than what they are expected to do through reward programs.
b. internalizing quality at the personal level and encouraging employees to practice quality in all activities of life.
c. ensuring that the company follows all the laws and regulations regarding product labeling, packaging, and other marketing requirements.
d. allotting sufficient budget for equipment, training, and other means of assuring quality.
b. internalizing quality at the personal level and encouraging employees to practice quality in all activities of life.
Deming laid out a “quality improvement program” for companies such as Ford, GM, and Procter & Gamble, when invited to work with them to improve their quality.
FALSE
Unlike other management gurus and consultants, Deming defined and described quality precisely
FALSE
Deming stressed that the lowest levels of operational staff in an organization must assume the overriding responsibility for quality management.
FALSE
Improvements in operations are achieved by reducing the causes and impacts of variation.
TRUE
Deming emphasized that knowledge is not possible without theory, and experience alone does not establish a theory.
TRUE
Unlike Deming, however, Juran proposed a major cultural change in the organization, and did not take up improving quality by working within the system familiar to managers.
FALSE
Juran advocated the use of quality cost accounting and analysis to focus attention on quality problems
TRUE
Juran opposed Deming’s policy which stated that fear can bring out the best in people
FALSE
According to Crosby, quality is judged solely on whether requirements have been met and nonconformance is the absence of quality.
TRUE
Crosby’s philosophy demonstrates that quality management practices will not save, but cost money
FALSE
Dr. Kaoru Ishikawa, a quality philosopher, is best known for coining the phrase—total quality control.
FALSE
A. V. Feigenbaum, a quality philosopher, promoted the use of quality costs as a measurement and evaluation tool.
TRUE
Dr. Kaoru Ishikawa, a quality philosopher, advocated collecting and analyzing factual data using simple visual tools, statistical techniques, and teamwork as the foundations for implementing total quality.
TRUE
According to Dr. Ishikawa’s philosophy, data with dispersion information are false data
FALSE
According to Dr. Ishikawa’s philosophy, the ideal state of quality control occurs when inspection becomes necessary.
FALSE
The total quality philosophy was initially based on only one principle—customer focus
FALSE
One of the most important quality management techniques is basic statistics
TRUE
Setting simple goals and targets is one of the practices that are used for implementing leadership as a quality management principle.
FALSE
Variation in a production process increases capacity utilization.
FALSE
Variation in a production process makes it easier to find the root cause of the process issues.
FALSE
Common causes of variation in a production process are a result of the design of the product and production system
TRUE
Special causes of variation in a production process arise from internal sources that are inherent in the process.
FALSE
A quality management system represents a specific implementation of quality concepts, standards, methods, and tools, and is unique to an organization
TRUE
The core of a QMS is focused on creating the goods and services that customers want.
TRUE
The ISO 9000:1994 series standards were intended to provide confidence to customers and other stakeholders that quality requirements are being achieved in the delivered product.
TRUE
The ISO 9001 requirement for audits forces an organization to review its quality system on a routine basis.
TRUE
Japanese scientists and Engineers established the Deming application prize in 1951 to recognize companies that show a high level of achievement in:
a. variation of production processes.
b. human resource policies.
c. quality practices.
d. developing innovative products.
c. quality practices.
According to Deming, a product or service possesses quality if:
a. the production process engages more workforce.
b. the cost of the product or service exceeds its benefit.
c. it enjoys a sustainable market.
d. it shows variations in its production process.
c. it enjoys a sustainable market.
In Deming’s view, _____is the chief culprit of poor quality.
a. concurrent engineering
b. variation
c. agility of the production process
d. low level of tolerance in manufacturing
b. variation
The _____ theory states that improvements in quality lead to lower costs because they result in less rework, fewer mistakes, fewer delays and snags, and better use of time and materials. Lower costs, in turn, lead to productivity improvements.
a. Quincunx
b. Basic Elements of Improvement
c. Absolutes of Quality Management
d. Deming Chain Reaction
d. Deming Chain Reaction
According to point one of Deming’s 14 points for quality improvement, the responsibility of improving a firm’s competitive position lies with ______.
a. top management
b. suppliers
c. middle management
d. employees
a. top management
A company and the people in the company need to continually renew themselves to take in new approaches and relearn many older ones. This is called _____.
a. organizational designing
b. organizational learning
c. organizational structuring
d. organizational engineering
b. organizational learning
Deming synthesized the underlying foundations of the 14 Points of improving quality into four simple elements which are called:
a. basic elements of improvement.
b. a system of profound knowledge.
c. the four steps to total quality control.
d. absolutes of quality management.
b. a system of profound knowledge.
Which of the following is one of the four elements of Deming’s system of profound knowledge?
a. Quality leadership
b. Suboptimization
c. Understanding variation
d. Modern quality technology
c. Understanding variation
A _____ is a set of functions or activities within an organization that work together for the aim of the organization.
a. quincunx
b. schema
c. hidden factory
d. system
d. system
Which of the following terms refers to a device that illustrates a natural process of variation?
a. Hidden factory
b. Six sigma
c. Quincunx
d. Balanced scorecard
c. Quincunx
According to Peter Scholtes, a noted consultant, when people don’t understand systems:
a. they try to resist the process of change.
b. they are less likely to distinguish between fact and opinion.
c. they see the symptoms but not the deep causes of problems.
d. they don’t see events as individual incidents but assume it to be the combined result of several independent forces.
c. they see the symptoms but not the deep causes of problems.
According to Peter Scholtes, a noted consultant, when people don’t understand variation:
a. they see trends where there are none.
b. they are more likely to distinguish between fact and opinion.
c. they know when expectations are realistic.
d. they don’t see events as individual incidents.
a. they see trends where there are none.
Which of the following is the difference between Deming’s and Juran’s quality philosophy?
a. Juran made top management commitment an absolute necessity.
b. Juran sought to improve quality by working within the system familiar to managers.
c. Juran demonstrated that quality management practices will save, not cost money.
d. Juran viewed quality as imperative in the future competitiveness in global markets.
b. Juran sought to improve quality by working within the system familiar to managers.
In Juran’s quality trilogy, the process of preparing to meet quality goals is called:
a. quality leadership.
b. quality control.
c. quality improvement.
d. quality planning.
d. quality planning.
In Juran’s quality trilogy, the process of meeting quality goals during operations is called:
a. quality control.
b. quality planning.
c. quality leadership.
d. quality improvement.
a. quality control.
In Juran’s quality trilogy, the process of breaking through to unprecedented levels of performance is called:
a. quality improvement.
b. quality control.
c. quality planning.
d. quality leadership.
a. quality improvement.
In accordance with Juran’s breakthrough sequence, the path from problem to solution consists of two journey’s and out of these two journeys, the one from symptom to cause is called:
a. remedial journey.
b. diagnostic journey.
c. continuous improvement.
d. breakthrough improvement.
b. diagnostic journey
According to _____, the only performance measurement is the cost of quality, which is the expense of nonconformance and the only performance standard is “Zero Defects (ZD). ”
a. Ishikawa
b. Juran
c. Deming
d. Crosby
d. Crosby
The essence of Crosby’s quality philosophy is embodied in what he calls the:
a. absolutes of quality management.
b. the breakthrough sequence.
c. quality trilogy.
d. Deming chain reaction theory.
a. absolutes of quality management.
Which of the following points about Crosby’s absolutes of quality management is true?
a. Doing jobs right the first time is expensive.
b. Quality means conformance to elegance, not requirements.
c. The only performance measurement is the cost of quality.
d. The burden of responsibility for solving quality problems falls only on the quality department.
c. The only performance measurement is the cost of quality.
According to Crosby, _____ is a performance standard which involves concentrating on preventing defects rather than just finding a fixing them.
a. zero defects
b. continuous improvement
c. Baldrige criteria
d. breakthrough improvement
a. zero defects
Which of the following was one of Crosby’s basic elements of improvement?
a. Agility
b. Variation
c. Implementation
d. Suboptimization
c. Implementation
Which one of the following Crosby’s basic elements of improvement means that the top management must take quality improvement seriously?
a. Determination
b. Variation
c. Implementation
d. Suboptimization
a. Determination
Feigenbaum defined the term _____ as an effective system for integrating the quality development, quality maintenance, and quality improvement efforts of the various groups in an organization so as to enable production and service at the most economical levels which allow full customer satisfaction.
a. absolutes of quality management
b. basic elements of improvement
c. quality trilogy
d. total quality control
d. total quality control
Feigenbaum popularized the term _____, which described the portion of plant capacity wasted due to poor quality.
a. exponential distribution
b. hidden factory
c. quincunx
d. quality trilogy
b. hidden factory
Which of the following is one of the key elements of Dr. Ishikawa’s quality philosophy?
a. Data with dispersion information are false data.
b. Personnel management is the entrance and exit of quality.
c. Remove the symptoms, not the root cause.
d. Quality begins with education and ends with education.
d. Quality begins with education and ends with education.
