mktg 470 test 1

E. Evaluation of marketing actions
1. A marketing firm launched a major advertising campaign to position its brand as superior to its competitors. After the campaign had run for six months, the marketing team wanted to use marketing research to determine if it had achieved its objective. Which of the functions of marketing research is carried out by the firm?
A. Creation of customer profiles
B. Identification of market problems
C. Refinement of marketing actions
D. Identification of market-driven opportunities
E. Evaluation of marketing actions
A. It draws heavily on the social sciences, both for methods and theory.
2. Which of the following is true of marketing research?
A. It draws heavily on the social sciences, both for methods and theory.
B. It is typically conducted for branding of new products but not for existing products.
C. It can be applied to a variety of problems including price, product and promotion, but excluding place.
D. Theoretical research plays no role in marketing research.
E. Marketing research investigations that focus on topics such as trade area analysis and store image/perception are categorized as promotional research methodologies
B. provides information for decisions on product improvements and new-product introductions
3. Test marketing _____.
A. identifies two or more segments within the market for a particular company’s products.
B. provides information for decisions on product improvements and new-product introductions.
C. includes choosing and evaluating locations, channels, and distribution partners.
D. focuses on database development through optical scanning at the point of purchase.
E. involves understanding how one’s target consumers behave as shoppers, in different channels and formats, and leveraging this intelligence to the benefit of all stakeholders.
D. Perceptual mapping
4. Which of the following is a technique that is used to picture the relative position of products on two or more product dimensions important to consumer purchase decisions?
A. Retailing wheel
B. Optical scanning
C. Store image studies
D. Perceptual mapping
E. Behavioral targeting
D. Consumers have to indicate how similar or dissimilar a group of relevant brands or products are to each other
5. Which of the following pertains to the creation of a perceptual map?
A. Retailers focus on database development through optical scanning at the point of purchase.
B. Marketers have to work on branding of both new and existing products.
C. Marketing research considers the total performance of a promotional program as each effort often affects others in the promotional mix.
D. Consumers have to indicate how similar or dissimilar a group of relevant brands or products are to each other.
E. Consumer behavior activities embedded in a cultural context are studied by marketers using ethnographic research.
C. retailing research.
6. Research investigations that focus on topics such as trade area analysis, store image/perception, in-store traffic patterns, and location analysis are collectively called:
A. perceptual mapping.
B. positioning research.
C. retailing research.
D. test marketing.
E. promotional decisions.
C. positioning research.
7. Apex Corporation surveys its consumers to determine how they view the similarities and dissimilarities among relevant product attributes for a set of competing brands. This is an example of:
A. pricing strategy research.
B. distribution strategy research.
C. positioning research.
D. market segmentation research.
E. retailing research.
C. retailing research.
8. A new supermarket, The Factory, has installed closed circuit cameras and TVs to find out the category of products and the specific brands favored by customers. This is done so that space allocated to different products can be revised. This is an example of:
A. perceptual mapping.
B. test marketing.
C. retailing research.
D. logistical assessment.
E. demand analysis.
C. Behavioral targeting
9. Sally was browsing different kinds of skirts at Pop.com. Based on Sally’s action, Little Kite Inc., an apparel company, displayed ads of their various skirts. Which of the following techniques was applied by Little Kite Inc.?
A. Perceptual mapping
B. Test marketing
C. Behavioral targeting
D. Shopper marketing
E. Concept positioning
A. shopper marketing.
10. Marketing to consumers based on research of the entire process consumers go through when making a purchase is termed as:
A. shopper marketing.
B. behavioral targeting.
C. retailing research.
D. test marketing.
E. a benefit and lifestyle study
B. attitudinal research.
11. The three most common research tasks in integrated marketing communications are advertising effectiveness studies, sales tracking, and:
A. in-store traffic patterns.
B. attitudinal research.
C. location analysis.
D. trade area analysis.
E. store image studies.
D. market segmentation research.
12. Marketing research depicts the Saturn Motorcycle shopper as a middle-aged, college-educated individual with an average annual income of $75,000. This is an example of:
A. market analysis.
B. pricing strategy research.
C. positioning research.
D. market segmentation research.
E. retailing research.
E. Ethnography
13. Along with segmentation studies, which of the following would provide marketers with detailed information about cultures or subcultures that businesses seek to serve?
