MKT Research 1-7 (TRUE/FALSE)

Which of the following statements best illustrates the service-dominant logic for marketing philosophy?
Marketing decision makers should know their firms’ core competencies
One of the implications of the service-dominant logic for marketing philosophy is that:
to practice marketing well in today’s environment requires access to more and better
information than in the past.
Companies which successfully minimize product and service failures:
have determined how to create, communicate, and deliver value by “hearing the voice” of the consumer.
The marketing concept is an important philosophy for marketing managers because it dictates
day-to-day decisions that managers will make
The key reason that the marketing concept has been recognized as the “right philosophy” is that it
always focuses on the consumer.
Several examples of product failures were presented in your textbook. The key reason given for the failure of the firm, Cell Zones, to establish cell phone privacy in public settings with soundproof booths was that:
the company did not understand that the public was transitioning to the use of smart phones to text messages.
A marketing strategy consists of selecting a segment of the market as the company’s target market and designing the proper:
“mix” of product/service, price, promotion, and distribution for that market.
In order to develop the “right strategy” to succeed in business, managers must make the right decisions; and in order to make the right decisions, they must have objective, accurate, and timely
information
Which of the following is the best definition of marketing research? Marketing research is:
the process of designing, gathering, analyzing, and reporting information that may be used to solve a specific marketing problem.
Based on the AMA’s definition of marketing research, which of the following is NOT one of the uses of marketing research?
to solve general, not specific, marketing problems
Which of the following refers to applying marketing research to a specific geographical marketing area?
market research
Which of the following statements best reflects the purpose of marketing research
to link the consumer to the marketer by providing information that can be used in making marketing decisions
Marketing research conducted on the popular TV program, Seinfeld, starring Jerry Seinfeld, was used to illustrate:
when marketing research predicts a failure, yet there is success.
Which of the following best illustrates the use of marketing research to monitor marketing performance?
tracking variables that monitor how well products are performing in the marketplace
The difference between basic research and applied research is that basic research is conducted to
expand our knowledge, rather than solve a specific problem.
Barnes & Noble managers were prompted to ________ when presented with marketing research which indicated that its competitor, Amazon, had developed the Kindle to begin selling books online
generate, refine, and evaluate potential marketing actions
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the marketing information system?
A) internal reports
B) marketing intelligence
C) marketing decision support
D) consumer information support system
E) marketing research system
consumer information support system
The information system that gathers information generated by internal reports such as orders, billing, receivables, inventory levels, and so on is called the:
internal reports system.
Which of the following marketing information system components gathers information about events and happenings “outside” of the firm?
marketing intelligence
Which of the following marketing information system components provides studies conducted for specific situations facing the company?
market research system
Which of the following marketing information system components is NOT continuous?
marketing research system
Determining the value consumers perceive in new products is a primary objective of:
pricing research
Akron’s Children’s Hospital hired research firm, Marcus Thomas, LLC, to determine the most effective communication messages to use in a new ad campaign being developed by the hospital. This was an effort in
promotion research
________ satisfies the need for companies to identify and test new products to replace products which are at the end of their product life cycles
product research
Understanding the forces which motivate dealers to move greater quantities of product is inherent in the process of:
distribution rsearch
A kitchen appliance company has seen domestic markets become saturated over the past decade. Seeking new avenues of growth, in what way can the firm’s decision makers use market research to find a sizable international market segment to pursue?
target market selection
It has yet to be proven if social media can effectively serve as a venue for firms to collaborate with consumers
false
Marketing is a part of, or a subcategory of, marketing research.
false
The service-dominant logic for marketing philosophy suggests that marketing decision makers will need less information in the future.
false
Frito-Lay Lemonade is an example of a product extension which likely failed because of poor marketing research information
True
When a firm is “consumer -oriented” or “market-driven,” it follows the marketing concept business philosophy
True
Marketing strategy is defined as a planned design to reach the largest portion of the market by leveraging the benefits of both low marketing costs and promotion using the mass media to reach the largest audience.
false
Once objective, accurate, and timely information is provided to managers to allow them to implement the correct strategy, there is no future need for information
false
Marketing research is the process of designing, gathering, analyzing, and reporting information that may be used to solve a specific marketing problem
true
The American Marketing Association’s definition of marketing stresses that the function of marketing should be to create sales which generate high profits for the firm.
false
The definition of marketing research provided by the American Marketing Association stresses the 11-step process of marketing research.
false
Marketing research is synonymous with market research
false
The purpose of marketing research is to link the consumer to the marketers by providing information that can be used in making marketing decisions.
true
Marketing research provides information collected only on consumers. Information collected on other entities such as employees, members of distribution channels, or competitors would NOT be considered marketing research.
false
Marketing research is infallible
false
One of the uses of marketing research is to identify market opportunities; however, the identification of problems is not a use of marketing research, but rather a use of the firm’s internal auditing system.
false
When marketing research is used to “improve marketing as a process” instead of trying to solve a specific problem, we classify this research as applied research.
false
The use of marketing research to monitor marketing performance takes place prior to implementing marketing strategies.
false
Hershey’s can monitor the sales of its candy bars as well as the sales of its competitors’ brands through the use of tracking research studies.
true
When marketing research is used to improve marketing as a process, the research information is often published in journals such as The Journal of Marketing Research and Marketing Research.
true
Applied research addresses specific problems, and this type of research represents the vast majority of marketing research studies.
true
Some marketing research studies are designed to find out what consumers’ problems are and to assess the suitability of different proposed methods of resolving those problems.
true
Using marketing research to select new target markets not only involves determining the size of various market segments, but also determining if the market segment is growing or shrinking.
true
A marketing information system is a structure consisting of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.
true
The marketing intelligence system gathers information generated by internal reports, which includes order billing, receivables, inventory levels, stockouts, and so on.
false
A marketing decision support system is defined as collected data that may be accessed and analyzed using tools and techniques that assist managers in decision making.
true
Everyday, information about pertinent developments in the environment is gathered through internal report systems.
false
The marketing research system gathers information for a specific situation facing the company, and it is unlikely that the other components of an MIS have the information needed for the specific situation.
true
Marketing research is not needed if there is an adequate decision support system in place.
false
Marketing research projects, like the other MIS components, are continuous, running 24/7.
false
Marketing has been defined as a function and set of processes for creating, communicating, and delivering value to customers, and for managing customer relationships in ways that benefit the organization and its stakeholders. Marketing managers must have information in order to determine values desired by customers and how to build customer relationships. This explanation shows:
why marketing research is a part of marketing; that is, marketing research provides information to allow marketing managers to understand values desired by customers.
