PED-200 Quiz 1

The purpose of the PAR-Q is to
A. assess reasons for exercise participation.
B. assess exercise level.
C. determine medical readiness for exercise.
D. serve as a warm-up program.
C
2. (p. 44-45) According to the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM), which person would be cleared for moderate and vigorous physical activity without a medical exam or clinical exercise testing?
A. individuals with moderate risk
B. apparently healthy individuals with low risk and no “yes” answers on the PAR-Q
C. apparently healthy individuals with moderate risk and no “yes” answers on the PAR-Q
D. apparently healthy individuals who have recently been injured
B
3. (p. 44-45) Joe is 47 years old, inactive, and has high blood pressure. What advice would you give him about beginning vigorous exercise?
A. Exercise in your target heart zone to be safe.
B. Get professional screening before beginning a vigorous exercise program.
C. Try biking instead of running to minimize risk.
D. See a personal trainer before getting started.
B
4. (p. 44-45) Sheri is 35 years old, is sedentary, and has high cholesterol but no symptoms. Which of the following is true regarding her risk during exercise?
A. She is in moderate risk category and is safe for moderate physical activity only.
B. She is in low risk category and is safe for moderate and vigorous activity.
C. She is in high risk category and should not exercise without a clinical exercise test.
D. She is moderate risk and should see a doctor before doing any physical activity.
A
5. (p. 44-45) Tom is 45 years old with no known health problems. He answered “no” to all the PAR-Q questions, but experiences shortness of breath with mild exercise and occasional dizziness. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, what is his exercise risk category?
A. low risk
B. moderate risk
C. normal risk
D. high risk
D
6. (p. 46) Which of the following is a benefit of a warm-up prior to exercise?
A. decreases the risk of irregular heartbeats associated with poor coronary circulation
B. decreases body temperature
C. increases the potential for DOMS
D. increases muscle stiffness
A
7. (p. 46-48) What are the 3 components of a daily activity program?
A. stretching, workout, cool down
B. warm-up, workout, stretching
C. warm-up, workout, cool down
D. workout, cool down, stretching
C
8. (p. 47, Table 2) Which of the following is true when considering how to dress for physical activity?
A. Wear layers of socks to prevent blisters when shoes are too big.
B. Replace shoes if the fabric breaks down, even if the heels and soles are still good.
C. Wear tighter clothing when cycling to restrict extraneous movements.
D. Wear layers of clothing so that a layer can be removed if not needed.
D
9. (p. 47, Table 2) Which of the following is true?
A. A stretch warm-up is not needed if a proper cool down is done.
B. A stretch warm-up can replace the need for a regular program of stretching.
C. A warm-up is not needed prior to moderate intensity activity.
D. A dynamic warm-up routine can impair performance in vigorous activity.
D
10. (p. 46) Which of the following should occur as a result of a general warm-up?
A. decreased fat utilization
B. increased lactic acid formation
C. increased fatigue
D. increased body temperature
D
11. (p. 47-48) Which of the following is true of a cool down?
A. It is not necessary if a warm-up is performed.
B. It prevents blood from pooling and reduces risk of fainting.
C. It prevents lactic acid damage in the muscles.
D. It isn’t needed for athletes that are acclimatized.
B
12. (p. 47-48) Which of the following are key components recommended by the ACSM of the cool down?
A. resistance training and ballistic stretching
B. ballistic stretching and cardiovascular activity
C. a 5 to 10 minute cool-down that is similar to a warm-up
D. intermittent cardiovascular intervals
C
13. (p. 47-48) What is the primary purpose of a cardiovascular cool down?
A. prevent muscle soreness
B. reduce risk of dehydration
C. burn extra calories before stopping
D. minimize blood pooling and speed recovery
D
14. (p. 48) Which best characterizes a dynamic warm-up?