A. Behavioral targeting
B. Shopper marketing
C. Curbstoning
D. Sugging
E. Ethnography
B. syndicated business
15. Services provided by standardized research firms that include data made or developed from a common data pool or database are called _____ services.
A. debriefed
B. syndicated business
C. customized
D. highly tailored
E. branded “black-box”
C. standardized
16. Aura Inc. is a research firm that conducts audits of unauthorized software for a number of banks. It uses a standard format for functioning across all banks. Aura Inc. is a(n) _____ research firm.
A. customized
B. highly tailored
C. standardized
D. adaptable
E. convertible
B. may not provide sufficient budgets to do research projects.
17. Research providers may occasionally conduct research that does not meet professional standards because clients:
A. obtain first drafts of questionnaires and use the information to perform the research project themselves.
B. may not provide sufficient budgets to do research projects.
C. overlook the long-term promises made to the research companies.
D. are tempted to overstate results of a marketing research project.
E. are unable to get sufficient insight into the method’s strengths and weaknesses prior to purchase.
C. curbstoning
18. The practice of data collection personnel filling out surveys for fake respondents is called _____.
A. sugging
B. frugging
C. curbstoning
D. debriefing
E. de-anonymizing
B. Not providing the promised incentive for completing interviews or questionnaires
19. Which of the following illustrates abuse of respondents in marketing research?
A. Selling of unnecessary or unwarranted research services
B. Not providing the promised incentive for completing interviews or questionnaires
C. Having friends and relatives fill out surveys
D. Not using the designated sample of respondents but rather anyone who is conveniently available to complete the survey
E. A researcher revealing its client to respondents
D. debriefing
20. The process of fully explaining to respondents any deception that was used during research is known as _____.
A. sugging
B. frugging
C. curbstoning
D. debriefing
E. de-anonymizing
D. Debriefing
21. Which of the following is ethical in marketing research practices?
A. Sugging
B. Frugging
C. Curbstoning
D. Debriefing
E. De-anonymizing
A. claiming that a survey is for research purposes and then asking for a sale or donation.
22. Frugging means:
A. claiming that a survey is for research purposes and then asking for a sale or donation.
B. fully explaining to respondents any deception that was used during research.
C. using the data collection personnel to fill out surveys for fake respondents.
D. combining different publicly available information, usually unethically, to determine consumers’ identities, especially on the Internet.
E. conducting research below professional standards.
B. It creates a negative impact on the entire industry.
23. Which of the following is true of frugging?
A. It occurs when research firms do not fully disclose how the methodology works.
B. It creates a negative impact on the entire industry.
C. It must be conducted at the end of any study involving deception.
D. It includes not using the designated sample of respondents but rather anyone who is conveniently available to complete the survey.
E. It combines different publicly available information, usually unethically, to determine consumers’ identities.
E. It suggests that researchers discontinue follow-up e-mails if requested to by respondents.
24. Which of the following is true of the guidelines developed by the Marketing Research Association (MRA) for Internet marketing research issues?
A. It announced that there must be de-anonymization of information on the Internet by combining different publicly available records available at social networks.
B. It suggests the use of digital technologies such as GPS as they do not result in privacy-related issues.
C. It does not allow clickstream tracking.
D. It prohibits the use of cookies.
E. It suggests that researchers discontinue follow-up e-mails if requested to by respondents.
C. Obtaining first drafts of questionnaires and using the information to perform the research project themselves
25. Which of the following illustrates an unethical activity of the client?
A. Decision makers requesting detailed research proposals from research providers
B. Not using the designated sample of respondents but rather anyone who is conveniently available to complete the survey
C. Obtaining first drafts of questionnaires and using the information to perform the research project themselves
D. Prohibiting market researchers from de-anonymizing data
E. Not following up on the established callback procedures indicated in the research procedure
D. The time constraints associated with the problem make it impossible to conduct the study.
6. A manager wants to do a market study before launching a new product. The research study will take three months to complete. Just two weeks before starting the study, she learns that one of her company’s competitors is about to launch a product that will compete directly with her company’s new product. Based on this new information, she decides to cancel the research study and launch the product immediately. Which of the following is most likely the reason for cancelling the study?