Who among the following influenced the development of a participative, bottom-up view of quality, which became the trademark of the Japanese approach to quality management?
a. Joseph Juran
b. A.V.Feigenbaum
c. Kaoru Ishikawa
d. Philip.B.Crosby
c. Kaoru Ishikawa
Dr. Ishikawa is best known for developing a popular quality improvement tool called _____.
a. u-chart
b. process capability index
c. histogram
d. cause-and-effect diagram
d. cause-and-effect diagram
According to the characterization of total quality by James W. Dean, Jr. and David E. Bowen, _____ are considered the foundation of the quality philosophy.
a. practices
b. techniques
c. principles
d. variations
c. principles
Which of the following principles supports statistical thinking, a philosophy of learning and action?
a. Variations make it easy to understand root causes in a production process issue.
b. Understanding and increasing variation are keys to success.
c. Variation exists in all processes.
d. All work occurs in a system of independent processes.
c. Variation exists in all processes.
_____ are a result of the design of the product and production system and generally
account for about 80 to 95 percent of the observed variation in the output of a production
process.
a. Remedial causes of variation
b. Common causes of variation
c. Assignable causes of variation
d. Special causes of variation
b. Common causes of variation
The purpose of Deming’s _____ experiment is to show that people can and do affect the outcomes of many processes and create unwanted variation by “tampering” with the process, or indiscriminately trying to remove common causes of variation.
a. red beads
b. hidden factory
c. quincunx
d. funnel
d. funnel
With regard to quality management systems, _____ is a formal document that demonstrates a commitment to achieving high quality and meeting customer expectations.
a. quality policy
b. quality memorandum
c. quality trilogy
d. quality minute book
a. quality policy
With regard to quality management systems, a ______ serves as a permanent reference for implementing and maintaining the system.
a. quality minute book
b. quality manual
c. quality policy
d. quality trilogy
b. quality manual
Customers who are merely satisfied may often purchase from competitors because of convenience, promotions, or other factors.
TRUE
Loyal customers are more costly to do business with compared to other customers.
FALSE
The internal customers of a company are those people who ultimately purchase and use the company’s products.
FALSE
The needs and expectations of external customers are different from those of consumers.
TRUE
According to Juran, the customers who fall under the category of “vital few” typically need only standardized attention as a group.
FALSE
In the context of the dimensions of quality, as suggested by David A. Garvin, reliability is the amount of use one gets from a product before it physically deteriorates.
FALSE
The “reliability” dimension of a service depends on the ability of the service provider to provide what was promised to the customers, dependably and accurately.
TRUE
According to the Kano Model, ‘satisfiers’ are the basic requirements that customers expect in a product or service which are generally not stated by customers but assumed as given.
FALSE
The focus groups have a higher cost of implementation compared to other approaches used for gathering customer information.
TRUE
The effectiveness of the field intelligence method of gathering customer information depends upon a culture that encourages open communication with superiors.
TRUE
Affinity diagrams help firms to efficiently organize large volumes of information and identify natural patterns or groupings in the information.
TRUE
Complaints allow an organization to learn about product failures and service problems, particularly the gaps between expectations and performance.
TRUE
In the context of the gap model, a customer will be satisfied when the expected quality of a product is higher than the actual quality.
FALSE
Customer satisfaction or dissatisfaction takes place during moments of truth
TRUE
Customer contact employees are often the only means by which a customer interacts with an organization.
TRUE
Dissatisfied individual and business customers often tend to complain to the organization about the problems.
FALSE
Loyal customers are most likely to be dissatisfied when problems are not resolved after complaining to the organization.
TRUE
Customer-focused organizations empower their front-line people to do whatever is necessary to satisfy a customer.
TRUE
Customer -supplier partnerships help organizations to improve products through early design recommendations and also reduce operations costs through better communications.
TRUE
Customer relationship management systems help organizations to identify and target their most profitable customers.
TRUE
Customer satisfaction and engagement measurement allows an organization to identify causes of dissatisfaction and failed expectations as well as drivers of delight to understand the reasons why customers are loyal or not loyal to the company.
TRUE
In the case of a customer satisfaction survey, formal written surveys tend to generate more qualitative data than face-to-face interviews.
FALSE
Customer satisfaction surveys will be effective when the questions included in the survey can provide actionable results.
TRUE
The net promoter score is the difference in the percentage of promoters and detractors.
TRUE
The customer satisfaction measurement of “customer perceived value” focuses more on customer satisfaction than on loyalty.
FALSE
The ASQ Quality Glossary defines customer _____ as “the result of delivering a
product or service that meets customer requirements.”
a. engagement
b. enrichment
c. satisfaction
d. loyalty
c. satisfaction
The term ‘customer engagement’ refers to:
a. customers’ involvement in the early design and improvement of products.
b. the strategic alliances of organizations with customers who share common values.
c. the expectations that define the quality of customer contact with an organization.
d. customers’ investment in or commitment to a brand and product offerings.
d. customers’ investment in or commitment to a brand and product offerings.
Which of the following is true of the American Customer Satisfaction Index?
a. It is not effective in quantifying the value that customers place on products.
b. It is based on customer evaluations of the quality of goods and services.
c. It evaluates only the goods and services produced by the domestic firms.
d. It is updated on a rolling basis once a year by measuring all the sectors of the economy.
b. It is based on customer evaluations of the quality of goods and services.
Which of the following is true of consumers of an organization?
a. The retail outlets which sell the products of an organization are considered the consumers of that organization.
b. The consumers of an organization receive inputs and produce outputs for other customers the organization.
c. The consumers of an organization are a part of one of the various departments or processes of the organization.
d. The consumers of an organization are the ultimate purchasers and users of the organization’s products.
d. The consumers of an organization are the ultimate purchasers and users of the organization’s products.
Internal customers of an organization are those people who:
a. are not a part of the organization but are involved in the supply of the organization’s products to the consumers.
b. are not a part of the organization but sell resources to the organization so that the organization can produce it products
c. are a part of the organization who provide inputs and help to create outputs for customers.
d. are the end users of a company’s products or services.
c. are a part of the organization who provide inputs and help to create outputs for customers.
According to the classification system proposed by Juran, customers who belong to the group of ‘the vital few’:
a. need only standardized attention as a group.
b. have needs and requirements that differ from general customers.
c. can be targeted through mass marketing strategies.
d. deserve special attention on an individual basis.
d. deserve special attention on an individual basis.
The net present value of a customer is:
a. a measure of how customers assess the benefits of a product in making purchase decisions.
b. a measure of the likelihood that satisfied customers will recommend the product to other customers.
c. the total profits (revenues associated with a customer minus the expenses needed to serve a customer) discounted over time.
d. the total value of the benefits offered by a customer in a customer-supplier partnership.
c. the total profits (revenues associated with a customer minus the expenses needed to serve a customer) discounted over time.
According to the dimensions of quality, as suggested by David A Garvin, _____ refers to the probability of a product’s surviving over a specified period of time under stated conditions of use.
a. Durability
b. Reliability
c. Conformance
d. Serviceability
b. Reliability
Which of the following dimensions of quality, as suggested by David A Garvin, refers to the degree to which physical and performance characteristics of a product match pre-established standards?
a. Conformance
b. Reliability
c. Performance
d. Durability
a. Conformance
Maple Products is a manufacturer of electronic goods that markets its products in several countries across the world. The company makes sure that the spare parts of the products are available in all their markets and also ensures that the technical personnel in their retail outlets are adequately trained to repair their products. In the context of the dimensions of quality, as suggested by David A. Garvin, the efforts taken by the company will enhance the _____ dimension of its product quality.
a. durability
b. reliability
c. serviceability
d. conformance
c. serviceability
The _____ dimension of the quality, as suggested by David A. Garvin, refers to the amount of use one gets from a product before it physically deteriorates or until replacement is preferable.
a. durability
b. reliability
c. assurance
d. serviceability
a. durability
Most women in the township of Adington prefer to visit Sharon’s Hair Salon because of the attractive interiors, well-designed equipment and neatly dressed employees. Which of the following dimensions is influencing customer perceptions of quality in the above scenario?
a. Empathy
b. Assurance
c. Responsiveness
d. Tangibles
d. Tangibles
Which of the following dimensions that contribute to customer perceptions of quality refers to the willingness of the service providers to help customers and provide prompt service?
a. Assurance
b. Empathy
c. Reliability
d. Responsiveness
d. Responsiveness
The Kano Model of customer requirements uses the term “satisfiers” to refer to:
a. the basic requirements that are generally not stated by a customer but are assumed as a given.
b. the aesthetic features of a product that do not add any value to the product.
c. the requirements that customers expressly say they want in a product.
d. the new or innovative features in a product that are not expected by customers in a product.
c. the requirements that customers expressly say they want in a product.