Tim, a marketing manager, disagreed with other company managers. Tim believed that the company should not just try to make a better product or try to sell more of the product. Tim believed that the company should try to identify and satisfy consumer wants and needs. Tim’s philosophy may best be described as
the marketing concept philosophy.
Allison is the CEO of a large consumer products company. She asks the marketing research department to gather information to help her determine target markets having the most potential from among several market segments. She also asks the research department to give her an assessment as to the best product, price, distribution, and promotion to appeal to the various market segments. Allison is collecting information to help her implement a
marketing strategy
Rachel would like to create a new department within her firm. She wishes that her firm could provide information that will help link consumers outside the firm to individuals in the firm. The individuals inside the firm would make decisions used to identify marketing opportunities and problems; generate, refine, and evaluate marketing actions; monitor marketing performance; and perhaps improve the understanding of marketing as a process. Rachel should name this department:
the marketing research department.
Abe would like to identify a location for a new unit of his franchised fast-food restaurant chain. He orders an evaluation of several city blocks from a marketing research firm. The research firm will determine the population, population growth, income, and other important demographic information for the defined geographical area. The research company will be performing:
market research
Marketing research studies predicted that hair styling mousse, answering machines, the Jerry Seinfeld TV program, Seinfeld, and other products and services would fail. Yet, these products and services were all successful. This illustrates that marketing research:
does not always make accurate predictions
Wrangler® developed several different proposed advertisements. They then used marketing research to test consumers’ preferences for the different promotional messages expressed in the various ads. This is an example of which use of marketing research?
generating, defining, and evaluating potential marketing actions
Professors at Texas A&M University conducted research to determine the best way to measure customer satisfaction with services. Their method was published in the Journal of Marketing and may be used by any firm wishing to measure their own customers’ satisfaction levels. This would be an example of:
basic research
Bob is a salesperson with the Acme Corporation. Bob has just made a large sale, and he accesses Acme’s marketing information system in order to determine if the company has enough existing inventory to fill the large order. Bob is accessing which component of Acme’s MIS?
internal reports
Andrea Livingston arrives at her desk at Western Utility Corporation, a provider of electrical power. She accesses her Lexis-Nexis computer program, which provides her with articles containing information related to the utilities industry. She discovers that a new breakthrough has occurred in solar panel technology, and this report was published during the evening in a newspaper in Europe. She immediately takes this information to her research and development department. Andrea is accessing which component of the MIS of Western Utility Corporation?
marketing intelligence
Doss is vice president of marketing research for General Mills. The chefs at General Mills bring three new cookie recipes to Doss. Doss wants to know which of these three cookie recipes would be most preferred by consumers. Which component of General Mills’ MIS would Doss use in order to provide him with this information?
marketing research
Which of the following professional organizations is devoted to improving the quality of the marketing research industry and to ensuring the future of the marketing research profession?
MRA (Marketing Research Association)
The marketing research industry has a certification program for marketing researchers, and this certification program is hosted by:
Marketing Research Association.
What did the Marketing Research Association do in 2005 that changed the credentialing of marketing research professionals?
They created the Professional Researcher Certification program.
Who, among the following, is given credit for conducting the first continuous and organized marketing research and is also recognized today as the “Father of Marketing Research
Charles Coolidge Parlin
What was the significance of the years following the Industrial Revolution to the marketing research industry?
Companies were separated from their customers, and there was a need to understand faraway markets
In terms of the evolution of the marketing research industry, what was the significance of the era which ranged from about 1940 to 1960?
Focus groups, statistical analysis, and the computer became part of the marketing researchers’ tool kit, greatly aiding them in their research efforts.
Which of the following best explains the role of marketing research by the 1960s?
Marketing research gained acceptance in organizations and was recognized as being needed for survival.
An annual publication that lists the top 25 global marketing research firms in the world is known as
the Honomichl Global Top 25.
Which of the following reports a list of marketing research firms ranked in terms of revenues from U. S. operations only?
the Honomichl Top 50
The largest marketing research firm in the world is
Nielsen Holdings N.V. Co.
In discussing the structure of the marketing research industry, the authors define an internal supplier firm as one that:
has its marketing research provided by an entity, such as a marketing research department, within the firm.
Owners/proprietors of small firms are more likely to take advantage of:
do-it-yourself research
Which of the following types of marketing research firms would be considered “limited-service” firms?
field services firms
External supplier firms may be either:
full-service or limited-service firms.
Full-service supplier firms:
have the ability to conduct the entire marketing research project.
Firms that collect information, store it on a common database, and make it available to multiple subscribers are called:
syndicated data service firms
Firms that specialize in collecting data are called
field services firms.
A research firm that uses only one technique, such as eye movement research or taste testing, would be called
a limited-service supplier firm.
________ is (are) a key driver for revenues in the marketing research industry.
Corporate profits
Current studies show that the health of the marketing research industry ________ that of the economy in general.
significantly exceeds
Research revenues vary around the world, but ________ has the largest market share
Europe
Which of the following is the fastest growing country, in terms of net growth revenue gains for market researchers from 2009 to 2010?
Austria
As the marketing research industry evolves, traditionalists question whether the challenges posed by ________ threaten to render the industry obsolete.
the explosion of technological tools and providers
The 2007 Confirmit industry survey of firms in several countries reported that the leading challenge facing the marketing research industry was
falling response rates
The issue of ________ continues to be dominant in today’s world of “scraping” websites to gather information.
privacy
Some suggested remedies for some of the problems we see in the marketing research industry are
certification and education.
For more than a decade, ________ has monitored industry trends, publishing an annual report on data provided to the industry in terms of what techniques are being used as well as what drives their use.
Greenbook
Certification of marketing researchers means
those certified have passed some standard(s) of performance.