A. The problem can be resolved using existing information.
B. The problem is not of strategic or tactical importance.
C. The information required to resolve the problem is already available in the company’s internal records.
D. The time constraints associated with the problem make it impossible to conduct the study.
E. The cost of conducting the study outweighs the benefit of additional information.
B. cost-benefit assessment
7. Marilynn Castillo is a marketing manager with a major firm. She is debating whether to conduct a marketing research study before commercializing a product. She realizes that conducting the study will cost approximately $100,000. If she launches the product without conducting the study and the product fails, her firm could suffer a loss of $2 million. According to the above scenario, Marilynn is doing a(n) _____.
A. time-availability assessment
B. cost-benefit assessment
C. research-design assessment
D. information-availability assessment
E. market-sensitivity assessment
B. identify and clarify management’s information needs
8. The first task in the information research process is to _____.
A. redefine the decision problems as research problems
B. identify and clarify management’s information needs
C. determine the measurement issues and scales
D. determine the sample plan and sample size
E. determine the research design and data sources
A. situation analysis
9. Symphony Inc., a market research firm, has formed a team to study a problem. To familiarize themselves with the overall complexity of the problem, the market research team decides to gather and synthesize background information including events and factors that led to the current problem. This research team is engaged in doing a(n) _____.
A. situation analysis
B. symptomatic analysis
C. variable analysis
D. sampling analysis
E. screening analysis
A. determination of the research problem
10. The iceberg principle provides information concerning the _____.
A. determination of the research problem
B. selection of the appropriate research design
C. execution of the research design
D. communication of the research results
E. interpretation of data to create knowledge
C. Managers are aware of just a small portion of the true problem; this small portion is generally the visible symptom of a bigger underlying problem.
11. According to the iceberg principle, which of the following statements is true?
A. One can often get blindsided by problems that could otherwise have been easily anticipated by proactive marketing research.
B. Problems become visible only when they become crises; marketing research can help identify problems in their early stages.
C. Managers are aware of just a small portion of the true problem; this small portion is generally the visible symptom of a bigger underlying problem.
D. 80 percent of marketing research budget is typically spent on solving 20 percent of all the problems facing a company.
E. The importance of marketing research is often underestimated in organizations; what people see is a small part of a much bigger support apparatus.
C. The unit of analysis
12. _____ specifies whether data should be collected about individuals, households, organizations, departments, geographical areas, or some combination.
A. Situation analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. The unit of analysis
D. Symptom analysis
E. Integrated analysis
A. Determination of the unit of analysis
13. In the process of identifying and clarifying information needs, which of the following components provides direction for activities such as scale development and sampling?
A. Determination of the unit of analysis
B. Conducting a situation assessment
C. Determination of the relevant variables
D. Identification and separation of symptoms
E. Determination of the research purpose
C. determine the relevant variables for her study
14. While designing a study, a researcher is wondering if she should ask respondents their age and gender. She is not sure if she would need that information later in the research process. She is trying to _____.
A. determine the correct unit of analysis for her study
B. conduct a situation assessment for her study
C. determine the relevant variables for her study
D. identify the symptoms and underlying problems for her study
E. confirm the information value
A. Exploratory research
15. Which of the following helps generate insights that will help define the problem situation confronting the researcher?
A. Exploratory research
B. Descriptive research
C. Causal research
D. Demographic research
E. Narrative research
E. Pilot studies
16. Which of the following data collection techniques is used in exploratory research studies?
A. Image assessment surveys
B. Customer satisfaction surveys
C. Narrative surveys
D. Cause-and-effect studies
E. Pilot studies
C. understanding which variables lead to the dependent variable
17. Causal research is most useful in _____.
A. generating insights that help in defining the problem situation
B. understanding consumer motivations and behavior that are not easy to access using other research methods
C. understanding which variables lead to the dependent variable
D. using historical data that has been previously collected for some research situation other than the current situation
E. collecting quantitative data to answer research questions such as who, what, when, where, and how
E. question or observe all the members of a defined target population
18. In a census, a researcher attempts to _____.
A. use the probability sampling technique
B. define the “known chance” of selecting a subject
C. use a small representative sample to generalize about the target population
D. collect data from a small set of people from the target population
E. question or observe all the members of a defined target population
A. It involves a small number of members of the target population from which the researcher collects data.
19. Which of the following is true about research based on a sample?
A. It involves a small number of members of the target population from which the researcher collects data.
B. Each member from the target population is selected for the research.
C. For small populations a sample is the best approach.
D. There is no need to identify a target population.
E. Probability sampling plans cannot measure sampling error and thus limit the generalizability of the research findings.
