Networking lessons 7,8,and 11

Printing in Microsoft Windows typically involves all of the following components except a
A) print device
B) print router
C) printer
D) printer driver
B) print router
What computer (or standalone device) receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network?
A = “print device”

B = “print server”

C = “printer”

D = “printer driver”

ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “A print server is a computer (or standalone device) that receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network.”

What standardized, highly portable print job format is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems?
A) XML Paper Specifications (XPS)
B) Enhanced Metafile (EMF)
C) PCL 6
D) PCL 5e
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “Enhanced Metafile (EMF) is a standardized, highly portable print job format that is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems.”

What is a disadvantage of letting each print client function as its own print server?
A) Administrators are able to centrally managing the print queue.
B) It’s simple to set up.
C) Users are aware of other users who are accessing the print device.
D) Administrators cannot implement advanced printing features.
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “One of the disadvantages to allowing each print client to function as its own print server is that administrators cannot implement advanced printing features in this implementation.”

To share printers, which Network Sharing and Discovery setting must be turned on?
A) Printer Discovery
B) Printer Sharing
C) Network Sharing
D) Networking
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “To share printers, the following Network Sharing and Discovery settings must be turned on: Network Discovery and Printer Sharing.”

Compared with NTFS permissions, printer permissions are __________.
A) harder to use
B) simpler
C) more complex
D) more granular
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “Printer permissions are much simpler than NTFS permissions. They basically dictate whether users are allowed to merely use the printer, manage documents submitted to the printer, or manage the properties of the printer itself.”

Which document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again?
A) Document > Restart
B) Document > Pause
C) Printer > Use Printer Offline
D) Printer > Pause Printing
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “The Printer > Pause Printing document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again.”

Which document management menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item again?
A) Document > Restart
B) Document > Pause
C) Printer > Use Printer Offline
D) Printer > Pause Printing
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “The Printer > Use Printer Offline document management menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item again.”

To set printer priorities, you must do all of the following except __________.
A) create multiple printers
B) create multiple print users
C) modify printer priorities
D) associate printers with the same print device
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “In some cases, you might want to give certain users in your organization priority access to a print device so that when print traffic is heavy, their jobs are processed before those of other users. To do this, you must create multiple printers, associate them with the same print device, and then modify their priorities.”

What is the only role service that is required when you add the Print Services role?
A) Internet Printing
B) LPD Service
C) Print Server
D) Printer Pool
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Print Server is the only role service that is required when you add the Print Services role.”

Which of the following is not an option with the Print Services Management Console?
A) Installing a printer
B) Access the print queues and Properties sheets for all of the network printers in the enterprise
C) Deploy printers to client computers using Group Policy
D) Create custom views
A) Installing a printer
Which of the following is not a node found in the Print Management console?
A) print servers
B) custom filters
C) deployed printers
D) sharing and security
D) sharing and security
Which version of Windows automatically supports automatic policy-based printer deployments by default?
A) Windows XP
B) Windows Server 2003
C) Windows 2000
D) None of the above
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Clients running earlier versions of Windows, including Windows XP and Windows Server 2003, do not support automatic policy-based printer deployments. To enable the GPO to deploy printers on these computers, you must configure the systems to run a utility called PushPrinterConnections.exe.”

The XML Paper Specification format is included with which of the following operating systems by default?
A) Windows Vista
B) Windows XP
C) Windows Server 2003
D) Windows NT
ANSWER = “A”

EXPLANATION = “XML Paper Specification (XPS) is a new, platform-independent document format included with Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista in which print job files use a single XPS format for their entire journey to the print device rather than being converted first to EMS and then later to PCL.”

With network-attached print devices, what is the primary deployment decision that the administrator must make?
A) which printer permissions will be assigned
B) which roles to assign
C) which printer to assign
D) which computer will function as the print server
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “With network-attached print devices, the primary deployment decision that the administrator must make is which computer will function as the print server.”

Just as with folder shares, what must clients have to access a shared printer?
A) drivers
B) security clearance
C) administrative roles
D) proper permissions
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Just as with folder shares, clients must have the proper permissions to access a shared printer. “

Printer permissions, which are much simpler than NTFS permissions, basically dictate whether __________.
A) users are allowed to merely use the printer
B) users can manage documents submitted to the printer
C) users can manage the properties of the printer itself
D) all of the above
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Printer permissions are much simpler than NTFS permissions. They basically dictate whether users are allowed to merely use the printer, manage documents submitted to the printer, or manage the properties of the printer itself.”