Marketing researcher certification, PRC, stands for:
Professional Researcher Certification.
Professional organizations try to prescribe ethical behavior for members by creating
codes of ethical behavior
What does sugging refer to?
selling under the guise of a survey
What does frugging refer to
fundraising under the guise of a survey
Which of the issues below best illustrates researchers falsifying data in order to make the findings consistent with predetermined points of view?
lack of research integrity
Requests for researchers to conduct a study among 8 to 12 year olds to understand how to persuade kids to demand more of their products (soft drinks and vending machine food) in schools demonstrates the need to:
make improvements to ethical conduct in the industry.
Which of the following is true regarding what the authors have to say about the percentage of respondents willing to participate in research surveys?
The percentage has been going down.
Deception, especially invasion of privacy, is a serious ethical issue in marketing research and occurs in research studies. Which of the following is an example of deception?
A) Potential respondents are not told the true identity of the sponsor of the research.
B) Potential respondents are viewed during a study without their permission.
C) Potential respondents are told they will remain anonymous when they will not.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
D) all of the above
A common ethical code among major associations is to ensure that respondents understand that they may elect to not participate in a research request. This code falls into the category of:
fair dealings with respondents.
A common ethical code among major associations is to ensure that researchers will not collect information for more than one client at the same time without explicit permission from the clients involved. This code falls into the category of:
fair dealings with clients and subcontractors.
A common ethical code among major associations is to ensure that researchers will not misrepresent the impact of the sampling method and its impact on sample data. This code falls into the category of:
maintaining research integrity.
A common ethical code among major associations is to ensure that research released for public information will contain information to ensure transparency. This code falls into the category of:
concern for society.
The PRC has been quickly adopted by both clients and research professionals.
true
Charles Coolidge Parlin is the current president of the Marketing Research Association and started the PRC certification program
false
During the early days of the history of the United States, artisans and craftsmen were involved in barter exchange and understood their customers wants and needs. There was not much need for marketing research.
true
By the 1960s, marketing research not only had gained acceptance in organizations, but was recognized as important to firms’ survival.
true
The Honomichl Global Top 25 is an annual listing of marketing research firms ordered in terms of revenue generated ONLY in the United States.
false
World revenues for the marketing research industry are about $300 billion annually.
false
The Honomichl Top 50 is an annual report listing the top 50 marketing research firms in terms of revenues earned in the United States.
true
Research suppliers may be thought of as consisting of two groups: internal suppliers and external suppliers.
true
General Mills has a research department that provides for the function of marketing research at the company. This is an example of what we mean by an external supplier firm.
false
Marketing research firms classified as “market segment specialists” and “field services” firms are categorized as being full-service supplier firms.
false
Internal supplier firms organize the research function by using either committees or by assigning individuals the responsibility. They do not have their own departments of marketing research.
false
Very few of the largest firms (sales volumes in excess of $500 million) have their own marketing research departments, but they usually have at least one person responsible for conducting marketing research.
false
The basic function of formal marketing research departments is to provide information to internal decision makers.
true
External supplier firms may be classified into the two categories of full-service and field data service firms.
false
In most cases, internal suppliers of marketing research also purchase research from external suppliers.
true
In the marketing research industry, full-service supplier firms have the ability to define the problem, specify the research design, collect and analyze the data, and prepare the final report as part of their service.
true
Syndicated data services companies provide customized information and services to individual clients
false
Packaged services firms use a proprietary process to conduct a service such as test marketing or measuring customer or employee satisfaction.
true
Customized service firms tailor research services to each client’s specific needs.
true
Many limited-service firms specialize in some form of online research.
true
Examples of “online research services firms” include Toluna, Knowledge Networks, and Mindfield Internet Panels.
true
Field service firms specialize in collecting data and are full-service firms.
false
A firm specializing in developing samples for companies desiring to conduct marketing research would be an example of a limited-service firm.
true
Companies that specialize in services such as eye movement research, mystery shopping, taste tests, fragrance tests, and so on are categorized as limited service, specialized research technique firms.
true
Marketing researchers may be certified, and the certification is called the Professional Researchers Certification (PRC).
true
In evaluations conducted on the performance of the marketing research industry, the conclusions have been consistent in saying that the industry is plagued with so many problems that it has not been able to operate at any level other than “unsatisfactory.”
false
Some critics believe that both marketing and marketing research have lost importance in organizations, and that marketing research no longer represents the “voice of the consumer.”
true
Some critics of the marketing research industry believe that the industry is too “tool” oriented, and often the problem is defined in terms of being compatible with an existing tool. Thus, researchers fail to consider focusing on the more complex strategic issues facing the firm
true
Some critics of the marketing research industry believe that marketing research is done too quickly. Researchers need to slow down to improve the value of the research information they are providing clients.
false
Several industry initiatives are directed at keeping the public informed about the value of research, the appropriateness of research methods, and the ethics the industry uses in collecting research information.
true
Given the many problems facing the marketing research industry, suggestions for improvement have centered around certification and education.
true
PRC, Professional Researcher Certification, is a designation that indicates the achievement of a minimal standard of performance.
false
Once PRC certification is awarded to an individual, there is no requirement that the individual do anything else to maintain his/her certification.
false
While there are many individual classes available for educating members of the marketing research profession, as of 2010, there are no masters programs offering a specialization in marketing research.
false
The marketing research industry offers many educational opportunities for members of the industry. One highly regarded training program is offered through The Burke Institute.
true
Ethics may be defined as a field of inquiry into determining what behaviors are deemed appropriate under certain circumstances as prescribed by codes of behavior that are set by the government.
false
Although they abound in other areas, codes of ethical behavior have yet to be proposed in the marketing research industry.
false
Although sugging is considered unethical, it is not illegal
false
Although frugging is considered unethical, it is not illegal.
true
Most industry codes of ethics are for the purpose of self-regulating professionals’ behavior.
true
One ethical issue that does not affect the marketing research industry is research integrity. Because marketing research objectively gathers and reports information, there is no issue with withholding, altering, or intentionally misinterpreting information.