C. identify the concepts to study and measure the variables related to the research problem
20. In the information research process, the role of examining measurement issues and scales is to _____.
A. examine quantitative data to answer research and measure the sampling error
B. determine if the population represented by the secondary data is relevant to the current research problem
C. identify the concepts to study and measure the variables related to the research problem
D. specify research objectives and confirm the information value
E. select the correct type, sequence, and format of questions
E. Pretesting
21. _____ obtains information from people representative of those who will be questioned in the actual survey.
A. Doing a unit analysis
B. Conducting a demographic analysis
C. Doing a situation analysis
D. Defining
E. Pretesting
B. collecting and preparing data
22. In the information research process, coding and data-entry errors in the collected primary data are most likely to be caught while _____.
A. designing and pretesting the questionnaire
B. collecting and preparing data
C. developing the sample design
D. interpreting data to create knowledge
E. examining measurement issues and scales
D. enable researchers to collect a wider array of data
23. While collecting and preparing data, a difference between questioning and observation is that questioning approaches _____.
A. need fewer researchers as compared to observation approaches
B. need not examine data for data-entry errors and inconsistencies
C. do not allow researchers to collect information about factors such as motivation and past behavior
D. enable researchers to collect a wider array of data
E. focus on collecting data that does not need coding
D. Specific research instruments
24. In a research proposal, which of the following sections discusses the types of scales to be used for data collection?
A. Definition of the target population
B. Sample design
C. Data collection method
D. Specific research instruments
E. Definition of the sample size
C. Research proposal
25. _____ is a specific document that provides an overview of the proposed research and methodology, and serves as a written contract between the decision maker and the researcher.
A. Methodology transcript
B. Questionnaire design
C. Research proposal
D. Interview transcript
E. Survey design
C. External secondary
1. _____ data are collected by organizations other than the company conducting the research.
A. Internal primary
B. Internal secondary
C. External secondary
D. External primary
E. Field research
A. literature
2. A(n) _____ review is a comprehensive examination of available information that is related to the research topic.
A. literature
B. extended
C. internal
D. external
E. summary
B. ensuring consistency of the original data with the current market study
3. Evaluating the purpose of secondary data involves _____.
A. ensuring accuracy of the secondary data
B. ensuring consistency of the original data with the current market study
C. seeking multiple sources of the same original data to assure consistency
D. finding flaws in the methodological procedures used in collecting the data
E. determining the underlying motivation or hidden agenda for collecting the original data
C. evaluate when the secondary data was collected
4. While evaluating secondary data, the accuracy criterion suggests that researchers must _____.
A. seek out multiple sources to check consistency of data
B. evaluate the overall procedure for collecting the data
C. evaluate when the secondary data was collected
D. carefully evaluate the data on how it relates to the current research objective
E. determine the hidden agenda of the company that collected the secondary data
E. Internal data are the cheapest and most readily available sources of secondary data
5. Which of the following statements is true about internal secondary data?
A. It is expensive to access the sources of internal secondary data.
B. Internal secondary data are not usable for future business decisions.
C. It can be easily obtained from scholarly and government sources.
D. Internal data sources are used after getting useful information from external sources.
E. Internal data are the cheapest and most readily available sources of secondary data.
D. Sales invoices
6. _____ are sources of internal secondary data.
A. U.S. census data
B. Scholarly data
C. Marketing blogs
D. Sales invoices
E. Newspaper websites
B. U.S. census reports
7. _____ are sources of external secondary data.
A. Customer letters
B. U.S. census reports
C. Accounts receivable reports
D. Warranty cards
E. Sales invoices
C. are detailed, complete, and consistent
8. Major reasons for using government documents as secondary data sources is that they _____.
A. are easily available in all marketing blogs
B. include the number of previous citations
C. are detailed, complete, and consistent
D. provide information about past sales of the company
E. can easily be tracked using web-based bookmarking tools
E. promote uniformity in data reporting by government sources and private businesses
9. The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes are designed to _____.
A. index major market research reports for a variety of private institutions
B. index online publications available up to the current month and year
C. provide the statistical foundation for the information available on the U.S. population
D. provide a detailed profile of economic activity within a given geographic area
E. promote uniformity in data reporting by government sources and private businesses
A. Syndicated
10. _____ data is market research data that is collected, packaged, and sold to many different firms.