A. PNF stretching
B. passive stretching
C. calisthenics of increasing intensity
D. brief intervals of plyometrics
C
15. (p. 48-49) Physical activity in hot and humid environments challenges the body because
A. it produces large amounts of heat that must be regulated.
B. blood is pooled inside the body core.
C. evaporative heat loss only works in colder temperatures.
D. acclimatization is not possible in hot environments.
A
16. (p. 48) Fans or wind can help cool exercisers via
A. conduction.
B. convection.
C. radiation.
D. dissipation.
B
17. (p. 50) Which of the following is true of exercise in the heat?
A. Sport drinks are not recommended for exercise in the heat.
B. Thirst is an accurate indicator of the need for fluids.
C. Evaporation of sweat is enhanced in a humid environment.
D. Evaporation of sweat is our primary mode of heat loss.
D
18. (p. 50) How can people improve their body’s tolerance to physical activity in the heat?
A. Drink fluids before, during, and after activities.
B. Perform shallow breathing while exercising.
C. Regularly participate in physical activity in the heat.
D. Wear clothes that allow your body to sweat profusely.
C
19. (p. 50) Which is the best recommendation for avoiding dehydration?
A. Drink as much fluid as possible.
B. Drink before, during, and after exercise.
C. Consume beverages with caffeine to retain the fluid.
D. Consume fluids immediately following exercise.
B
20. (p. 49, Table 3) When a person has hot, flushed, dry skin with a fast pulse, this could be a sign of
A. heat cramps.
B. heat exhaustion.
C. heat stroke.
D. hypothermia.
C
21. (p. 49, Table 3) The least severe form of heat problem during exercise is
A. heat exhaustion.
B. heat cramps.
C. heat stroke.
D. hot flashes.
B
22. (p. 50) “Apparent temperature” means a combination of
A. atmospheric pressure and temperature.
B. humidity and temperature.
C. wind velocity and temperature.
D. wind velocity, humidity, and temperature.
B
23. (p. 51) Which of the following is a sound recommendation for exercise in cold and windy weather?
A. A light coating of petroleum jelly under the arms can help prevent frostbite.
B. Wear gloves rather than mittens.
C. The second layer should be made of capilene.
D. The layer closest to the body should be a wickable fabric.
D
24. (p. 51-52) What two components comprise the windchill factor?
A. wind speed and humidity
B. wind speed and temperature
C. wind direction and atmospheric pressure
D. the length of time exposed and age
B
25. (p. 52) What will an individual most likely experience when exercising in a new higher altitude?
A. nosebleed
B. increase in appetite
C. increase in breathing and heart rates
D. improvement in performance
C
26. (p. 51-52) Which of the following are the earliest signs of hypothermia?
A. depressed reflexes
B. reduction in heart and breathing rate
C. speech and movement impairment
D. shivering and cold extremities
D
27. (p. 53) What is the purpose of ice for injuries?
A. removal of lactic acid in the area
B. relaxtion of the muscle
C. reduction of the risk of infection in the area
D. reduction of swelling
D
28. (p. 53) An injury to a ligament is known as a(n)
A. muscle tear.
B. sprain.
C. strain.
D. abrasion.
B
29. (p. 53) What is recommended for the care of tendonitis?
A. elevation
B. compression
C. Tylenol
D. ice and rest
D
30. (p. 50-51) Which of the following is the most severe heat related injury?
A. heat cramps
B. heat exhaustion
C. heat stress
D. heat stroke
D
31. (p. 53) What is good advice for getting rid of muscle cramps due to exercise?
A. perform static stretching
B. take anti-inflammatory medication
C. restrict fluid intake
D. get something to eat right away
A
32. (p. 53) Delayed onset muscle soreness is due to
A. protein consumption.
B. lactic acid build up.
C. microscopic muscle tears.
D. increased range of motion during activity.
C
33. (p. 53) A by-product of the metabolic process that occurs during anaerobic training or exercise is called
A. nitrogen.
B. venous return.
C. carbon monoxide.
D. lactic acid.
D
34. (p. 55) What is the most common reason people give for not exercising?