false
An ethical issue arises in the marketing research industry when researchers are asked to conduct marketing research on topics such as: how to get more teens to smoke and how to develop Saturday a.m. TV ads, directed at children, whose purpose it is to increase sugar consumption.
true
Although ethical issues abound in the conduct of marketing research, there is no evidence that any marketing research firms are being “proactive” and actually helping clients to determine how consumers may evaluate a client’s proposed strategy in terms of ethical standards.
false
Respondent cooperation rates have gone down in the marketing research industry
true
An example of deception in marketing research is to observe shoppers in a supermarket without their permission.
true
While you can go directly into marketing research after college, a graduate degree is highly desirable.
true
In recent years, marketing researchers have come to view themselves as staff members who supply management with information, and information generated by their marketing research “tools.” Marketing researchers, when confronted with a problem, determine which of their “tools” should be applied. This situation was discussed in your text and represents:
a demise in the significance of research, in that the tools are too quickly applied instead of the researchers being involved in making strategy decisions for the firm.
of the following is the first step in the marketing research process?
establishing the need for marketing research
Which of the following would serve as a good decision rule for managers in establishing the need for marketing research?
comparing the value of the marketing research to the cost
Conducting a marketing research study is necessary when
companies require additional information from the market for decision making.
A prescriptive research study:
provides information that allows the manager to best remedy the dissatisfaction.
Jeff is the president of a bank. He wants to find out the satisfaction level of his customers in Dallas on certain dimensions such as friendliness of employees, convenience of location, and availability of loans. Jeff needs to conduct:
descriptive research.
Which of the following is true regarding exploratory research
A) It is highly structured.
B) It is very formal.
C) It describes the phenomena of interest.
D) It attempts to uncover the factors that cause some event.
E) It helps identify research priorities.
It helps identify research priorities.
Which of the following is true regarding causal research?
It attempts to uncover the factors that lead to some event.
Which of the following is true regarding secondary data
It refers to data that has already been collected.
The most popular form of accessing data is
online surveys
Questionnaires are:
data collection forms used when there is direct interaction with respondents.
A ________ describes how each sample element is to be drawn from the total population
sample plan
________ refers to the number of elements of the population that are used to make up the sample
Sample size
________ is the process in which 10% of all respondents in a marketing research study are randomly selected, re-contacted, and asked if they took part in a research study.
Validation
Research objectives
state specifically what information must be produced to solve the problem
A research objective should specify
from whom information is to be gathered.
John has been hired by a company to conduct a research study on the factors that affect the attrition of employees in that company. John wants to prepare research objectives that would be able to represent and include in their scope the true feelings of the employees, for which he interacts with a few random employees. John recognizes the concept of:
frame of reference
If you define a problem incorrectly:
the error cannot be overcome.
Jane is concerned about an error in the problem statement of a research study she has conducted for her company. The error
cannot be corrected
A(n) ________ helps managers recognize failures to meet objectives
control system
The annual sales of a company is below its sales objective. The problem the company is facing is a
failure to meet an objective
A(n) ________ occurs when a gap exists between what did happen and what could have happened
opportunity
Changes in the level of some key monitor that measures the achievement of an objective are called
symptoms
Which of the following is true of symptoms
Symptoms work as signals that alert us to a problem
Dexter learns of a breakthrough in solar panel technology from an online science magazine. Dexter collects as much secondary information as he can on the topic of interest and comes up with some very interesting solar panel application ideas that are presently not in use but can be introduced with the help of the breakthrough technology. Dexter considers hiring a marketing research firm. In the above scenario, Dexter has:
identified an opportunity
When a researcher is called in after the management has defined the problem, the researcher should:
bring in a fresh, unbiased view of the problem statement
Researchers should conduct a situation analysis when
clients seek their help in properly defining the problem.
________ are routinely used in all business when a firm desires supplier firms to present proposals or bids.
RFPs
Experience surveys, case analyses, pilot studies and focus groups are methods of conducting a(n):
situation analysis
A(n) ________ should be made by a firm’s management once the probable cause of a symptom is identified
decision
Once a decision is made regarding the probable cause of a symptom, a firm’s management should specify the
decision alternatives
Once the decision alternatives for a problem are decided upon, a manager must try to determine the:
consequences of the alternatives.
Market research becomes unnecessary when managers are:
certain about the consequences of decision alternatives.
________ helps determine the best decision alternative when the consequences of the decision alternatives are unknown to the researcher
Research on each decision alternative
________ are assertions that certain reactions will take place if certain decision alternatives are implemented.
Assumptions
A researcher assesses an existing information state of a manager to
assess the validity of the manager’s assumptions.
Information gaps are discrepancies between
the current information level and the desired level of information
Which of the following serves as the basis for marketing research objectives
information gaps
________ are statements that are considered true for the purposes of argument or investigation.
Hypotheses
A(n) ________ is an abstract idea inferred from specific instances that are thought to be related
construct
An intention to purchase is an example of a
construct.
The definition of a construct that describes the actions to be carried out in order for the construct to be measured empirically is known as a(n):
operational definition
A(n) ________ is the predesignation of some quantity of a measured characteristic that must be achieved for a research objective in order for a predetermined action to take place.
action standrd
The purpose of an action standard is to define:
what action will be taken given the results of the research findings.
A marketing research proposal contains
the timetable for a research project
Which of the following is a breach of ethics?
using a company’s research proposal for the purpose of competitive bidding
All research projects follow an orderly step-by-step process
false
Company policies dictate whether or not marketing research will be used in decision making.
true
Firms having cash-flow problems should preferably resort to marketing research.
false
Managers should conduct marketing research if the cost of the research is less than the value expected from conducting the research
true
There are three types of research designs: exploratory research, descriptive research, and causal research.
true
Researchers should conduct marketing research only when they do not have the information for decision making.
true
Exploratory research is used when a great deal of information is already known about the problem at hand
false
The type of research study that describes factors such as consumer attitude, consumer behavior, or competitor strategies is referred to as descriptive research
true
Causal research, undertaken to help recognize causes and effects, is usually carried out through experiments.