A. Syndicated
B. Noncommercial
C. Open source
D. Government
E. Standardized
B. commercial data
11. Store audits are used to provide _____.
A. federal data
B. commercial data
C. open source data
D. government data
E. scholarly data
A. They provide accurate and specific reporting of socially sensitive expenditures.
12. Which of the following statements is true about consumer panels?
A. They provide accurate and specific reporting of socially sensitive expenditures.
B. They cost higher than primary data collection methods.
C. They provide information obtained immediately at the point of purchase.
D. They provide information about only the intentions or propensities to purchase.
E. They help to generate information on effectiveness of shelf space and POP displays.
A. variable
13. A _____ is an observable item that is used as a measure on a questionnaire.
A. variable
B. construct
C. relationship
D. hypothesis
E. parameter
B. construct
14. A _____ is an unobservable concept that is measured by a group of related variables.
A. relationship
B. construct
C. variable parameter
D. dependent
E. hypothesis
C. Relationships
15. _____ are associations between two or more variables.
A. Hypotheses
B. Constructs
C. Relationships
D. Dependent variables
E. Null hypotheses
A. independent variable
16. A(n) _____ is the variable or construct that predicts or explains the outcome variable of interest.
A. independent variable
B. dependent variable
C. positive relationship
D. negative relationship
E. null hypothesis
A. Deal proneness is predicted by a person’s household income.
17. Which of the following situations treats “deal proneness” as a dependent variable in a relationship?
A. Deal proneness is predicted by a person’s household income.
B. Deal proneness results in greater price sensitivity.
C. Deal proneness predicts the time spent by a person shopping.
D. Deal proneness does not depend on a person’s age.
E. Deal proneness leads to greater brand loyalty.
E. model that shows variables and hypothesized relationships between variables.
18. Conceptualization of a model means developing a:
A. research concept before developing a literature review.
B. conceptual model of the geographic area from which the sample would be drawn.
C. text-based model to do statistical testing of hypothesized relationships.
D. conceptual model of a new product before it is tested in a lab setting.
E. model that shows variables and hypothesized relationships between variables.
C. the literature review fails to yield a reasonable conceptual model
19. An exploratory research is recommended when _____.
A. a full-scale study is likely to cost more than an exploratory study
B. the researcher has greater expertise in conducting exploratory studies
C. the literature review fails to yield a reasonable conceptual model
D. the dependent variables are constructs
E. the independent variables are constructs
E. hypothesis
20. A _____ is an empirically testable though yet unproven statement developed in order to explain phenomena.
A. construct
B. negative relationship
C. sample statistic
D. positive relationship
E. hypothesis
C. null
21. A(n) _____ hypothesis is a statistical hypothesis that is tested for possible rejection under the assumption that it is true.
A. maintained
B. research
C. null
D. final
E. alternative
C. Null hypothesis
22. Which of the following hypotheses is always tested by statisticians and market researchers?
A. Test hypothesis
B. Alternative hypothesis
C. Null hypothesis
D. Statistical hypothesis
E. Rejection hypothesis
C. collect information that provides answers to research questions.
1. The objective of descriptive research is to:
A. test cause-and-effect relationships between specifically defined marketing variables.
B. explicitly define the research question and variables.
C. collect information that provides answers to research questions.
D. choose the type of individuals who will best represent the target population of interest.
E. ascertain how much detail of the behavior needs to be recorded.
B. It uses formal questions and predetermined response options in questionnaires administered to large numbers of respondents.
2. Which of the following is true of quantitative methods?
A. It enables researchers and clients to get closer to their customers and potential customers than does qualitative research.
B. It uses formal questions and predetermined response options in questionnaires administered to large numbers of respondents.
C. Quantitative analysis techniques cannot be applied to qualitative data.
D. It can be superior for studying topics that involve complex psychological motivations.
E. Quantitative researchers usually collect detailed data from relatively small samples which limit a researcher’s ability to generalize quantitative data to the population.