A. They don’t enjoy it.
B. They are unfit to begin with.
C. They lack access to convenient facilities.
D. They don’t have the time.
D
35. (p. 47-48) The performance of sports-related movements of gradual intensity prior to exercise or competition is known as
A. motor conditioning warm-up.
B. plyometric warm-up.
C. dynamic warm-up.
D. sport-specific warm-up.
D
1. (P 22) Self-management skills
A. help an individual perform well at school and work.
B. can be useful in altering factors related to making lifestyle changes.
C. are learned primarily from one’s parents.
D. are established by a person’s genetic profile.
B
2. (p. 22-23) Which of the following statements is true regarding health behaviors?
A. Older adults are more likely to participate in regular physical activity than college students.
B. College students are more likely to eat poorly and abuse alcohol than older adults.
C. Smoking is an effective long-term weight maintenance strategy for college students.
D. Practicing one healthy behavior means you will practice another.
B
3. (p. 22-23) Which of the following statements is true regarding the “Stages of Change” model?
A. It can be applied to positive and negative lifestyles.
B. It was originally developed to help people understand how to eat healthier.
C. An individual who has purchased a nicotine patch is in the contemplation stage.
D. Relapse is a necessary step to achieve maintenance.
A
4. (p. 22, 23) According to Prochaska’s “Stages of Change” model, individuals in the preparation stage would say which of the following?
A. I don’t want to change my behavior.
B. I am thinking about changing my behavior.
C. I am getting ready to make a change in my behavior.
D. I recently made some positive changes in my behavior.
C
5. (p. 23, Figure 1) According to Prochaska’s “Stages of Change” model, individuals in the precontemplation stage would say which of the following?
A. I don’t want to change.
B. I am thinking about changing.
C. I am getting ready to make a change.
D. I have made some lifestyle changes.
A
6. (p. 23, Figure 1) The ultimate goal for any health behavior is to reach the stage of
A. contemplation.
B. preparation.
C. action.
D. maintenance.
D
7. (p. 24, Figure 2) Self-efficacy and self-confidence are examples of which behavior change factor?
A. predisposing
B. reinforcing
C. enabling
D. personal
A
8. (p. 24, Figure 2) Goal setting and self-assessment are examples of which behavior change factor?
A. predisposing
B. reinforcing
C. enabling
D. personal
C
9. (p. 26) Reinforcing factors are important in adhering to lifestyle change because _________ generates continued behavior.
A. self-esteem
B. knowledge
C. coping
D. success
D
10. (p. 24-26) Which of the following is TRUE regarding behavior change?
A. Predisposing factors lead to enabling factors.
B. Reinforcing factors are more important than enabling factors.
C. Enabling factors are important for people in the precontemplation stage.
D. Predisposing factors are most important for initiating behavior change.
D
11. (p. 28) Which of the following behavioral skills is most important for people in the maintenance stage?
A. goal setting
B. self-efficacy
C. relapse prevention
D. balancing attitudes
C
12. (p. 25) Confidence in your ability to perform a specific activity is called
A. self-monitoring.
B. self-efficacy.
C. self-assessment.
D. self-management.
D
13. (p. 26, Table 1) Taking small steps to build success is an example of which self-management skill?
A. balancing attitudes
B. overcoming barriers
C. building self-confidence
C
14. (p. 26, Table 1) Learning to resist snack foods and candy provided by co-workers is an example of which self-management skill?
A. building knowledge
B. balancing attitudes
C. overcoming barriers
D. building self-confidence
C
15. (p. 27) When an individual uses a log to keep track of behavior, this involves practicing what type of skill?
A. self-assessment
B. self-monitoring
C. performance enhancing
D. time management
D
16. (p. 26, Table 1) When an individual, in meeting health goals, takes small steps that allow success, he or she is employing what self-management skill?
A. overcoming barriers
B. building self-confidence and motivation
C. balancing attitudes
D. changing beliefs
B
17. (p. 26, Table 1) Learning to cope with problems, such as a lack of facilities or inadequate equipment, is known as
A. goal-setting.
B. preventing relapse.
C. finding social support.
D. overcoming barriers.
D
18. (p. 27, Table 2) When a person evaluates his or her own level of fitness and health, this is known as which type of skill?