By default, the Print Management console displays only which of the following in its list of print servers?
A) networked printers
B) local machine
C) networked computers
D) terminal services
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “By default, the Print Management console displays only the local machine in its list of print servers.”

What is one of the major problems for printing administrators on large enterprise networks?
A) keeping track of roles and permissions
B) keeping track of print utilization
C) keeping track of users and permissions
D) keeping track of print devices
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “One of the major problems for printing administrators on large enterprise networks is keeping track of dozens or hundreds of print devices, all in frequent use and all needing attention on a regular basis. Whether the maintenance required is a major repair, replenishing ink or toner, or just filling the paper trays, print devices will not get the attention they need until an administrator is aware of the problem.”

How many possibilities of filter combinations exist in the Print Management Console?
A) 1
B) approximately 100
C) approximately 500
D) more than 1,000
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “When creating filters, each entry in the Field drop-down list has its own collection of possible entries for the Condition drop-down list, and each Condition entry has its own possible entries for the Value setting. Therefore, there are many thousands of possible filter combinations.”

Which of the following is not a tool that can help you proactively troubleshoot network problems?
A) Reliability and Performance Monitor
B) Performance console
C) Windows Server 2008 Event Viewer
D) Network Monitor
B) Performance console
Which of the following are the specific processes or events that you want to track?
A) configuration information
B) event trace data
C) performance counters
D) none of the above
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Performance counters are the specific processes or events that you want to track, and new performance counters are exposed within the Reliability and Performance Monitor as you add additional roles and services to a particular server.”

Which of the following is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor?
A) Performance Monitor
B) Reliability Monitor
C) Resource
D) Network
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Resource view is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor. This view provides a quick overview of the four major performance components of a Windows server: CPU, Disk, Network, and Memory.”

In the Reliability and Performance Monitor, which view provides information about system events that can affect a server’s stability, including software installation and un-installation, as well as any application, operating system, or hardware failures that have occurred over a particular time period?
A) Performance Monitor
B) Reliability Monitor
C) Resource
D) Network
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “Reliability Monitor view provides information about system events that can affect a server’s stability, including software installation and un-installation, as well as any application, operating system, or hardware failures that have occurred over a particular time period.”

The Reliability and Performance Monitor is a tool located within the Administrative Tools folder that combines features that had previously been spread across a number of tools. Which of the following is not a feature?
A) Performance Logs and Alerts
B) Performance Monitor
C) Server Performance Advisor
D) System Monitor
b) performance monitor
Which of the following is the most frequently used view within the Reliability and Performance Monitor?
A) Performance Logs and Alerts
B) System Monitor
C) Server Performance Advisor
D) Performance Monitor
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “The most frequently used view within the Reliability and Performance Monitor is the Performance Monitor.”

Which of the following is not a built-in Data Collector Set within Windows Server 2008?
A) LAN Diagnostics
B) System Diagnostics
C) System Monitor
D) System Performance
c) system monitor
Which log should be the first place you look when you suspect a problem with Active Directory?
A) Event Viewer
B) Directory Service
C) Service Monitor
D) Event Monitor
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “The Directory Service log is created when Active Directory is installed. It logs informational events such as service start and stop messages, errors, and warnings. This log should be the first place you look when you suspect a problem with Active Directory.”

In which node is Event Viewer located?
A) Setup node
B) Application node
C) Diagnostics node
D) Security node
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Event Viewer is accessible from Server Manager by drilling down to the Diagnostics node or by selecting Event Viewer from the Administrative Tools folder on the Start menu.”

Which log records events associated with server installation, adding and removing server roles, installing applications, and so forth?
A) Setup
B) System
C) Forwarded events
D) Security
ANSWER = “A”

EXPLANATION = “The Setup Log &nbspis new to Windows Server 2008 and records events associated with server installation, adding and removing server roles, installing applications, and so forth.”

When you first launch Network Monitor, what key do you press to begin capturing network traffic?
A) F8
B) F9
C) F10
D) F11
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “When you first launch Network Monitor, you can press F10 to begin capturing network traffic and F11 to end the capture.”

Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is a Web-based tool for managing and distributing software updates that resolve known security vulnerabilities or otherwise improve performance of all of the following operating systems except __________.
A) Windows Server 2008
B) Windows Server 2003
C) Windows XP
D) Windows NT
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is a Web-based tool for managing and distributing software updates that resolve known security vulnerabilities or otherwise improve performance of the Microsoft Windows XP, Windows Vista, Microsoft Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008 operating systems.”

Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include all of the following except __________.
A) security fixes
B) critical updates
C) additional user experience features
D) critical drivers
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include security fixes, critical updates, and critical drivers. These updates resolve known security vulnerabilities and stability issues in the Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008 operating systems.”