E. descriptive and casual designs.
3. Quantitative research methods are characterized by:
A. small samples.
B. unstructured questions.
C. subjective analyses.
D. preliminary insights.
E. descriptive and casual designs.
D. When the objective is to validate and estimate the strength of a relationship
4. In which of the following scenarios would you most strongly recommend using quantitative research?
A. When the objective is to identify new ideas and thoughts for a product
B. When the main goal is to uncover unanticipated findings and reactions
C. When the objective is to understand hidden underlying psychological processes
D. When the objective is to validate and estimate the strength of a relationship
E. When you have access to small samples
A. Qualitative data may be analyzed qualitatively or quantitatively
5. Which of the following is true of qualitative research methods?
A. Qualitative data may be analyzed qualitatively or quantitatively.
B. Qualitative researchers must be able to translate numerical data into meaningful narrative information.
C. Qualitative researchers seek to fit their answers into predetermined categories rather than to understand research participants.
D. Qualitative research is less superior for studying topics that involve complex psychological motivations.
E. Qualitative researchers emphasize their samples are made up of representative rather than relevant consumers.
A. To uncover deep underlying motives behind people’s buying behaviors
6. Allen is an accomplished qualitative researcher. Which of the following would be Allen’s primary goal?
A. To uncover deep underlying motives behind people’s buying behaviors
B. To make accurate predictions about relationships between market forces and purchase behavior
C. To validate the relationship between advertising expenses and sales volume
D. To make generalizable observations about a target population’s buying behavior
E. To test a hypothesis linking coupon value to brand preference
D. Qualitative researchers usually collect detailed data from relatively small samples by asking questions.
7. Which of the following statements is true of qualitative research methods?
A. Most practitioners regard qualitative research as being more reliable than quantitative research.
B. Qualitative data is collected in relatively long time periods.
C. Qualitative researchers emphasize their samples are made up of representative rather than relevant consumers.
D. Qualitative researchers usually collect detailed data from relatively small samples by asking questions.
E. Qualitative research, particularly for focus groups and in-depth interviews, is time consuming.
C. High reliability
8. Which of the following is an advantage of using quantitative research over qualitative research?
A. Relatively quick data collection in most cases
B. Cost-effective data collection
C. High reliability
D. Richness of the data
E. Accuracy of recording marketplace behaviors
E. use of projective techniques.
9. Susan is well-trained as a qualitative researcher. The area in which she is likely to be well trained is:
A. construct development.
B. hypothesis testing.
C. questionnaire design.
D. statistical data analysis.
E. use of projective techniques.
E. limit the use of qualitative information in selecting and implementing final action strategies.
10. With regard to qualitative research, the lack of representativeness of the defined target population can:
A. prevent researchers from collecting in-depth data about respondents’ attitudes, beliefs, emotions, and perceptions.
B. dilute the richness of the data.
C. enhance the researcher’s ability to generalize qualitative data to the population.
D. constrain researchers to probe more deeply into areas such as subconscious consumer motivations.
E. limit the use of qualitative information in selecting and implementing final action strategies.
B. involves asking a subject a set of semi-structured questions in a face-to-face setting.
11. An in-depth interview:
A. is an extended contact with a natural setting, but without participation by the researcher.
B. involves asking a subject a set of semi-structured questions in a face-to-face setting.
C. has a higher likelihood of participants responding in a socially desirable manner.
D. is a formalized process of bringing a small group together for discussion on a particular topic.
E. is also called memoing.
D. a probing question.
12. While interviewing a respondent about reasons why she does not buy a particular brand of video games, an interviewer gets the following response, “This brand’s games are not sophisticated.” The interviewer asks, “What exactly do you mean by that statement? What makes a game sophisticated?” This exchange is an example of:
A. a focus group moderation.
B. ethnography.
C. netnography.
D. a probing question.
E. a decision question.
C. it is usually not possible to recruit a random sample as small samples are inherently unrepresentative.
16. Researchers select sample members purposively or theoretically because:
A. various target group members are included or many groups are compared.
B. random samples of earlier interviews possess attributes important to understanding the research topic.
C. it is usually not possible to recruit a random sample as small samples are inherently unrepresentative.
D. it is not recommended to select random samples as they possess particular characteristics.
E. random samples are relevant rather than representative.
A. selecting sample members to study because they possess attributes important to understanding the research topic.
17. Purposive sampling means:
A. selecting sample members to study because they possess attributes important to understanding the research topic.
B. selecting sample members so that groups can be compared.
C. selecting sample members based on earlier interviews.
D. selecting particular types of participants to help researchers better understand the research topic.
E. selecting sample participants who are spontaneous on discussion on a particular topic or concept.
A. stratified
18. The process of selecting sample members so that groups can be compared is known as _____ sampling.
A. stratified
B. purposive
C. theoretical
D. accidental
E. opportunity
E. the systematic procedure of taking individual responses and grouping them into larger theme categories or patterns of expressions
21. Content analysis is:
A. the interviewer’s ability to articulate questions in a direct and clear manner.
B. a process of collecting both attitudinal and behavioral data from a subject that spans all time frames.
C. a detailed outline of the topics, questions, and subquestions used by the moderator to lead the focus group session.
D. the interactive procedure, of the researcher and moderator, discussing the subjects’ comments and/or responses to the topics that outlined the focus group session.