According to the Kano Model, the basic requirements that customers expect in a product and which are generally not stated by customers but assumed as given, fall into the category of _____.
a. dissatisfiers
b. exciters
c. satisfiers
d. delighters
a. dissatisfiers
According to the Kano model, which of the following features in a refrigerator is most likely to fall under the category of a delighter?
a. Temperature controls
b. Defrost option that allows to clear the frozen ice
c. A separate section for vegetables inside the refrigerator
d. Anti-freeze feature that does not freeze food inside the refrigerator
d. Anti-freeze feature that does not freeze food inside the refrigerator
According to the Kano Model, new or innovative features that customers do not expect or even anticipate, fall under the category of _____.
a. delighters
b. dissatisfiers
c. continuous improvements
d. satisfiers
a. delighters
The term “voice of the customer” refers to:
a. the performance levels or expectations that define the quality of customer contact with an organization.
b. the customer requirements as expressed in the customer’s own terms.
c. the involvement of customers in the development of new products.
d. customers’ investment or commitment to a brand or a product.
b. the customer requirements as expressed in the customer’s own terms.
Affinity diagram is a tool that can be used by organizations to:
a. measure the response of customers by allowing them to express their degree of satisfaction on a five-point scale.
b. gather and organize a large number of ideas or facts.
c. streamline their communication process with the customers.
d. train their employees on service recovery.
b. gather and organize a large number of ideas or facts.
According to the gap model, the term “_____” refers to the needs and requirements of a customer.
a. actual quality
b. delighters
c. expected quality
d. exciters
c. expected quality
According to the gap model, the term “_____” refers to the outcome of the production process and what is delivered to the customer.
a. expected quality
b. delighter
c. satisfier
d. actual quality
d. actual quality
Which of the following is most likely to be true of a customer-focused organization?
a. They make it easy for the customers to conduct business.
b. They do not encourage customer complaints as it will affect their brand image.
c. They are less keen on engaging in a face-to-face conversation with the customers.
d. They do not provide explicit guarantees and warranties to the customers.
a. They make it easy for the customers to conduct business.
Customer-focused organizations consider complaints as opportunities for improvement as:
a. it allows them to test the aptitude and efficiency of their employees in handling customer complaints.
b. it allows them to reduce the cost of research and development because they come to know about potential features through customers.
c. effectively resolving complaints increases customer loyalty and retention.
d. it helps employees understand what it feels like to be a customer.
c. effectively resolving complaints increases customer loyalty and retention.
Which of the following is an advantage offered by customer-supplier partnerships to businesses?
a. It helps organizations in selecting their customer contact employees and training and empowering them to meet and exceed customer expectations.
b. It helps organizations to build and maintain a work environment conducive to the well-being and growth of all employees by paying attention to their issues.
c. It allows organizations to share the risks in new product development and improve products through early design recommendations.
d. It allows organizations to effectively respond to customers’ complaints by systematically collecting and analyzing complaint data and using it for improvements.
c. It allows organizations to share the risks in new product development and improve products through early design recommendations.
Which of the following is a reason why organizations measure customer engagement and satisfaction?
a. It helps them in determining their financial requirements and the required value of the cash reserve ratio.
b. It helps them to discover customer perceptions of how well the organization is doing in meeting customer needs.
c. It helps them to segment markets based on demographic characteristics of the customers.
d. It helps them in determining their human resource requirements.
b. It helps them to discover customer perceptions of how well the organization is doing in meeting customer needs.
Which of the following is the first step in developing a customer satisfaction survey?
a. Selecting the appropriate survey instrument
b. Designing the survey
c. Determining the purpose of the survey
d. Selecting the group or individuals who will conduct the survey
c. Determining the purpose of the survey
Which of the following survey instruments is most commonly used because of low data collection costs and ease of analysis associated with it?
a. Formal written surveys
b. Telephone interviews
c. Focus groups
d. Face-to-face interviews
a. Formal written surveys
Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with using formal written surveys as survey instruments for measuring customer satisfaction?
a. They generally measure predetermined perceptions of what is important to the customers.
b. They incur high costs.
c. They are very difficult to analyze.
d. They are not effective in probing deeply into the issues.
a. They generally measure predetermined perceptions of what is important to the customers.
Which of the following survey instruments is most likely to be effective in generating a significant amount of qualitative information from the customers?
a. Mail surveys
b. Online surveys
c. Focus groups
d. Telephone interviews
c. Focus groups
While designing a customer satisfaction survey, organizations should use:
a. compound questions.
b. questions with double negatives.
c. leading questions.
d. questions that address only one issue or idea.
d. questions that address only one issue or idea.
Which of the following is used by organizations to measure customer response by allowing them to express their degree of opinion?
a. Likert Scale
b. Histogram
c. R-chart
d. Cause-and-effect diagram
a. Likert Scale
The final task in designing a customer satisfaction survey is to:
a. design the reporting format and the data entry methods.
b. select the appropriate survey instrument.
c. define the sample frame, or target group from which the sample is chosen.
d. select the questions to be included in the survey.
a. design the reporting format and the data entry methods.
Which of the following is true of customers who are regarded as “promoters” based on the net promoter score associated with these customers?
a. They spread negative comments about the organization.
b. They usually defect at higher rates.
c. They are less price-sensitive and more profitable.
d. They are not likely to purchase from the organization again.
c. They are less price-sensitive and more profitable.
Which of the following is true of the ‘customer perceived value’ measurement used by organizations to measure customer satisfaction?
a. It measures customer satisfaction based on the likelihood of customers recommending the product to other customers.
b. It measures how customers assess benefits of the product against costs in making purchase decisions.
c. It focuses more on customer satisfaction than on customer loyalty.
d. It takes into consideration only existing customers and not potential buyers.
b. It measures how customers assess benefits of the product against costs in making purchase decisions.
The _____ dimension of the quality, as suggested by David A. Garvin, refers to how a product looks, feels, sounds, tastes, or smells.
a. aesthetics
b. reliability
c. assurance
d. serviceability
a. aesthetics
The workforce management system proposed by Frederick Taylor failed to improve productivity in organizations.
FALSE
The Taylor philosophy established an adversarial relationship between labor and management.
TRUE
Strategic human resource management relies on proven approaches to improve organizational performance.
FALSE
Creating a culture for high performance begins with senior leadership’s commitment to the workforce
TRUE
Employee engagement fosters creativity and innovation.
TRUE
Employee involvement (EI) refers to any activity by which employees participate in work-related decisions and improvement activities, with the objectives of tapping the creative energies of all employees and improving their motivation.
TRUE
Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory states that factors such as safe working environment, adequate pay, and a reasonable level of job security are effective in motivating employees to work harder.
FALSE
Job design refers to how employees are organized in formal and informal units, such as departments and teams, within an organization.
FALSE
Empowerment requires employees to step outside their traditional roles and make decisions previously made by managers.
TRUE
Job enlargement is a work design approach that motivates employees by giving them more authority, responsibility, and autonomy rather than simply more or different work to do.
FALSE
Employees who participate in team activities feel more empowered and receive better training in both job-related and problem solving skills.
TRUE
Management teams are specially empowered work teams whose members gather to solve a specific problem and then disband.
FALSE
Teams organized to perform entire jobs, rather than specialized, assembly line-type work are referred to as quality circles.
FALSE
Problem-solving teams and project teams work more on an ad-hoc basis to address specific tasks or issues, often relating to quality improvement.
TRUE
Natural work teams are usually cross-functional, as they work on specific tasks or processes that cut across boundaries of several different departments.
FALSE
The nominal group technique helps to achieve consensus among team members by providing a way to prioritize and focus on important project objectives during the project definition stage.
TRUE
A team is said to be in the “storming” stage when team members agree on roles, ground rules, and acceptable behavior when doing the work of the team.
FALSE
In the adjourning stage of a team’s life cycle, the team members cooperate with each other to solve problems and complete the goals of their assigned work.
FALSE
Using a structured problem-solving process helps teams to mitigate issues that might lead to storming.
TRUE
Empowerment, teamwork, and good working environment motivate employees intrinsically
TRUE
The most common approach to assess worker perceptions and satisfaction is through a formal survey.