TRUE
Primary information is the information that has already been collected for some other purpose
false
Secondary information is collected by research companies and made available to clients who again sell the information to secondary markets
false
A carwash franchiser wants to know how car owners in Austin, TX, would respond to a new promotional message she has just created. She would need to collect secondary data.
false
The final research report is often the client’s only record of the research project
true
Problems are situations in which managers have to make choices among alternatives
true
A problem statement gives information that helps a manager choose the correct decision alternative
false
Research objectives should specify the unit of measurement used to gather the required information in a research study
true
If you define a problem incorrectly, the error can be overcome through reconstruction
false
When we have a gap between what did happen and what could have happened, we normally refer to the gap as an opportunity
false
The two main sources of problems are failure to meet an objective and opportunities.
true
Unless managers have a control system, they will not likely identify problems arising from failure to meet objectives
true
A manager increasingly recognizes opportunities when an opportunity identification system is used
true
Symptoms are not the problem but are “signals” that alert us to a problem.
true
A problem may also be a perceived change in the behavior of some market factor that implies an emerging opportunity.
false
Constructs are changes in the level of some key factor that measures the achievement of an objective.
false
When managers have defined what they think the problem is and the decision that must be made to
resolve it, the researcher has an obligation to help managers ensure they are defining the problem correctly.
true
A situation analysis is a form of prescriptive research undertaken to gather background information and data pertinent to the problem area that may be helpful in properly defining the problem decision
false
When ITBs or RFPs are used, there is little dialogue between researchers and managers in terms of defining the problem.
false
RFPs and ITBs are used by companies to get feedback from marketing research firms on their research projects
false
The primary method of conducting a situation analysis is to review both internal and external secondary data
true
When a firm’s management has not defined the problem in terms of a decision to be made, researchers should first undertake a situation analysis
true
If only a partial list of causes is made, it is possible that the real cause will be overlooked, leading ultimately to an incorrect decision.
true
Managers should conduct a marketing research study only if they know the consequence of a decision alternative with certainty
false
Conclusions are assertions that certain conditions exist or that certain reactions will take place if the considered alternatives are implemented.
false
Information state is a discrepancy between the current information level and the desired level of information at which the manager feels comfortable resolving the problem at hand.
false
Brand preference, brand awareness, and brand recall are examples of constructs.
true
Action standards specify what actions are to be taken during the initial stages of the marketing research process
false
The research proposal should be viewed as proprietary information
true
At Momentum Market Intelligence (MMI) a client experiences a 12% decline in market share. Since MMI knows “they don’t know what the problem is,” the research design they should use is
exploratory.
Which of the following is true about research design?
Research design should be selected after thoroughly considering the problem and research objectives
Which of the following is the best description of research design
a set of advance decisions that makes up the master plan specifying the methods and procedures for collecting and analyzing the needed information
Which of the following best describes the significance of research design?
Because research designs may be “matched” to different kinds of problems, the research design may serve as a blueprint for the researcher.
The various types of research design include
exploratory, descriptive, and causal
Which of the following is an objective of research?
A) to gain background information and to develop hypotheses
B) to measure the state of a variable of interest (for example, level of brand loyalty)
C) to test hypotheses that specify the relationships between two or more variables (for example, level of advertising and brand loyalty)
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
D) all of the above
If the research objective is to gain background information, it is likely that the most appropriate research design would be:
exploratory
Which of the following is most true about research designs
A) They follow one another in a step-by-step fashion.
B) It may be that only exploitive research design is appropriate for a given project.
C) Exploitive designs must always follow competitive designs.
D) All designs should include at least some exhaustive research.
E) None of the above is true
None of the above is true
Which of the following is NOT an area of ethical sensitivity in planning research design?
A) recommending a more costly design than is needed
B) designing a study in which data are collected for multiple clients
C) misrepresenting sampling methods
D) over- or under-estimating data collection costs
E) All of the above are areas of ethical sensitivity in planning research design.
E) All of the above are areas of ethical sensitivity in planning research design.
10) Researchers should inform clients as to how the proposed sample plan will result in a representative sample in order to avoid:
A) recommending a more costly design than is needed.
B) designing a study in which data are collected for multiple clients.
C) misrepresenting sampling methods.
D) A and C only.
E) All of the above will be prevented by sharing this information with the client.
A and C only
A researcher presenting secondary data as if it were primary data collected by the researcher is an egregious example of an ethical lapse in what area of sensitivity in planning research design?
recommending a more costly design than is needed
What type of research is unstructured and informal
exploratory
Ray Kroc, a milk shake machine salesman, noticed that one restaurant in California burned up many milk shake machines. He inferred that the restaurant was meeting the needs of the market better than other restaurants. His observation illustrates the use of:
exploratory research
In which of the following situations should exploratory research be used
to define terms
Which of the following is NOT a situation in which exploratory research should be used?
to measure the relationships among variables
Appropriate methods for conducting exploratory research would include
secondary data analysis
The process of searching for and interpreting EXISTING information relevant to the research problem can be described as:
secondary data analysis.
Experience surveys are used in which of the following ways
to gather information from persons thought to be knowledgeable on the issues relevant to the research problem
Which of the following is a type of exploratory research that refers to a review of available information about a former situation that has some similarities to the present research problem?
case analysis
Small groups of people brought together and guided by a moderator through an unstructured, spontaneous discussion for the purpose of gaining information relevant to the research problem can be categorized under which type of research design?
exploratory research
What type of research design does the text state should almost always be used in research studies?
exploratory research
What type of research design should a marketing researcher use to find out how many customers there are, what brands they buy and in what quantities, which advertisements they recall, what are their attitudes toward the company, and who is the competition?
descriptive research
Descriptive research studies are conducted to
answer who, what, when, where, and how questions.
What are the two basic types of studies that are categorized as descriptive research?
longitudinal studies and cross-sectional studies
What type of descriptive research study measures a population at only one point in time?
cross-sectional studies
Longitudinal studies can be described as techniques that
repeatedly measure the same sample units from the population over a period of time.