A. self-assessment
B. goal-setting
C. planning
D. self-monitoring
A
19. (p. 28, Table 3) Ex-smokers who learn methods of saying “no” to those who offer tobacco are practicing
A. social support.
B. goal setting.
C. self-planning.
D. relapse prevention.
D
20. (p. 29) Which of the following is considered to be the first step in planning for healthy lifestyles?
A. identifying needs
B. setting goals
C. clarifying reasons
D. selecting program components
C
21. (p. 29, Table 4) Self-assessment is important for which of the following?
A. identifying needs
B. planning your program
C. evaluating progress
D. all of the above
A
22. (p. 30) Which is true of goal setting?
A. beginners should set lofty goals
B. short-term goals should be based on outcomes
C. behavioral goals are easier to measure and monitor
D. goal setting is not important for health-related behaviors
C
23. (p. 24, Figure 2) Reinforcing factors include
A. family.
B. friends.
C. health professionals.
D. all the above
D
24. (p. 24) The following factors are considered controllable factors except
A. age.
B. smoking.
C. eating habits.
D. stress.
A
25. (p. 22, Figure 1) Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Transtheoretical Model?
A. action
B. precontemplation
C. performance
D. maintenance
C
26. (p. 30) Which of the following are characteristic of SMART goals?
A. specific, modifiable, temporary
B. specific, measureable, attainable
C. measureable, relatable, transferrable
D. strategic, maintainable, relevant
D
27. (p. 30) The “R” in the acronym SMART stands for
A. Reasonable.
B. Reflection.
C. Relevant.
D. Realistic.
C
28. (p. 30) Which of the following is an example of an outcome goal?
A. exercising 3 days a week
B. eating at least 5 servings of fruits and vegetables a day
C. losing 1 pound a week
D. smoking less than 5 cigarettes a day
C
29. (p. 30) Trying to reach a daily step count goal of 10,000 steps with a pedometer is an example of a(n) ______________ goal.
A. outcome
B. behavioral
C. short-term
D. performance
B
1. (PG. 2-3) What is the broad vision of the “Healthy People 2020” national health objectives?
A. reduce cancer rates and increase the average lifespan
B. create a society in which all people live long, healthy lives
C. improve health care access for all Americans
D. promote fitness and healthy lifestyles
B
2. (p. 4) The Blueprint for a Healthier America emphasizes the need to focus future efforts on prevention and preparedness, including an increased emphasis on
A. obesity, alcohol abuse, and stress management.
B. nutrition, sleeping habits, and drug abuse.
C. alcohol abuse, physical activity, and healthy relationships.
D. physical activity, nutrition, and prevention of tobacco use.
D
3. (p. 3) “Disparities in health” refers to differences in health
A. across ethnic and income groups.
B. by levels of fitness.
C. over time.
D. across countries.
A
4. (p. 3) Which of the following is the best description of HALE (Healthy Life Expectancy)?
A. average age of death for both sexes
B. number of years of life for which a person has a good quality as opposed to having illness or impaired function
C. health habits of people living to 100
D. potential life span
B
5. (p. 5) Which term does the “Healthy People 2020” document use to describe the general sense of happiness and satisfaction with life?
A. emotional quotient
B. emotional satisfaction
C. health-related quality of life
D. hardiness
C
6. (p. 5) Which of the following best describes wellness?
A. satisfaction with work and social relationships
B. quality of life and a sense of well-being
C. spiritual fulfillment and self-esteem
D. freedom from disease and debilitating conditions
B
7. (p. 6, Table 1) An individual’s ability to cope with daily events and deal with personal feelings in a positive, optimistic, and constructive way is known as __________ wellness.
A. emotional
B. intellectual
C. social
D. spiritual
A
8. (p. 6, Table 1) An individual’s ability to interact effectively with others and to establish meaningful relationships is known as _______ wellness.
A. emotional
B. intellectual
C. social
D. spiritual
C
9. (p. 6, Table 1) An individual’s ability to meet the demands of daily life is known as __________ wellness.
A. emotional
B. physical
C. social
D. spiritual
B
10. (p. 6, Table 1) An individual demonstrates which type of wellness when he/she establishes a values system and carries out meaningful and constructive life goals?