TRUE
The process measures that are used to assess workforce effectiveness include rate of growth, employee turnover, and absenteeism.
FALSE
According to the “engagement index” created by Gallup, employees who fall under the category of “not-engaged employees” undermine what their engaged coworkers accomplish.
FALSE
Traditional hiring practices have been based on cognitive and technical rather than interpersonal skills.
TRUE
As managerial roles shift from directing and controlling to coaching and facilitating, managers who deal with cross-functional problems, benefit more from horizontal movement rather than upward movement in narrow functional areas.
TRUE
Which of the following is true of the workforce management system proposed and designed by Frederick W. Taylor?
a. The system failed to improve productivity in organizations.
b. The system focused on training the workers and foremen on planning the process rather than just meeting the productivity standards.
c. The system changed many manufacturing jobs into mindless and mundane tasks.
d. The system succeeded in exploiting the knowledge and creativity of the workforce.
c. The system changed many manufacturing jobs into mindless and mundane tasks.
_____ is the function performed in organizations that facilitates the most effective use of people to achieve organizational and individual goals.
a. Marketing management
b. Product management
c. Workforce management
d. Brand management
c. Workforce management
Which of the following activities is a part of workforce management?
a. Procuring the resources to carry out the production process
b. Identifying new markets for a product
c. Developing a long-term strategy for the organization
d. Assisting in design of work systems
d. Assisting in design of work systems
An organization that has a strategic orientation to human resource management will:
a. focus on short-term immediate needs rather than future needs.
b. rely on proven approaches in designing and implementing policies and procedures.
c. adapt to changing business needs through innovative programs and systems.
d. focus on responding to stated needs of the organization rather than predicting unstated needs.
c. adapt to changing business needs through innovative programs and systems.
Strategic human resource management differs from traditional HR practices in that strategic human resource management:
a. views people as exploitable resources.
b. focuses on long-term, current, and future needs.
c. relies on proven approaches.
d. responds only to stated needs for system development.
b. focuses on long-term, current, and future needs.
According to Kay Kendall and Glenn Bodison, which of the following “conditions of collaboration” refers to believing in the inherent worth of another person?
a. Purpose
b. Values
c. Trust
d. Respect
d. Respect
Which of the following “conditions of collaboration,” proposed by Kendall and Bodison, creates a congruency between what the organization stands for and the personal beliefs of the individual?
a. Respect
b. Trust
c. Communication
d. Aligned values
d. Aligned values
The term “workforce engagement” refers to:
a. the ability of an organization to accomplish its work processes through the knowledge, skills, abilities, and competencies of its workforce.
b. the extent of workforce commitment, both emotional and intellectual, to accomplishing the work, mission, and vision of the organization.
c. the art of creating conditions that allow the workforce to complete their work at their own peak level of efficiency.
d. the ability of an organization to ensure sufficient staffing levels to accomplish its work processes and successfully deliver products and services to customers.
b. the extent of workforce commitment, both emotional and intellectual, to accomplishing the work, mission, and vision of the organization.
The term “employee involvement” refers to:
a. the art of creating conditions that allow all employees to complete their work, at their own peak level of efficiency.
b. an organization’s ability to ensure sufficient staffing levels to accomplish its work processes in order to meet seasonal and varying demands.
c. how employees are organized in formal and informal units, such as departments and teams, within an organization.
d. any activity by which employees participate in work-related decisions and improvement activities with the objective of improving their motivation.
d. any activity by which employees participate in work-related decisions and improvement activities with the objective of improving their motivation.
Which of the following is true regarding the employee suggestion system?
a. It decreases workforce flexibility.
b. It leads to poor interpersonal relationships in the workplace.
c. It leads to lower levels of motivation.
d. It improves workers’ reasoning ability and leads to higher levels of peer recognition.
d. It improves workers’ reasoning ability and leads to higher levels of peer recognition.
According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory, which of the following factors is an example of a maintenance factor?
a. Recognition
b. Advancement
c. Safe working environment
d. Achievement
c. Safe working environment
According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory, which of the following factors is an example of a motivational factor?
a. Nature of work
b. Adequate pay
c. Safe working environment
d. Reasonable level of job security
a. Nature of work
_____ refers to how employees are organized in formal and informal units, such as departments and teams.
a. Workforce engagement
b. Work design
c. Workforce capacity
d. Job design
b. Work design
According to Hackman and Oldham’s work design model, “experienced meaningfulness” is a psychological state that refers to the need of workers to:
a. be accountable for the quality and quantity of work produced.
b. know how their work is evaluated and the results of evaluation.
c. obtain information about the accuracy of their performance on a timely basis.
d. have the feeling that their work is a significant contribution to the organization and the society.
d. have the feeling that their work is a significant contribution to the organization and the society.
According to Hackman and Oldham work design model, Which of the following core job characteristics is most likely to have an impact on employee’s experienced responsibility?
a. Autonomy
b. Task identity
c. Skill variety
d. Task significance
a. Autonomy
Stella works as a customer service executive at a firm that manufactures computer systems. She was motivated to perform her job effectively, as she was aware that her job of helping customers to resolve technical issues had a direct impact on the performance of the organization. Which of the following job characteristics, as identified by Hackman and Oldham in their work design model, is motivating Stella in the above scenario?
a. Task significance
b. Autonomy
c. Skill variety
d. Task identity
a. Task significance
According to Hackman and Oldham work design model, _____ is the degree to which a worker can perceive a task, as a whole, identifiable piece of work from start to finish.
a. task significance
b. skill variety
c. task identity
d. autonomy
c. task identity
According to Hackman and Oldham work design model, “skill variety” is a core job characteristic that refers to:
a. the degree to which the job gives the participants the feeling that they have a substantial impact on the organization or the world.
b. the degree to which the job requires the worker to use a variety of talents.
c. the degree to which the task permits freedom, independence, and personal control to be exercised over the work.
d. the degree to which the worker can perceive the task as a whole, identifiable piece of work from start to finish.
b. the degree to which the job requires the worker to use a variety of talents.
According to Hackman and Oldham work design model, a job is said to have high _____ if it permits workers freedom, independence, and authority to exercise personal control over the work.
a. autonomy
b. task identity
c. task significance
d. skill variety
a. autonomy
Ergo Industries, which manufactures automotive parts, had taken various measures to improve the quality of the products. The product-line managers at the company had the authority to stop production if they found the components to be defective without the approval of the senior management in the company and take measures to resolve the issue. This authority motivated the managers to perform their jobs better. According to Hackman and Oldham work design model, which of the following core job characteristics is influencing the performance of managers in the above scenario?
a. Skill variety
b. Autonomy
c. Task identity
d. Task significance
b. Autonomy
Nathan, a sales manager at a consumer electronics company, motivated his sales executives by providing them regular inputs on their performance and also on what is expected of them from the company. The team had also developed a system through which the sales persons could analyze their performance based on customers’ comments. According to Hackman and Oldham work design model, which of the following core job characteristics is motivating the employees to perform better in the above scenario?
a. Autonomy
b. Task identity
c. Task significance
d. Feedback from the job
d. Feedback from the job
_____ is an approach to work design that improves a worker’s job by including several tasks rather than one single, low-level task.
a. Job enrichment
b. Job rotation
c. Job enlargement
d. Skill variety
c. Job enlargement
Which of the following is true of the job enlargement approach to work design?
a. It results in lower production costs and reduces fragmentation of jobs.
b. It allows workers to learn several tasks by rotating them from one to another.
c. It leads to lower product quality.
d. It leads to lower worker satisfaction.
a. It results in lower production costs and reduces fragmentation of jobs.