A panel of respondents is often used in which type of study?
longitudinal
Knowledge Networks provides clients with access to a representative group of Latino households who have agreed to answer research questions sent to them by the research service. Knowledge Networks is performing a(n) ________ research study.
panel
What type of panel asks the panel members the same questions on each panel measurement
continuous panel
Of the following situations, which would be the most appropriate for using a discontinuous panel?
to determine how consumers feel about two different product concepts by varying panel questions from one panel measurement to the next
What type of panel should be used in brand-switching studies?
continuous panel
What is the purpose of a market-tracking study?
to measure some variable of interest, such as market share or unit sales over time
What type of research design should a researcher use if he or she wishes to determine the effect of a change in price on the sales of a particular brand?
casual
In an experiment, over which type of variable does a researcher have control and wish to manipulate?
independent variable
When a variable exerts influence on the dependent variable but is not an independent variable, we refer to it as a(n):
extraneous variable.
An experiment is defined as:
manipulating an independent variable to see how it affects a dependent variable, while also controlling for the effects of additional extraneous variables.
An experimental design is a procedure for ensuring that:
the change in the dependent variable may be solely attributed to the change in the independent variable
Which of the following symbols represents the measurement of the complex variable in an experimental design?
E) none of the above answers is correct as there is no such thing as a “complex” variable
Which of the following experimental design symbols represents the measurement of the dependent variable?
A) D
B) X
C) O
D) C
E) I
O
Which of the following experimental design symbols represents the change or manipulation of the independent variable?
A) I
B) X
C) D
D) C
E) M
X
Which of the following research designs would be considered a quasi-experimental design as discussed in the textbook?
after-only design
42) Which of the following designs represents the before-after with control group design?
A) X – O – C
B) E = I X O
C) E = O X O
D) X = E + X + O
E) none of the above
E) none of the above
In experimental designs an R stands for:
B) random assignment of research subjects (e.g., stores) to groups (experimental and control).
How can it be determined if an experiment is valid?
A) The observed change in the dependent variable is in fact due to the independent variable.
B) The results of the experiment apply to the real world outside the experimental setting.
C) The results do not account for the effects of extraneous variables.
D) The results are reported in well-known news media.
E) A and B are correct.
.
E) A and B are correct.
Internal validity is concerned with which of the following?
the extent to which the change in the dependent variable was actually due to the independent variable
What type of experimental validity is concerned with the extent that the relationship observed between the independent and dependent variable during the experiment is generalizable to the real world
external validity
What type of experiment involves manipulating the independent variable and measuring the dependent variable in an artificial setting contrived to control extraneous variables?
laboratory experiments
When are laboratory experiments desirable?
when the intent of the experiment is to achieve high levels of internal validity
What type of experiment involves manipulating the independent variable and measuring the dependent variable in a natural setting?
field experiments
Which of the following is a potential use of test marketing?
A) to test the sales potential for a new product
B) to test variations in the marketing mix for a product
C) to test the sales potential for a new service
D) to test variations in the marketing mix for a service
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
What type of test marketing should be used when a firm wants to test the product and/or marketing mix variables through the company’s normal distribution channels?
standard test markets
What type of test markets are conducted by outside research firms who guarantee distribution of the product through prespecified types and numbers of distributors?
controlled test markets
Of the following, which is a potential disadvantage of using a simulated test market?
It is not as accurate as full-scale test markets.
Which of the following best represents the criteria discussed by the authors to be used in selection of a test market city?
representativeness, isolation, and control of distribution and promotion
Which of the following best represents the disadvantages of conducting test markets as discussed by the authors?
infallibility of results, cost, and exposure of product/service to competition and ethical issues
Marketing research projects vary widely; some are taste tests in “kitchen-like” labs while others may be confined to library research.
TRUE
Research design is confined to predetermining how data are to be analyzed. It is primarily the responsibility of statisticians.
false
Knowledge of research design is helpful because certain designs can be matched with certain problems and this provides a blueprint for the researcher.
true
The choice of a research design depends largely upon the research objectives.
true
Four types of research design are exploratory, exploitive, descriptive, and longitudinal.
false
Research designs should always be carried out, one after another, in the following order: exploitive, descriptive, and longitudinal.
false
It is an acceptable practice in research design to save on data collection costs by collecting data for multiple clients at the same time.
false
Descriptive research is often carried out at the outset of research projects.
false
Exploratory research is best utilized when little is known about the problem
true
Descriptive or causal research are best used to help gain background information about the problem.
false
Exploratory research can be used to help define terms such as “satisfaction with service.”
true
Causal research is best utilized to define terms
false
Exploratory research is useful in clarifying hypotheses.
true
One method of conducting exploratory research is through secondary data analysis
true
Experience surveys are carried out in order to assess the experience levels of several marketing research firms in order to select the most appropriate firm to conduct the project
false
Focus groups are small groups of people brought together and guided by a moderator through an unstructured, spontaneous discussion for the purpose of gaining information relevant to the research problem
false
Descriptive research consists of exploratory research, primary research, and secondary research.
false
Because descriptive research asks who, what, where, when, and how, it also provides conclusive answers to why.
false
Sample surveys are descriptive, cross-sectional studies
true
Dirt Devil conducted a one-time survey of consumers and asked them about their attitudes, preferences, and intentions regarding buying vacuum cleaners. This is an example of a cross-sectional study.
true
Longitudinal studies are called such because they are very long, complex surveys. They have large sample sizes and require several months to complete the data analysis
false
Several online research firms, such as Knowledge Networks and Nielsen, use panels as a means of conducting research.
true
Discontinuous panels provide data that may be used for brand-switching studies
false
Discontinuous panels are sometimes called omnibus panels
true
The advantage of discontinuous panels is that they represent a large group — people, stores, or other entity making up the panel — that is agreeable to providing information.
true
In the example of brand-switching data provided in the textbook (Famous Amos cookies), cross-sectional study analysis provided a less valid conclusion than did the longitudinal data analysis.
true
Market-tracking studies track a variable of interest, such as market share over time, and represent a use of cross-sectional studies
false
An experiment is defined as manipulating a dependent variable to see how it affects an independent variable while controlling for the effects of a complex variable.
false
Independent variables are those which the experimenter has some control; in other words, independent variables may be manipulated by the experimenter
true
Dependent variables are those over which the experimenter has total, direct control; they may be easily manipulated by experimenters
false
Complex variables are those that have some effect upon the dependent variable, but are not independent variables.