Which of the following is not a category for the Windows operating system updates?
A) Group Policy updates
B) critical updates
C) recommended downloads
D) multilanguage features
A) Group Policy Updates
Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS. This enhancement adds all of the following features when used in conjunction with a WSUS server except __________.
A) approved content download from a WSUS server
B) scheduled content download and installation
C) the ability to configure all Automatic Updates options by using Group Policy Object Editor or by editing the registry
D) support for Unix-based systems
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS. This enhancement adds the following features when used in conjunction with a WSUS server: approved content download from a WSUS server, scheduled content download and installation, the ability to configure all Automatic Updates options by using Group Policy Object Editor or by editing the registry, and support for systems without a logged-on local administrator.”

Which of the following is not a main component of WSUS?
A) Windows Update Synchronization Service
B) Website hosted on an IIS server that services update requests from Automatic Updates clients
C) Windows Update Communication Service
D) WSUS MMC Administration console
C) Windows update communication service
From where can a server that runs WSUS be synchronized?
A) public Windows Update servers
B) another server running WSUS
C) manually configured content distribution point
D) all of the above
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “A server that runs WSUS can be synchronized from the public Windows Update servers, from another server running WSUS, or from a manually configured content distribution point. WSUS servers can download and store content locally, or they can use the content on the Windows Update Website.”

Server management includes all of the following with the exception of __________.
A) reviewing and changing configuration options
B) controlling download and installation behavior
C) automatically or manually synchronizing the server
D) viewing the update status
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “Server management includes reviewing and changing configuration options, automatically or manually synchronizing the server, viewing the update status, and backing up and restoring the server. Client management includes controlling download and installation behavior and configuration for Active Directory and non-Active Directory environments.”

Initial WSUS server configuration options include all of the following except __________.
A) proxy server information for the server to access the Internet
B) options for handling previously approved content
C) the list of client languages you would like to support
D) all of the above
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Initial WSUS server configuration options include the following: choice of whether the update files are hosted on the Internet Windows Update service or locally on your server that runs WSUS, proxy server information for the server to access the Internet, options for handling previously approved content, and the list of client languages you would like to support.”

Which Windows feature allows users to perform self-service restores of previous versions of files and folders in case of accidental deletion or unwanted modifications?
A) Secret Copies of Shared Folders
B) Shadow Copies of Secret Folders
C) Shadow Copies of Shared Folders
D) Shared Copies of Shadow Folders
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Shadow Copies of Shared Folders is a Windows feature that allows users to perform self-service restores of previous versions of files and folders in case of accidental deletion or unwanted modifications.

Which optional role service is part of the File Server role that allows administrators to configure advanced file server functionality such as disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota activities?
A) File Server Manager
B) File Server Resource Manager
C) File Resource Manager
D) Server Resource Manager
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “The File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) is an optional role service that is part of the File Server role, which allows administrators to configure advanced file server functionality such as disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota activities.”

What does the Windows Server Backup feature use to perform file and volume-level backups?
A) Server Backup Copies
B) Shadow Backup Copies
C) Volume Backup Copies
D) Volume Shadow Copies
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “The Windows Server Backup feature is a new feature in Windows Server 2008 that performs file and volume-level backups using Volume Shadow Copies.”

Shadow Copies protects against accidental file deletions that inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis by using what type of fault tolerance?
A) file-based
B) index-based
C) security-based
D) user-based
ANSWER = “A”

EXPLANATION = “Shadow Copies is a file-based fault tolerance mechanism that does not provide protection against disk failures, but does protect against accidental file deletions that inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis.”

Shadow Copies of Shared Folders creates files that are stored on file shares on Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008 file servers by using what type of copies?
A) minute-in-time
B) point-in-time
C) ghost
D) shadow
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “Shadow Copies of Shared Folders creates point-in-time copies of files that are stored on file shares on Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008 file servers.”

Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled at which level?
A) volume
B) file
C) user
D) network
ANSWER = “A”

EXPLANATION = “Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled at the volume level, which means that it will be enabled or disabled for all shared folders on the C: drive, the D: drive, and so forth. Shadow Copies of Shared Folders works by periodically taking a snapshot of the contents of all shared folders on a particular volume and storing those snapshots to allow users and administrators to refer back to them later for any of the purposes described above.”

What is the minimum amount of space you must allocate to store shadow copies?
A) 200MB
B) 250MB
C) 300MB
D) 350MB
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “You must allocate a minimum of 300MB of space to store shadow copies.”