A food manufacturing company motivates its employees to perform well by giving them more responsibilities and authority to make decisions. The company believes that giving more authority to employees makes them more dedicated and committed to their work. Which of the following terms best describes this approach to job design?
a. Job enlargement
b. Task identity
c. Job rotation
d. Job enrichment
d. Job enrichment
Teams that are organized to perform entire jobs, rather than specialized, assembly line-type work are known as _____ teams.
a. management
b. natural work
c. virtual
d. quality
b. natural work
Which of the following types of teams in an organization is usually cross-functional?
a. Project team
b. Self-managed team
c. Natural work team
d. Quality circle
a. Project team
In a team’s life cycle, the stage of _____ takes place when the issues of the previous stage have been worked out, and team members agree on roles, ground rules, and acceptable behavior when doing the work of the team.
a. performing
b. norming
c. storming
d. forming
b. norming
Which of the following stages of a team’s life cycle takes place when team members disagree on team roles and challenge the way that the team will function?
a. Storming
b. Norming
c. Performing
d. Adjourning
a. Storming
Which of the following practices will lead to effective recognition and rewarding of employees?
a. Tying rewards to immeasurable performance so that employees provide more attention to quality rather than quantity
b. Giving individual rewards rather than team rewards because team rewards can ignore the contributions of individual employees to the team
c. Rewarding behavior, not just results
d. Rewarding employees only through cash rewards as money is the most important and effective motivating factor for most employees
c. Rewarding behavior, not just results
The process of subjectively evaluating the quality of an employee’s work is known as _____.
a. employee involvement
b. empowerment
c. workforce engagement
d. performance appraisal
d. performance appraisal
Which of the following is a process measure that helps to assess workforce effectiveness?
a. Employee turnover
b. Job satisfaction
c. Number of suggestions made by the employees
d. Perceptions of teamwork and management effectiveness
c. Number of suggestions made by the employees
Organizations can assess worker satisfaction by:
a. measuring the improvements in team selection and planning processes.
b. analyzing data related to time taken by the management team to respond to employee suggestions, and the number of suggestions implemented.
c. assessing the employee understanding of problem-solving approaches and the frequency of use of quality improvement tools by the employees.
d. conducting a formal survey that includes questions regarding quality of worklife, teamwork, opportunities and training provided, and leadership.
d. conducting a formal survey that includes questions regarding quality of worklife, teamwork, opportunities and training provided, and leadership.
Kenneth who works as a process associate in a company is unable to achieve a worklife balance. His personal problems are affecting his job performance. Even though he spends most of his time in office, he is not able to perform his job effectively. According to the “engagement index” developed by Gallup, Kenneth will fall into the category of _____.
a. actively engaged employees
b. not engaged employees
c. engaged employees
d. actively disengaged employees
b. not engaged employees
The term workforce capability refers to an organization’s ability to:
a. ensure sufficient staffing levels to accomplish its work processes and successfully deliver products and services to customers.
b. create conditions that can motivate all employees to accomplish their work at their own peak level of efficiency.
c. accomplish its work processes through the knowledge, skills, abilities, and competencies of its people.
d. create job satisfaction among employees by engaging them in their work and making them a part of the “fabric” of the organization.
c. accomplish its work processes through the knowledge, skills, abilities, and competencies of its people.
_____ refers to an organization’s ability to ensure sufficient staffing levels to accomplish its work processes and successfully deliver products and services to customers, including the ability to meet seasonal and varying demands.
a. Workforce engagement
b. Workforce capacity
c. Employee involvement
d. Workforce capability
b. Workforce capacity
A process is a sequence of linked activities that is intended to achieve some result, such as producing a good or service for a customer within or outside the organization.
TRUE
The design aspect of process management focuses on continually seeking to achieve higher levels of performance, such as reduced variation, higher yields, fewer defects and errors, and smaller cycle times.
FALSE
Processes must be measurable and repeatable in order to apply the techniques of process management.
TRUE
Support processes generally require a higher level of attention than do value-creation processes.
FALSE
Assembly of products in a manufacturing plant is an example of a support process.
FALSE
For a manufacturing company, legal services will be considered an example of a value-creation process.
FALSE
Projects generally cut across organizational boundaries and require the coordination of many different departments and functions.
TRUE
Support processes generally add value directly to a product or service
FALSE
Value-creation process requirements are driven by internal customer needs.
FALSE
The impact of other process on a particular process must be considered while designing the process, as processes rarely operate in isolation.
TRUE
Flowcharts enable management to study and analyze processes prior to implementation.
TRUE
The outputs of service processes are not as well defined as manufactured products.
TRUE
Services that emphasize on professional judgement of the employees often succeed in providing good solutions to customer problems
TRUE
Identifying potential defects and errors and stopping a process before they occur is the best approach to avoid mistakes in a process.
FALSE
Process control is the responsibility of those who directly accomplish the work
TRUE
Control is the activity of ensuring conformance to the requirements and taking corrective action when necessary to correct problems and maintain stable performance.
TRUE
Control in manufacturing starts with purchasing and receiving processes.
TRUE
Reduction in cycle time of a process leads to improvement in quality of products as it reduces the potential for mistakes and errors.
TRUE
The Kaizen philosophy requires a significant cultural change from all employees in the organization including the top management.
TRUE
A kaizen blitz is an improvement initiative that is gradual and continuous and is performed on a part-time basis.
FALSE
Breakthrough improvement refers to discontinuous change, as opposed to the gradual, continuous improvement philosophy of kaizen.
TRUE
Benchmarking encourages employees to continuously innovate.
TRUE
Reengineering focuses on improving the existing procedures rather than eliminating them and reinventing the process.
FALSE
Suppliers include only those companies that provide materials and components that are required for manufacturing a product.
FALSE
The materials supplied by a certified supplier do not require manufacturers to conduct routine testing on all the lots supplied.
TRUE
Supplier certification processes can be time-consuming and expensive to administer.
TRUE
Which of the following is a reason why process management is important for organizations?
a. It assists organizations in recruiting the most suitable employees whose values match the culture of the organization.
b. It helps organizations to segment customers into natural groups in order to customize products that are better able to meet customers’ needs.
c. It assists organizations in identifying opportunities for improving quality and operational performance.
d. It helps organizations to increase employee morale and commitment to the organization.
c. It assists organizations in identifying opportunities for improving quality and operational performance.
The design activity of process management focuses on:
a. identifying new markets and product opportunities.
b. ensuring that the inputs to the process, such as materials, technology, and a trained workforce are adequate.
c. maintaining consistency in output by assessing performance and taking corrective action when necessary.
d. continually seeking to achieve higher levels of performance.
b. ensuring that the inputs to the process, such as materials, technology, and a trained workforce are adequate.
Which of the following is one of the three major activities in process management that focuses on maintaining consistency in output by assessing performance and taking corrective action when necessary?
a. Design
b. Improvement
c. Process mapping
d. Control
d. Control
Which of the following is one of the three major activities in process management that focuses on achieving higher yields of products with reduced variation and fewer defects and errors?
a. Design
b. Control
c. Improvement
d. Process mapping
c. Improvement
Which of the following statements best describes process owners?
a. They have the authority to certify the processes used by the suppliers of their organization.
b. They have the authority to design the processes that will be used by the top management team in their organization.
c. They test the accuracy of the processes used in the marketing management.
d. They are accountable for process performance and have the authority to control and improve their process.
d. They are accountable for process performance and have the authority to control and improve their process.
To apply the techniques of process management, processes must be _____.
a. costly and time consuming
b. repeatable and measurable
c. centrally controlled and random
d. simple and lengthy
b. repeatable and measurable
The quality team at Nigre, a cosmetics company, is continuously involved in monitoring the production process to ensure that the products are meeting specifications. They are also responsible for taking corrective measures when they identify variations in the products. In the context of the three major activities involved in process management, the quality team at Nigre, is engaged in the _____ activity of process management.
a. improvement
b. design
c. mapping
d. control
d. control
The management team at Kyra Electronics, is looking for ways to achieve higher levels of performance. It is trying to obtain higher yields and reduce cycle times. In the context of the three major activities involved in process management, the management team at Kyra, is engaged in the _____ activity of process management.
a. mapping
b. improvement
c. design
d. control
b. improvement
Value-creation processes are sometimes called _____ processes.
a. core
b. support
c. job enrichment
d. quality circle
a. core
Which of the following is true of support processes?
a. They align closely to an organization’s core competencies and strategic objectives.
b. They are sometimes called core processes.
c. They require lesser attention from the employees compared to value-creation processes.
d. They add value directly to the product or service being produced.
c. They require lesser attention from the employees compared to value-creation processes.
In the case of a manufacturing company, which of the following is an example of a value-creation process?
a. Product designing
b. Human resource services
c. Public relations
d. Legal services
a. Product designing
For a manufacturing company, which of the following is an example of a support process?
a. Product designing
b. Legal services
c. Testing of products
d. Product manufacturing
b. Legal services
Value-creation processes differ from support processes in that value-creation processes:
a. provide the infrastructure for production or deliver processes to create or deliver the actual product.
b. rarely align with the organization’s core competencies and strategic objectives.
c. generally do not add value directly to the product or service.
d. are driven by external customer needs.
d. are driven by external customer needs.
A _____ is a temporary work structure that starts up, produces products or services, and then shuts down.
a. kaizen program
b. poka-yoke program
c. project
d. quality circle
c. project
Value-creation services that take the form of “projects”:
a. are typically completed by individuals rather than by groups.
b. do not add value directly to the product or service.
c. tend to deliver unique products that are tailored to the specific needs of an individual customer.
d. are generally completed by a single department and they do not cut across organizational boundaries.
c. tend to deliver unique products that are tailored to the specific needs of an individual customer.