false
Experimental designs provide procedures for devising an experimental setting, such that a change in a dependent variable may be attributed solely to the change in the independent variable.
true
Experimental designs provide procedures for devising an experimental setting, such that a change in an independent variable may be attributed solely to the change in the dependent variable while controlling for the effects of complex variables
false
In experimental design nomenclature, an X represents the measurement of the dependent variable
false
In experimental design nomenclature, an O represents the measurement of the dependent variable.
true
In experimental design nomenclature, an E represents the experimental effect: that is, the change in the dependent variable occurring due to a change in the independent variable.
true
A pretest refers to measuring the dependent variable prior to changing the independent variable
true
Designs that do not control for the effects of extraneous variables are known as quasi-experimental designs
true
The dependent variable is always manipulated in the experimental group but never in the control group.
false
The before-after with control group design is a quasi-experimental design
false
The reason for using randomization or matching in experimental designs is to achieve equivalency between experimental and control groups
true
Internal validity, carried out through field experiments, measures the extent to which the relationship between independent, dependent, and complex variables holds up in the real world
false
True experimental designs do not have to resort to relying on experimental and control groups
false
If an experiment did not have a representative sample, this would be considered a threat to the experiment’s external validity.
true
If an experiment did not have equivalent experimental and control groups, this would be considered a threat to the experiment’s external validity.
false
The primary advantage of laboratory experiments is that they allow the researcher to control the effects of extraneous variables
true
Although laboratory experiments allow for the control of extraneous variables, they cost more and take more time than do field experiments.
true
The primary advantage of field experiments is that they are conducted in non-naturalistic settings, which allow for tightly controlling extraneous variables.
false
Test marketing is the phrase commonly used to indicate an experiment, study, or test that is conducted in a field setting
true
There is only one use of test markets: to determine the sales potential for a new product or service
false
Electronic test markets require consumers, who are members of a panel, to carry identification cards
true
Simulated test markets are conducted on computers without any consumer input
false
Because all products eventually end up in the consumer market, there is no such thing as industrial test markets
false
A city that is geographically isolated may be considered a good test market city
true
Test markets do not yield infallible results. Sometimes test markets lead to the wrong decision.
true
A firm selects a test market city that it believes will produce very favorable results because it knows the media will publicize the “success” of the new test product. This may be considered stupid, but it would not be considered unethical
false
Dirt Devil vacuum cleaning company is interested in knowing if a proposed advertising message will be effective in generating interest in purchasing their portable vacuum cleaner. They contact marketing research firm, InsightExpress®, which has a service that tests proposed ad copy with consumers they have recruited to participate. Copies of the ad are prepared and are shown to several hundred consumers online. Consumers evaluate the ad, and the results are given to Dirt Devil. This is an example of which of the following?
cross-sectional research
Your university decides it will create a panel of consumers in your local area. The purpose of the panel is to report the local population’s attitudes, preferences, and intentions on a variety of local issues. In the first administration of the panel, the questions asked for voter preferences for an upcoming local election. In the second administration, questions submitted to the panel asked for their attitudes about the quality of the drinking water and air in your area. Which type of panel has your university created?
discontinuous panel
Which type of data refers to information that is developed or gathered by the researcher specifically for the research project at hand
Primary data
When it is determined that the research project will require primary data, secondary data should
be consulted anyway
Which type of data refers to data that have been gathered by someone other than the researcher and/or for some other purpose than the research project at hand?
Secondary data
Which of the following represents an application of secondary data
A) predicting broad changes in culture
B) selecting a street location for a new car wash
C) economic-trends forecasting
D) corporate intelligence
E) All the answers
E) All the answers
The most significant demographic group for decades has been the baby-boomer population, defined as
those born between the years 1946 and 1964.
Which of the following would be classified as a part of internal secondary data
internal database
Which of the following best represents a field within a database?
Customer names within a record
Which of the following best describes CRM?
Customer Relationship Management; the use of internal databases to strengthen customer relationships
Which of the following secondary data sources represents an ethical issue in terms of customer privacy issues?
internal database
Micromarketing is possible due to
Data mining and databases
External secondary data may be grouped into which three sources
published, syndicated services data, and databases
________ services offer a wide variety of indexes, directories, and statistical and full-text files, all searched by the same search logic.
Aggregator
Which of the following was NOT discussed in the text as an advantage of using secondary data?
may be obtained in any form desired by the researcher
Which of the following was NOT discussed in the text as a disadvantage of using secondary data?
data may be collected too quickly, causing problems with the project schedule
Which of the following reporting units contain BOTH Metropolitan SAs and Micropolitan SAs
Core Based Statistical Areas
Metropolitan SAs can best be described as:
statistical reporting units with at least one urbanized area populated by 50,000 or more.
Micropolitan SAs can best be described as
statistical reporting units with at least one urban cluster populated by more than 10,000 but less than 50,000, plus adjacent territory that has a high degree of social and economic integration.
A boat manufacturer wishes to use secondary data to locate cities that may offer good market potential for its yachts. It needs cities with average incomes exceeding $75,000. However, the secondary information source found the income category of $50,000 and over. This represents:
differing class definitions of the data
Which of the following was NOT discussed as a method of evaluating secondary data?
How readily available is the information to the public?
A study is released that shows that a majority of Americans want to keep the penny in circulation. It is learned that the study was conducted by the zinc industry (most pennies are made with zinc). This illustrates:
there are ethical issues in secondary data; some secondary data are not objective.
When two or more secondary sources provide conflicting information, you should:
evaluate the information from each source and select the source that best suits your needs for reliable and valid information
Which of the following secondary information sources provides a baseline of data every 10 years?
census of the population
Online information about the U.S. Census may be found at:
www.census.gov
________ is the tool used for searching data collected by the ACS.
American Factfinder
Which of the following will now provide current data about communities every year instead of once every 10 years?
The American Community Survey
A form of external, secondary data that is collected in a standard format and made available to subscribers is
syndicated data.
Q Scores measures the appeal of different performers such as actors/actresses, announcers, sports celebrities, and so on. The ratings of different performers are made available to all subscribers, so a client firm may be in a better position to select a company spokesperson for their company. Q Scores is an example of
syndicated data
Packaged services differ from syndicated data services. In the former, each client is provided with:
the same service as a result of a common process
The Nielsen TV ratings would be considered an example of:
syndicated data services firms.