Once you have enabled Shadow Copies of Shared Folders for a particular volume, the default schedule will create a snapshot twice per day, seven days per week, at what times?
A) 6:00 am and 12:00 pm
B) 6:00 pm and 12:00 am
C) 7:00 am and 12:00 am
D) 7:00 am and 12:00 pm
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Once you have enabled Shadow Copies of Shared Folders for a particular volume, the default schedule will create a snapshot twice per day, seven days per week, at 7: 00 am and 12: 00 pm.”

A maximum of how many shadow copies can be stored on a particular volume?
A) 32
B) 64
C) 96
D) 128
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “A maximum of 64 shadow copies can be stored on a particular volume.”

How can users restore previous versions of files on the selected volumes?
A) by clicking on the file and selecting Restore previous versions from the Help menu
B) by clicking on the file and selecting Restore previous versions from the File menu
C) by double-clicking on the file
D) by right-clicking on the file and selecting Restore previous versions
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “Users can restore previous versions of files on the selected volumes by right-clicking on the file and selecting Restore previous versions.”

Three options can be found on the Previous Versions tab for any snapshots listed. Which of the following is not an option?
A) Open
B) Duplicate
C) Copy
D) Restore
ANSWER = “B”

EXPLANATION = “From the Previous Versions tab, you have one of three options for any snapshots listed: Open, Copy, and Restore.”

The File Server Resource Manager console was first introduced in which product?
A) Windows NT
B) Windows Server 2003
C) Windows Server 2003 R2
D) Windows Server 2008
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “The File Server Resource Manager console, first introduced in Windows Server 2003 R2, provides tools that enable file server administrators to monitor and regulate their server storage.”

Which of the following prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond the allotted amount?
A) allotments
B) allocations
C) soft quota
D) hard quota
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “A hard quota prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond the allotted amount, while a soft quota allows the user storage space beyond the allotted amount and just sends an e-mail notification to the user and/or administrator.”

NTFS quotas are limited to controlling storage on entire volumes on what basis?
A) per user
B) group
C) network
D) none of the above
ANSWER = “A”

EXPLANATION = “NTFS quotas are limited to controlling storage on entire volumes on a per-user basis.”

NTFS quotas are able to do which of the following?
A) execute commands
B) send e-mail notifications
C) create event log entries
D) all of the above
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “NTFS quotas are also limited to creating event log entries only, while FSRM quotas can also send e-mail notifications, execute commands, and generate reports as well as log events.”

If you wish to perform backups from the command line, what will you need to install?
A) Windows PowerShell
B) Windows Server Backup
C) Windows Server Core
D) Windows Server Manager Console
ANSWER = “A”

EXPLANATION = “If you wish to perform backups from the command line, you will need to install Windows PowerShell, which is a new command-line and task-based scripting technology that is included with Windows Server 2008, although PowerShell cannot be installed on Server Core in Windows Server 2008.”

Windows Server Backup supports the use of what type of media as backup destinations?
A) magnetic tape
B) dynamic volumes
C) DVD
D) none of the above
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Windows Server Backup supports the use of CD and DVD drives as backup destinations, but does not support magnetic tapes as backup media. Additionally, you cannot perform backups to dynamic volumes.”

When the restore operation finds files and folders in the recovery location, the restore can do one of three things. Which of the following is not an option?
A) write
B) create
C) overwrite
D) do not recover
A) Write
When restoring data in Windows Server 2008, what types of restores can you can choose to perform?
A) files/folders
B) files/volumes
C) folders/volumes
D) files/folders/volumes
ANSWER = “D”

EXPLANATION = “When restoring data in Windows Server 2008, you can choose to restore data from either a local or a remote server. You can choose to perform two types of restores: nnFiles and folders: This restore allows you browse to individual files and folders to restore in situations in which you need to restore only a limited amount of information.nnVolumes: This restore will recover an entire volume. This option cannot be selected from the Windows Server Backup utility if the selected volume contains operating system components.nn”

What type of backup is supported by Windows Server 2008?
A) dynamic
B) automatic
C) manual
D) none of the above
ANSWER = “C”

EXPLANATION = “Windows Server 2008 supports two types of backup: manual and scheduled.”

In which view can you view the counters associated with Data Collector Sets?
A) Performance Monitor
B) System Monitor
C) Server Performance Advisor
D) Performance Logs and Alerts
ANSWER = “A”

EXPLANATION = “You can view the counters associated with Data Collector Sets in Performance Monitor view, use them to generate alert actions when particular performance thresholds are reached, and integrate them with the Windows Task Scheduler to collect performance data at specific times.”