E. the systematic procedure of taking individual responses and grouping them into larger theme categories or patterns of expressions
B. the data already exist and were not created by interaction with researchers.
23. The difference between social media monitoring and the MROC is that in social media research:
A. the sample of people interacting about the product is a self-selected sample that is representative of consumer reactions in the target market.
B. the data already exist and were not created by interaction with researchers.
C. the primary purpose is research.
D. most companies outsource community development to a provider because of the start-up costs involved.
E. researchers cannot observe people interacting with each other unprompted by the potential bias of interviewers and questions.
A. sentiment analysis.
24. The application of technological tools to identify, extract, and quantify subject information in textual data is called:
A. sentiment analysis.
B. scanner-based research system.
C. listening post.
D. netnography.
E. content analysis.
D. a large amount of data is currently unclassifiable or incorrectly classified with current automation tools.
25. The use of quantitative measures of sentiment is still limited because:
A. their use requires deep engagement with one or more social media communities.
B. sentiment analysis relies on the emerging field of natural language processing.
C. most social media monitoring tools seek to seamlessly mix qualitative and quantitative analyses.
D. a large amount of data is currently unclassifiable or incorrectly classified with current automation tools.
E. researchers prefer to collect data from higher traffic forums.
A. data reduction.
6. A researcher is involved in the process of reading transcripts from a field study and categorizing the data. The researcher arranges similar responses together. This process is referred to as:
A. data reduction.
B. member checking.
C. peer reviewing.
D. verification of data.
E. sugging
C. code sheet.
7. In the context of qualitative data analysis, a document that lists the different themes or categories for a particular study is called a:
A. vision statement.
B. multiple-item sheet.
C. code sheet.
D. debriefing sheet.
E. memo.
E. comparison.
8. The process of developing and refining theory and constructs by analyzing the differences and similarities in passages, themes, or types of participants is referred to as:
A. member checking.
B. peer reviewing.
C. verification.
D. triangulation.
E. comparison.
C. Job satisfaction increases job performance and thus compensation earned on the job, which in turn increases job satisfaction.
9. Which of the following best illustrates a recursive relationship?
A. Job satisfaction increases job performance which in turn increases leadership opportunities within a company.
B. Job satisfaction decreases job performance which in turn decreases leadership opportunities within a company.
C. Job satisfaction increases job performance and thus compensation earned on the job, which in turn increases job satisfaction.
D. Advertising leads to sales growth which leads to greater market power.
E. Advertising leads to sales growth which leads to greater market power which results in greater brand recognition.
D. building a storyline around one core category or theme.
10. Selective coding is best defined as the process of:
A. moving the focus from the identification of themes and categories to the development of theory.
B. developing and refining theory and constructs by analyzing the differences and similarities in passages, themes, or types of participants.
C. placing portions of transcripts into similar groups based on their content.
D. building a storyline around one core category or theme.
E. writing down the observations made by a researcher after each interview or site visit.
A. iteration
11. The _____ process primarily involves working through the data several times in order to modify early ideas.
A. iteration
B. triangulation
C. comparison
D. categorization
E. selective coding
B. memoing.
12. After each interview, a researcher writes down her thoughts and feelings so that she could use those notes later when she does her qualitative data analysis. This process of writing notes is called:
A. negative case analysis.
B. memoing.
C. debriefing.
D. tabulation.
E. triangulation.
A. It helps to establish boundaries and conditions for the theories developed by qualitative researchers.
13. Which of the following is true about negative case analysis?
A. It helps to establish boundaries and conditions for the theories developed by qualitative researchers.
B. It mainly involves the determination of mean in numerical data.
C. Negative case analyseis is are restricted to the data reduction stage of qualitative analyses.
D. It primarily calculates the range of a given quantitative data.
E. Negative case analyseis is are restricted to the memoing stage of qualitative analyses.