Which of the following is the first step involved in designing a manufacturing process?
a. Defining the sequence of steps that need to be performed
b. Documenting the procedures and requirements in a flowchart
c. Analyzing the processes prior to implementation to improve quality
d. Conducting a detailed technical analysis of the characteristics of the product
d. Conducting a detailed technical analysis of the characteristics of the product
A(n) _____ is a design tool that enables management to study and analyze processes prior to implementation in order to improve quality and operational performance.
a. Likert’s scale
b. flowchart
c. quality manual
d. affinity diagram
b. flowchart
The organizations that emphasize more on the behavior of the employees rather than the processes and procedures involved are aiming to:
a. improve the efficiency and timing of their service.
b. improve the reliability of their service.
c. provide a friendly and personable environment to their customers.
d. minimize variations in their service standards.
c. provide a friendly and personable environment to their customers.
When a service ranks low on the dimensions of customer contact, labor intensity, and customization, the service providers need to emphasize on _____ to provide a high quality service to the customers.
a. training provided to the employees
b. employee behavior
c. professional judgement of the employees
d. physical facilities and procedures
d. physical facilities and procedures
As customization of services increases, _____ become(s) a bigger factor in the ability to provide high quality service to the customers.
a. professional judgement of the employees
b. processes and procedures
c. employee behavior
d. physical facilities
a. professional judgement of the employees
Which of the following is regarded as the best approach to prevent mistakes in a process because of its ability to avoid rework and wastage of time and resources?
a. Identifying potential defects and errors and stopping a process before they occur
b. Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the impact of stopping a process
c. Designing potential defects and errors out of the process
d. Identifying defects and errors soon after they occur and quickly correcting the process
c. Designing potential defects and errors out of the process
_____ is an approach for mistake-proofing processes, developed by Shigeo Shingo, that involves using automatic devices or simple methods to avoid human error.
a. Kaizen
b. Poka-yoke
c. Process mapping
d. Job enrichment
b. Poka-yoke
Which of the following is true of the poka-yoke approach used for mistake-proofing processes?
a. It was developed by Kaoru Ishikawa.
b. It is ineffective in providing immediate feedback to the employees regarding the error in the process.
c. It helps to engage workers in continuous improvement activities.
d. Most of the techniques of poka-yoke are expensive and extremely complex to implement.
c. It helps to engage workers in continuous improvement activities.
Which of the following can be regarded as a task error in a service process?
a. Lack of courteous behavior
b. Failure to acknowledge a customer
c. Unclean facilities
d. Working on the wrong order
d. Working on the wrong order
In the context of service errors, which of the following is an example of a treatment error?
a. Working on the wrong order
b. Unclean facilities
c. Lack of courteous behavior
d. Doing work incorrectly
c. Lack of courteous behavior
After using an ATM machine, Deborah forgets to remove her card from the machine. This is an example of:
a. a treatment error between the server and the customer.
b. a customer error in preparation.
c. a customer error at the resolution stage of a service.
d. a customer error during an encounter.
d. a customer error during an encounter.
Which of the following is a type of customer error that results during an encounter?
a. Failure to follow the instructions provided
b. Failure to signal service inadequacies
c. Failure to bring the necessary materials for the encounter
d. Failure to understand the role in the service transaction
a. Failure to follow the instructions provided
Strategically placed tray-return stands and trash receptacles remind customers to return trays in fast-food facilities. This is an example of a poka-yoke technique designed to prevent:
a. customer errors in preparation.
b. customer errors during an encounter.
c. customer errors at the resolution stage of a service.
d. treatment errors between the server and the customer.
c. customer errors at the resolution stage of a service.
After-action review or debrief is a process control approach used by organizations to:
a. reduce the cost of conducting a process.
b. improve the process by increasing the efficiency of the manufacturing systems.
c. decrease the time required for completing a process.
d. prevent the errors in a process from occurring again in the future.
d. prevent the errors in a process from occurring again in the future.
Process control in manufacturing starts with the _____ process.
a. assembly
b. delivery
c. purchasing
d. production
c. purchasing
Which of the following statements is true regarding kaizen?
a. It involves only the top management of the organization.
b. It focuses on small, gradual, and frequent improvements.
c. It requires very large financial investments.
d. It attempts to achieve radical improvements in a very short time period.
b. It focuses on small, gradual, and frequent improvements.
The process of measuring a company’s performance against best-in-class companies and using that information as a basis to define the company’s targets, strategies, and implementation is known as _____.
a. total quality management
b. process mapping
c. benchmarking
d. reengineering
c. benchmarking
_____ is defined as the fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical, contemporary measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
a. Process mapping
b. Total quality management
c. Reengineering
d. Benchmarking
c. Reengineering
Supply chains help organizations to create a competitive advantage in _____.
a. workforce engagement
b. process mapping
c. flexibility
d. benchmarking
c. flexibility
If an idea survives the concept stage of product development, the actual design process begins by evaluating design alternatives and determining engineering specifications for all materials, components, and parts.
TRUE
The idea generation phase of product development usually includes prototype testing, in which a model is constructed to test the product’s physical properties or use under actual operating conditions.
FALSE
One of the most significant barriers to efficient product development is the adaption of concurrent engineering within an organization.
FALSE
The outcome of innovation in product development is a discontinuous or breakthrough change and results in new and unique goods and services that delight customers and create competitive advantage.
TRUE
Innovation is built upon strong research and development (R&D) processes
TRUE
When decisions about the safety, life, serviceability, and maintainability of products are dominated by customer requirements rather than by engineering considerations, poor designs that fail in the market are often the result.
FALSE
The methodology of axiomatic design is based on the premise that good design is governed by laws similar to those in natural science.
TRUE
The axiomatic design method of product development tends to increase design time.
FALSE
The principles of axiomatic design help designers better apply tools such as TRIZ and quality function deployment.
TRUE
Under quality function deployment, all operations of a company are driven by edicts of top management rather than by the voice of the customer.
FALSE
quality function deployment tool increases the time for new product development.
FALSE
A typical scheme of the House of Quality uses the symbol Δ to denote a strong relationship between any pair of technical requirements.
FALSE
After basic technical requirements have been established in product development process, designers must set specific dimensional or operational targets and tolerances for critical manufacturing or service characteristics.
TRUE
Narrow tolerances in product design tend to reduce manufacturing costs and decrease the interchangeability of parts within the plant and in the field, product performance, durability, and appearance.
FALSE
A tolerance reserve or factor of safety in product design is needed to account for engineering uncertainty regarding the maximum variation allowable and compatibility with satisfactory product performance
TRUE
Wide tolerances in product design have a positive impact on product characteristics.
FALSE
The Taguchi loss function can be used to set product design tolerances in an economical fashion.
TRUE
A product failure which occurs at the start of product life due to manufacturing or material defects such as a missing connection or a faulty component is referred to as functional failure.
TRUE
In practice, product design reliability is determined by the number of failures per unit time during the duration under consideration.
TRUE
In series systems failure of an individual component is less critical than in parallel systems.
FALSE
Redundant components, when used in a parallel system, tend to decrease the reliability of the system.
FALSE
Redundancy in a parallel system decreases the cost, size, and weight of the system.
FALSE
According to the theory of strict liability, anyone who sells a product that is defective or unreasonably dangerous is subject to liability for any physical harm caused to the user, the consumer, or the property of either.
TRUE
Product designs with numerous parts decrease the incidence of part mix-ups, missing parts, and test failures.
FALSE
Accelerated life testing involves overstressing components to reduce the time to failure and find weaknesses.