A. emotional
B. intellectual
C. social
D. spiritual
D
11. (p. 8) It is possible for an individual to possess health and wellness while being ill or having a debilitating condition because he/she
A. may still have a positive mental outlook.
B. can still meet emergency situations.
C. can still use holistic treatments.
D. may still be physically fit.
A
12. (p. 9) What is the primary difference between health-related and skill-related fitness?
A. Skill-related fitness components are more difficult to perform.
B. Genetics play a bigger role in health-related fitness than in skill-related fitness.
C. Skill-related fitness is associated with more enjoyment.
D. Health-related fitness is directly related to reduced risk of hypokinetic disease.
D
13. (p. 9) What is sometimes considered a combined component of fitness?
A. flexibility
B. speed
C. power
D. strength
C
14. (p. 7) Hypokinetic means
A. low blood pressure.
B. infectious disease.
C. too little exercise.
D. water exercise.
C
15. (p. 7) Which of the following is an example of a hypokinetic condition?
A. adult-onset diabetes
B. athlete’s foot
C. sinus infection
D. allergy
A
16. (p. 9) What is another name for skill-related fitness?
A. hand-eye coordination
B. motor fitness
C. performance fitness
D. metabolic fitness
A
17. (p. 9) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Physical fitness is the same as cardiovascular fitness.
B. Optimal physical fitness ensures optimal health.
C. Physical fitness is characterized by sports skills.
D. Health-related fitness is more important than skill-related fitness.
D
18. (p. 9) Which of the following is an indicator of improved metabolic fitness?
A. decreased blood pressure
B. increased agility
C. increased flexibility
D. decreased percentage of body fat
A
19. (p. 7) Which of the following is a health-related aspect of fitness?
A. balance
B. strength
C. reaction time
D. speed
B
20. (p. 10) Which of the following is a skill-related component of fitness?
A. agility
B. body composition
C. cardiovascular fitness
D. flexibility
A
21. (p. 10, Figure 6) The ability to transfer energy into force at a fast rate of speed is called
A. agility.
B. power.
C. reaction time.
D. speed.
B
22. (p. 10, Figure 6) The ability to use the senses, such as sight or hearing, with the body parts to perform motor tasks smoothly and accurately is termed
A. agility.
B. balance.
C. coordination.
D. reaction.
C
23. (p. 10, Figure 6) The maintenance of equilibrium while stationary or while moving is termed
A. agility.
B. balance.
C. coordination.
D. poise.
B
24. (p. 10, Figure 6) The ability to change rapidly the position of the entire body in space with speed and accuracy is termed
A. balance.
B. coordination.
C. transfer.
D. agility.
D
25. (p. 11) What is the most important contributing factor to premature death in our society?
A. heredity
B. human biology
C. environment
D. lifestyle
B
26. (p. 14) Which of the following is currently the #1 cause of death?
A. pneumonia
B. heart disease
C. cancer
D. tuberculosis
B
27. (p. 13) The major causes of early death have shifted from infectious diseases to chronic lifestyle conditions because
A. more people are going to the doctor.
B. scientific advancements have improved medicine.
C. physical activity can reduce infectious diseases.
D. healthy lifestyles are no longer a problem.
B
28. (p. 14) The three priority healthy lifestyles are regular physical activity, sound nutrition, and
A. low cholesterol.
B. low blood pressure.
C. stress management.
D. normal body weight.
C
29. (p. 2) The “E” in HELP stands for
A. Equal.
B. Everyone.
C. Empathy.
D. Elated.
B
30. (p. 15) What is the primary purpose of self-assessments of lifestyles?
A. provide a comparison to others
B. identify areas in which you may need to make improvements
C. learn measurement skills
D. get motivated by seeing your weaknesses
B
31. (p. 6-7, Table 1, Table 2) Which of the following are not dimensions of wellness?