TRUE
Which of the following is the first phase of a typical product development process?
a. Product/process development
b. Idea generation
c. Preliminary concept development
d. Market introduction
b. Idea generation
New ideas are studied for feasibility in the _____ phase of product development.
a. market evaluation
b. process development
c. full-scale production
d. preliminary concept development
d. preliminary concept development
Which of the following phases of product development usually includes prototype testing?
a. Product/process development
b. Idea generation
c. Full-scale production
d. Market evaluation
a. Product/process development
The product is distributed to customers in the _____ phase of product development.
a. preliminary concept development
b. market introduction
c. idea generation
d. full-scale production
b. market introduction
_____ is a process in which all major functions involved with bringing a product to market are continuously involved with product development from conception through sales.
a. Six sigma
b. Concurrent engineering
c. Organizational learning
d. Axiomatic design
b. Concurrent engineering
Which of the following activities of the design for six sigma (DFSS) focuses on creating and building a product idea and determining its functionality based upon customer requirements, technological capabilities, and economic realities?
a. Detailed design
b. Design verification
c. Concept development
d. Design optimization
c. Concept development
Which of the following activities of the design for six sigma (DFSS) focuses on developing specific requirements and design parameters such as specifications and tolerances to ensure that the product fulfills the functional requirements of the concept?
a. Concept development
b. Design verification
c. Design optimization
d. Detailed design
d. Detailed design
Which of the following activities of the design for six sigma (DFSS) seeks to refine designs to identify and eliminate potential failures, achieve high reliability, and ensure that it can be easily manufactured, assembled, or delivered in an environmentally-responsible manner?
a. Detailed design
b. Design optimization
c. Concept development
d. Design verification
b. Design optimization
Which of the following activities of the design for six sigma (DFSS) ensures that the quality level and reliability requirements of the product are achieved?
a. Design verification
b. Design optimization
c. Detailed design
d. Concept development
a. Design verification
The DMADV process incorporates the principal activities of the design for six sigma. Which of the following activities included in DMADV focuses on identifying and understanding the market need or opportunity?
a. Design
b. Measure
c. Analyze
d. Define
d. Define
Which of the following activities included in the DMADV process gathers the voice of the customer, identifies the vital characteristics that are most important to customers, and outlines the functional requirements of the product that will meet customer needs?
a. Design
b. Measure
c. Analyze
d. Verify
b. Measure
Which of the following activities included in the DMADV process is focused on concept development from engineering and aesthetic perspectives and often includes the creation of drawings, virtual models, or simulations to develop and understand the functional characteristic of the product?
a. Measure
b. Define
c. Verify
d. Analyze
d. Analyze
Which of the following activities included in the DMADV process focuses on developing detailed specifications, purchasing requirements, and so on, so that the concept can be produced?
a. Measure
b. Define
c. Design
d. Analyze
c. Design
Which of the following activities involved in the DMADV process involves prototype development, testing, and implementation planning for production?
a. Define
b. Measure
c. Design
d. Verify
d. Verify
_____ involves the adoption of an idea, process, technology, product, or business model that is either new or new to its proposed application.
a. Concurrent engineering
b. Total quality management (TQM)
c. Design optimization
d. Innovation
d. Innovation
_____ is seeing things in new or novel ways.
a. Flexibility
b. Agility
c. Creativity
d. Quality assurance
c. Creativity
Which of the following is a creativity tool that finds extensive use in product design?
a. TRIZ
b. Fault tree analysis
c. Likert scale
d. Cause-and-effect diagram
a. TRIZ
_____ is a methodology used in the product design process, developed by Dr. Nam Suh from MIT, which is based on the premise that good design is governed by laws similar to those in natural science.
a. Fault tree analysis
b. Axiomatic design
c. Design failure mode and effects analysis (DFMEA)
d. Six sigma
b. Axiomatic design
In the context of the axiomatic design method, the information axiom states that:
a. good design occurs when the functional requirements of the design are independent of one another.
b. developing specific requirements and design parameters such as specifications and tolerances leads to the creation of a high quality product.
c. good design corresponds to minimum complexity.
d. all the departments in an organization should be continuously involved with product development from conception through sales.
c. good design corresponds to minimum complexity.
In the context of the axiomatic design method, the independence axiom states that:
a. good design occurs when the functional requirements of the design are separate from one another.
b. developing specific requirements and design parameters such as specifications and tolerances leads to the creation of a high quality product.
c. good design corresponds to minimum complexity.
d. all the departments in an organization should be continuously involved with product development from conception through sales.
a. good design occurs when the functional requirements of the design are separate from one another.
Which of the following tools is most likely to be used for establishing technical design requirements that meet customer needs and placing them in subsequent production activities?
a. Likert scale
b. Quality function deployment
c. Cause-and-effect diagram
d. Fault tree analysis
b. Quality function deployment
The matrix used by the quality function deployment to ensure that the voice of the customer is carried throughout the production/delivery process is called the _____.
a. Hidden Factory
b. Quincunx
c. Likert Scale
d. House of Quality
d. House of Quality
The first House of Quality relates:
a. component requirements to process operations.
b. customer requirements to a product’s overall technical requirements.
c. process operations to quality control plans
d. technical requirements of a product to component requirements.
b. customer requirements to a product’s overall technical requirements.
The final House of Quality relates:
a. process operations to component requirements.
b. customer requirements to technical requirements.
c. technical requirements to component requirements.
d. process operations to quality control plans.
d. process operations to quality control plans.
Which of the following is the first House of Quality matrix?
a. Customer requirement planning matrix
b. Process operations matrix
c. Technical requirement planning matrix
d. Component characteristics matrix
a. Customer requirement planning matrix
Which of the following symbols is used to denote a very strong relationship between any pair of technical requirements in a typical House of Quality?
a. *
b. Δ
c. ^
d. •
d. •
Which of the following symbols is used to denote a weak relationship between any pair of technical requirements in a typical House of Quality?
a. •
b. *
c. Δ
d. #
c. Δ
In the context of manufacturing specifications, the term “tolerance” refers to:
a. the target value that manufacturing seeks to meet.
b. the specification that best represents the requirements of the customer.
c. the specification which leads to the development of the least costly product.
d. the permissible variation, recognizing the difficulty of meeting a target consistently.
d. the permissible variation, recognizing the difficulty of meeting a target consistently.
The predicted reliability determined by the design of the product or process is called the _____ reliability.
a. achieved
b. perceived
c. inherent
d. nominal
c. inherent
A personal computer system is composed of the processing unit, graphics board, and keyboard with reliabilities of 0.976, 0.785, and 0.893, respectively. This is a series system and even if one component fails, the computer will not function correctly. The reliability of this system is:
a. 0.684
b. 0.953
c. 2.654
d. 0.857
a. 0.684
An electric component has a failure rate of λ= 0.0035 failure per hour. For this component, the mean time to failure(θ) is _____.
a. 356.8 hours
b. 285.7 hours
c. 532.7 hours
d. 258 hours
b. 285.7 hours
Robust design refers to designing goods and services that:
a. make the most efficient use of the available resources.
b. create a competitive advantage for the organization in the market.
c. are insensitive to variation in manufacturing processes and when consumers use them.
d. are the least costly to produce.
c. are insensitive to variation in manufacturing processes and when consumers use them.
_____ is a method to describe combinations of conditions or events that can lead to a failure.
a. Axiomatic design
b. Quality function deployment
c. Fault tree analysis
d. Total quality management
c. Fault tree analysis
_____ is the process of designing a product for efficient production at the highest level of quality.
a. Design for manufacturability
b. Concurrent engineering
c. Design for disassembly
d. Design for environment
a. Design for manufacturability
Accelerated life testing involves:
a. using the fault tree analysis technique to find the defects in the product.
b. using the TRIZ tool to identify faults in the designing of the product.
c. overstressing components to reduce the time to failure and find weaknesses.
d. finding the degree to which the product meets the customer requirements.
c. overstressing components to reduce the time to failure and find weaknesses.
A structured problem-solving approach to process improvement ensures that solutions are developed objectively, rather than based on opinions or rash judgments
TRUE
The fundamental premise of PDSA cycle is that improvement comes from the application of knowledge.
TRUE
Many organizations use the Deming cycle as the basis for their organizational performance improvement activities.
TRUE
The “do” stage in the PDSA cycle involves identifying problems
FALSE
The “plan” stage in the PDSA cycle involves determining whether the trial plan is working correctly by evaluating the results.
FALSE
DMAIC, a process improvement methodology bears a close resemblance to the creative problem solving process
TRUE
The term six sigma is based on a statistical measure that equates to 4.3 or fewer errors or defects per million opportunities.
FALSE
An ultimate stretch goal of all organizations that adopt a Six Sigma philosophy is to have all critical processes, regardless of functional area, at a six-sigma level of capability.
TRUE
American Express pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to measuring product and service quality.
FALSE
Six Sigma is focused on improvement with little financial accountability whereas TQM requires a verifiable return on investment and focus on the bottom line.
FALSE
Compared to Six Sigma, TQM focuses on a more rigorous and advanced set of statistical methods
FALSE
Six Sigma is owned by business leader champions
TRUE
According to Kepner and Tregoe, a problem is a deviation between what should be happening and what actually is happening that is important enough to make someone think the deviation ought to be corrected.
TRUE
Six Sigma methods are most applicable to conformance problems because the processes that create
the problems can be easily identified, measured, analyzed, and changed.
TRUE
Projects are the vehicles that are used to organize and to implement Six Sigma
TRUE
In the context of a Six Sigma team, green belts are full-time Six Sigma experts who are responsible for Six Sigma strategy, training, mentoring, deployment, and results.
FALSE
The bottom-up way to generate six sigma projects is generally tied to business strategy and is aligned with customer needs.
FALSE
At each step, the Pareto diagram stratifies the data to more detailed levels, eventually isolating the most significant issues in process improvement.
TRUE
The “define” phase of the DMAIC process focuses on understanding process performance and collecting the data necessary for analysis.
FALSE
Data sheets are special types of data collection forms in which the results are interpreted on the form directly without additional processing.
FALSE
The vertical axis on a run chart is the time scale.
FALSE
The cause-and-effect diagrams are constructed in a brainstorming type of atmosphere.
TRUE
Lean production approaches focus on the elimination of waste in all forms, including defects requiring rework.
TRUE
Both Six Sigma and lean approaches are driven by customer requirements, focus on real dollar savings, have the ability to make significant financial impacts on the organization, and can easily be used in non-manufacturing environments.
TRUE
Compared to lean tools, Six Sigma tools are more intuitive and easier to apply by anybody in the workplace
FALSE
The _____ is a simple adaptation of the scientific method for process improvement.
a. Juran quality trilogy
b. Taguchi loss function
c. Deming cycle
d. quincunx experiment
c. Deming cycle
Which stage of the PDSA cycle consists of studying the current situation, understanding customer expectations, gathering data, and testing theories of causes?
a. Act
b. Do
c. Plan
d. Study
c. Plan
In which of the following stages of the PDSA cycle, the plan is implemented on a trial basis, such as in a laboratory, pilot production process, or with a small group of customers, to evaluate a proposed solution and provide objective data?
a. Study
b. Do
c. Check
d. Act
b. Do
Which of the following stages of the PDSA cycle determines whether the trial plan is working correctly by evaluating the results, recording the learning, and determining whether any further issues or opportunities need be addressed?
a. Study
b. Do
c. Plan
d. Act
a. Study
In which of the following stages of the PDSA cycle, the improvements become standardized and the final plan is implemented as a “current best practice” and communicated throughout the organization?
a. Study
b. Do
c. Plan
d. Act
d. Act
An effective problem-solving process that can easily be adapted to quality improvement stems from _____ concepts pioneered by Alex Osborn.
a. creative-problem solving
b. cause-and-effect
c. hypothesis testing
d. analysis of variance
a. creative-problem solving
In which of the following stages of the FADE approach, a team selects the problem to be addressed and defines it, characterizing the current state of the process, why change is needed, what the desired result should be, and the benefits of achieving the result?
a. Analyze
b. Develop
c. Focus
d. Execute
c. Focus
In which of the following stages of the FADE approach, the team works to describe the process in detail, determine what data and information are needed, and develop a list of root causes for the problem?
a. Execute
b. Focus
c. Develop
d. Analyze
d. Analyze
Which of the following stages of the FADE approach focuses on creating a solution and implementation plan along with documentation to explain and justify recommendations to management who must allocate the resources?
a. Focus
b. Analyze
c. Execute
d. Develop
d. Develop
In which of the following stages of the FADE approach, the solution is implemented and a monitoring plan is established?
a. Analyze
b. Develop
c. Focus
d. Execute
d. Execute
Which of the following is the most widely-known process improvement methodology used in Six Sigma?
a. Quincunx
b. FADE
c. DMAIC
d. TRIZ
c. DMAIC
The term _____ is based on a statistical measure that equates to 3.4 or fewer errors or defects per million opportunities.
a. Pareto analysis
b. Six Sigma
c. Quincunx
d. Quality trilogy
b. Six Sigma
What is the Six Sigma quality level when the process standard deviation is 1σ and the tolerance range is 10 σ?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 9
d. 11
a. 5
Which of the following categories of quality problems is characterized by unsatisfactory performance that causes customer dissatisfaction, such as high levels of defects, service failures, or customer complaints?
a. Unstructured performance problems
b. Conformance problems
c. Product design problems
d. Efficiency problems
b. Conformance problems
Which of the following categories of problems is characterized by unsatisfactory performance that causes dissatisfaction from the standpoint of noncustomer stakeholders, such as managers of financial or supply chain functions?
a. Product design problems
b. Efficiency problems
c. Unstructured performance problems
d. Conformance problems
b. Efficiency problems
Which of the following categories of problems is characterized by unsatisfactory performance by processes that are not well-specified or understood?
a. Unstructured performance problems
b. Efficiency problems
c. Conformance problems
d. Product design problems
a. Unstructured performance problems
In the context of a Six Sigma team, who among the following is typically a senior-level manager who owns the Six Sigma project and is responsible for its completion and results?
a. A black belt
b. A champion
c. A green belt
d. A team member
b. A champion
In the context of Six Sigma teams, who among the following are full-time Six Sigma experts who are responsible for Six Sigma strategy, training, mentoring, deployment, and results but, are typically not members of Six Sigma project teams?
a. Champions
b. Green belts
c. Master black belts
d. Black belts
c. Master black belts
In the context of Six Sigma teams, who among the following are fully-trained Six Sigma experts with extensive technical training who perform much of the technical analysis required in Six Sigma projects, usually on a full-time basis?
a. Black belts
b. Champions
c. Green belts
d. Team members
a. Black belts
In the context of Six Sigma teams, who among the following are functional employees who are trained in introductory Six Sigma tools and methodology and work on projects on a part-time basis?
a. Champions
b. Master black belts
c. Green belts
d. Black belts
c. Green belts
Successful green belts are often promoted to _____.
a. champions
b. team members
c. black belts
d. master black belts
c. black belts
In a bottom-up approach to Six Sigma projects, _____ choose the projects that are well-suited to the capabilities of teams.
a. black belts
b. team members
c. green belts
d. champions
a. black belts
Which of the following is a major drawback of the bottom-up approach to Six Sigma projects?
a. The projects are too broad in scope to be completed in a timely manner.
b. The projects are not well suited to the capabilities of the teams as they are chosen by top management who may not be aware of the capabilities of the teams.
c. The top managers underestimate the cost and overestimate the capabilities of the team or teams to which the project is assigned.
d. The projects receive little support and low recognition from the top management.
d. The projects receive little support and low recognition from the top management.
Balancing quality costs against expected revenue gains has become known as:
a. quality function deployment.
b. return on quality.
c. house of quality.
d. quality trilogy.
b. return on quality
Toyota created a unique tool, called the _____, to succinctly consolidate and visualize information for identifying and solving quality problems.
a. Pareto diagram
b. run chart
c. histogram
d. A3 report
d. A3 report
One useful quality control tool to help identify the most important issue among a mess of symptoms is _____.
a. quincunx
b. Pareto analysis
c. run chart
d. histogram
b. Pareto analysis
With respect to Pareto analysis, a Pareto _____ is one in which the characteristics observed are ordered from largest frequency to smallest.
a. quincunx
b. histogram
c. charter
d. distribution
d. distribution
In the context of the DMAIC process, _____ provide a broad overview of the key elements in the process and help to explain who is the process owner, how inputs are acquired, who the process serves, and how it adds value.
a. Pareto diagrams
b. SIPOC maps
c. cause-and-effect diagrams
d. histograms
b. SIPOC maps
A _____ defines the project, its objectives, and deliverables, and represents a contract between the project team and the sponsor.
a. project charter
b. project diagram
c. SIPOC diagram
d. CTQ tree
a. project charter
_____ are special types of data collection forms in which the results can be interpreted on the form directly without additional processing.
a. Check sheets
b. Run charts
c. Data sheets
d. Control charts
a. Check sheets
Data such as production volume, cost, and customer satisfaction indexes are often plotted on a _____, which displays the data over time.
a. check sheet
b. control chart
c. run chart
d. SIPOC diagram
c. run chart
______ are the graphical components of regression analysis.
a. Scatter diagrams
b. Run charts
c. Pareto diagrams
d. Histograms
a. Scatter diagrams
With respect to 5S, which of the following Japanese terms refer to ensuring that each item in a workplace is in its proper place or identified as unnecessary and removed?
a. Seiton
b. Seiketsu
c. Seiri
d. Seiso
c. Seiri
With respect to 5S, which of the following Japanese terms refer to arranging materials and equipment so that they are easy to find and use?
a. Seiri
b. Seiso
c. Seiton
d. Shitsuke
c. Seiton
With respect to 5S, which of the following Japanese terms refer to formalizing procedures and practices to create consistency and ensure that all steps are performed correctly?
a. Seiketsu
b. Seiri
c. Shitsuke
d. Seiton
a. Seiketsu