A. physical
B. spiritual
C. economic
D. emotional
C
32. (p. 3) Health varies greatly with income, gender, and
A. age.
B. size.
C. height.
D. Both B and C
A
33. (p. 7) Hypokinetic diseases such as obesity and low back pain are due to
A. too little activity.
B. too much carbohydrates.
C. not enough fiber.
D. none of the above.
A
34. (p. 8) Flexibility refers to
A. the ability of the muscles to exert themselves.
B. force generated over time.
C. range of motion around a joint.
D. percentage of muscle to fat.
C
35. (p. 10) Which of the following are considered skill-related fitness components?
A. power
B. reaction time
C. speed
D. all the above
D
36. (p. 3) Which indicator is used by the public health service to monitor health disparities and trends?
A. annual doctor visits
B. rates of preventive screens
C. ratings of “healthy days”
D. National Fitness Index
D
37. (p. 15) Which of the following is NOT listed as one of the top “actual” causes of death? Not going to be on quiz
A. suicide
B. tobacco
C. inactivity and poor diet
D. accidents
D
38. (p. 11) Which of the following determinants do you have most control over?
A. heredity
B. lifestyle
C. environment
D. cognitions and emotions
B
39. (p. 13) Which of the following describes the “medical model” as applied to health care?
A. application of clinical research to practice
B. emphasis on treating illness with medicine
C. hierarchy of physicians and nurses to treat patients
D. reimbursement process from insurance to health care provider
B
Fundamentals of Weight Training
1. All of the following are types of muscle tissue EXCEPT
a. smooth
b. skeletal
c. endocrine
d. cardiac
C
2. What type of muscle activity produces the greatest muscle soreness?
a. isotonic
b. isometric
c. concentric
d. eccentric
D
3. What factor is most responsible for strength gains observed during the first few weeks of training?
a. changes in the nervous system
b. gains in muscle mass
c. alterations in muscle fiber types
d. increases in the number of muscle fibers
A
4. All of the following are factors that explain increases in muscular strength EXCEPT
a. increases in bone density
b. fiber type composition
c. genetic potential
d. neuromuscular changes
A
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding expectations for increasing muscular strength?
a. Increases in muscular strength typically range from 60 to 95 percent.
b. Men have a higher quality of muscle tissue than women.
c. Women have the same potential as men to gain strength.
d. Prepubescent children are not able to increase muscular strength.
C
6. What term describes increases in muscle size due to the thickening of the muscle fibers?
a. hyperplasia
b. hypertrophy
c. tonus
d. anabolic
B
7. What type of muscle fiber has a higher fatigue threshold?
a. fast twitch
b. eccentric
c. slow twitch
d. concentric
C
8. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to increase cardiovascular fitness?
a. aerobic activities involving continuous muscular activity
b. aerobic activities involving short bursts of muscular activity
c. weight training involving heavier loads and fewer repetitions
d. weight training involving lighter loads and many repetitions
A
9. All of the following are physical warning signs of overtraining EXCEPT
a. extreme muscular soreness and stiffness the day after a training session
b. inability to complete a training session that is reasonable to complete
c. increase in body weight, especially when no effort to gain weight is made
d. decrease in appetite
C
10. Which of the following describes the recommended intake of carbohydrate, fat, and protein in a healthy diet?
a. 55 percent carbohydrate, 30 percent fat, 15 percent protein
b. 20 percent carbohydrate, 10 percent fat, 70 percent protein
c. 15 percent carbohydrate, 55 percent fat, 30 percent protein
d. 70 percent carbohydrate, 10 percent fat, 20 percent protein
A
10. What are the caloric values of a gram of protein, carbohydrate, and fat (respectively)?
a. 4, 4, 9
b. 9, 4, 4
c. 9, 9, 4
d. 4, 9, 9
A
11. Which of the following rate of fat loss per week is within the maximum recommended range?
a. 0.5 pound (0.23 kg)
b. 1 pound (0.45 kg)
c. 3 pounds (1.36 kg)
d. 5 pounds (2.27 kg)
B
12. All of the following are effects of steroid use EXCEPT
a. decreased blood pressure
b. gynecomastia
c. increased appetite
d. prostatic enlargement
A
13. At what age is it recommended that a person talks with a doctor before beginning a weight training program?
a. 45 (female); 40 (male)
b. 50 (female); 45 (male)
c. 60 (female); 55 (male)
d. 65 (female); 60 (male)
B
14. To maintain training status, what is the maximum number of hours that is recommended between weight training workouts?
a. 72
b. 48
c. 24
d. 12
A
15. What does it mean to “work in” during a weight training session?
a. allowing others use the same piece of equipment between your sets
b. offering to spot others if you have the skill and strength to do so
c. taking less rest time than usual to be able to complete more exercises in less time
d. staying in a certain area of the weight room to complete all of your exercises
A
1. Which of the following types of exercise involves pushing or pulling against a fixed bar?
a. dynamic
b. isometric
c. fixed resistance
d. variable resistance
B
2. Which of the following types of exercise involves a cam?
a. dynamic
b. isometric
c. fixed resistance
d. variable resistance
D
3. All of the following are precautions related to training on a weight machine EXCEPT
a. adjust the levers and pads to accommodate body size
b. assume an unstable position to increase the training effect
c. fasten any seat belt securely
d. insert the selector key all the way into the weight stack
B
4. Approximately how heavy is a 4-foot (122 cm) standard bar with collars and locks?
a. 20 pounds (9.1 kg)
b. 40 pounds (18.2 kg)
c. 45 pounds (20.5 kg)
d. 55 pounds (25 kg)
A
6. All of the following are precautions related to training using free weights EXCEPT
a. load bars properly
b. do not assume the previous user tightened the locks
c. return equipment to its storage location
d. wear a weight belt for each exercise
D
1. When performing stretching exercises, what is the minimum recommended time that the stretched position should be held?
a. 5 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 60 seconds
B
2. Which of the following muscles are stretched in the quadriceps stretch?
a. back of the hip
b. front of the thigh
c. back of the lower leg
d. front of the shoulder
B
3. What grip places the hands on the bar with the thumbs pointing away from each other?
a. alternated
b. pronated
c. overhand
d. supinated
D
4. What grip places the hands on the bar with the palms facing down?
a. overhand
b. false
c. supinated
d. alternated
A
5. All of the following technique guidelines are a part of the preparatory phase of lifting a bar off the floor EXCEPT
a. grip the bar slightly wider than shoulder width
b. place the feet shoulder-width apart
c. slightly flex the elbows
d. keep the hips in a gorilla position
C
6. Which of the following technique guidelines is specific to the floor-to-the-thighs phase of lifting a bar off the floor?
a. Inhale before pulling the bar up.
b. Position the shoulders behind the bar.
c. Lift the hips up ahead of the bar.
d. Keep a space between the bar and the shins.
A
7. Which of the following technique guidelines is specific to the thighs-to-the-shoulders phase of lifting a bar off the floor?
a. Brush the bar on the thighs.
b. Hold the bar momentarily at the knees.
c. Move the bar away from the body.
d. Lift the heels off the floor.
A
8. Which of the following technique guidelines is specific to the catch phase of lifting a bar off the floor?
a. Position the upper arms perpendicular to the floor.
b. Position the upper arms parallel to the floor.
c. Place the dominant foot slightly ahead of the other foot.
d. Place the nondominant foot slightly ahead of the other foot.
B
9. When returning the bar to the floor, the bar should be
a. moved quickly to the floor
b. kept away from the knees but close to the shins
c. kept close to the thighs and shins
d. moved slowly to the thighs and quickly from there to the floor
C
10. The best time to breathe out during a weight training exercise is
a. during the sticking point
b. at the peak of acceleration
c. at the peak of deceleration
d. during the easiest point of execution in the exercise
A
11. When spotting someone, one of the most important rules is to
a. stand away from the person lifting
b. grasp the bar halfway through each repetition
c. count the repetitions out loud
d. follow the bar with the hands
D
12. Which of the following grips should be used when spotting the bench press exercise?
a. closed
b. neutral
c. reverse
d. supinated
A
13. When being spotted by someone, one of the most important rules is to
a. not talk during the set
b. always stay with the bar
c. tell the spotter before the set begins to take the bar at the end of the set
d. choose a load slightly heavier than what is typically used for the exercise
B