A company offering a predetermined marketing research process to generate information to measure customer satisfaction would be an example of a(n):
packaged services firm.
Esri’s Tapestry Segmentation system, which profiles neighborhoods according to each client’s customer demographics, is an example of a(n):
packaged service
Which of the following is NOT the type of marketing decision for which packaged information is typically applied?
A) measuring consumer attitudes and opinions
B) market segmentation
C) monitoring media usage and promotion effectiveness
D) market tracking studies
E) All of the above are applications of packaged information.
E) All of the above are applications of packaged information.
Which item below is NOT a key advantage of syndicated data?
A) the currency of the information
B) the client has absolute control over which data are to be collected
C) the shared costs
D) high quality of the data
E) data are quickly disseminated to users
the client has absolute control over which data are to be collected
The key advantage of using a packaged services firm is:
taking advantage of the experience of the research team offering the service.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of packaged services?
The company providing the standardized service may not know the idiosyncrasies of the buyer firm’s industry.
Which of the following is an area to which packaged information may be effectively applied?
A) measuring consumer attitudes and opinion polls
B) defining market segments
C) conducting market tracking
D) monitoring media usage and promotion effectiveness
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
The primary benefit of geodemography is that:
demographic information is available on arbitrarily (i.e., area relevant to the application) defined geographical areas.
Packaged information services collect market tracking data at the household level by using
panels of consumers who may use scanning devices, diaries, and home audits.
Consumers create a great deal of information through blogs, discussion boards, forums, user groups and the like. This information is valuable to companies and would be called:
consumer generated media.
Nielsen’s service that is designed to gather and report WOM or online “buzz” about companies and their products and services is known as:
BuzzMetrics
Marketing researchers must evaluate secondary information to determine if it is reliable. This involves investigating all of the following, EXCEPT:
the timing of the study.
Which of the following standardized information services firms is developing a device that will automatically record media (radio, TV, or web pages) to which a person is exposed?
Arbitron
________ is a term which refers to online consumer word of mouth.
Buzz
________ is an umbrella term which refers to the online posting of consumer opinions, comments, and personal experiences.
Consumer-generated media (CGM)
It is never prudent to search secondary data until you have fully consulted the primary data you have collected
False
Secondary data refers to information that is developed or gathered by the researcher specifically for the research project at hand.
Flase
There are so many uses of secondary data that it is rare for a marketing research project to be conducted without including some of this information. In fact, some projects may be based exclusively on secondary data.
True
A wealth of secondary data is available concerning the lifestyles and purchasing habits of demographic groups. Since the people in demographic groups tend to make similar purchases and have similar attitudes, this secondary data is heavily scrutinized by marketers.
True
Internal secondary data refers to any information that is stored in the internal memory of a computer.
False
A database refers to a collection of data and information describing items of interest. Each unit of information in a database is called a record.
True
CRM stands for Custom Reporting Methods and refers to a standardized process used by secondary data firms to report data.
False
External secondary data was classified in the textbook into three sources: published, nonpublished, and video
False
Data mining is the name for software that is now available to help managers make sense out of seemingly senseless masses of information contained in databases
True
Syndicated sources of secondary data cover a variety of general topics of interest to the public and are widely available in libraries
False
Aggregator, or data bank, services offer a wide variety of indexes, directories, and statistical and full-text files, but they are all compiled using the same search logic.
True
The textbook highlighted Target’s successful micromarketing practices by explaining how the company increased sales of products used by new mothers and babies.
True
One of the advantages of using secondary data is that it is usually available free of charge.
False
An example of a disadvantage of secondary data not being reported in measurement units that match the researchers needs would be: income being reported before tax, household income instead of per capita, and after-tax income.
True
Procter & Gamble, owning the major market share for disposable diapers, published a research report showing that cloth diapers were as harmful to the environment as disposable diapers. This example illustrates why it is important to evaluate all secondary research and fully understand the true purpose of the research.
True
If two secondary sources of information report different information for what appears to be the same entity, a researcher should avoid using either information source at all costs.
False
Core-based statistical areas (CBSAs) are economic reporting units used by the Census Bureau.
False
The American Community Survey (ACS) may represent the most significant change in the availability of secondary data to be used for marketing research purposes in several decades.
True
A great deal of “census” information is actually based upon statistical sampling
True
Packaged information is a type of secondary data in which the data collected and/or the process of collecting the data are prepackaged for all users.
True
Unlike syndicated data, the data from a packaged service will differ for each client
True
Because firms subscribing to syndicated data share the costs of data collection and dissemination, the information comes to them at a lower cost than if they collected it themselves.
True
Firms subscribing to syndicated data have substantial control over what information is collected and the format of the information (i.e., class definitions).
False
Packaged services firms are marketing a process more than anything else. Examples include standardized methods of measuring customer satisfaction or providing a system for segmenting the market.
True
A key advantage of a packaged service is the shared costs among many firms of the data that are collected
False
Tracking consumer attitudes and opinions is not the kind of information that is available from standardized information firms
False
Although useful information, geodemographic information is limited in that one must use only pre-defined geographical boundaries such as cities, counties, or state definitions.
False
A researcher’s use of secondary data often depends on whether the reporting unit matches the researcher’s need
True
Caution is especially in order with Internet sources because few quality standards are applied to most Internet sites.
True
Tracking studies gather data from retail stores by using either scanner data or by conducting retail-store audits
True
Whereas market tracking studies are done at the retail store level by either scanning data or auditing, there is no market tracking conducted within households.
False
One method of collecting marketing tracking data at the household level is by providing panel members with wands or scanners that they use to scan the UPC codes on the products they purchase.
True
Some methods used to gather marketing tracking data collected at the household level are by providing panel members with wands or scanners that they use to scan the UPC codes on the products they purchase, by asking them to keep diaries of their purchases, and by having auditors conduct audits in the consumers’ household.
True
The SKOPOS service RepliKator™ measures consumer reaction to radio messages.
False
Because of increasing mobile connectivity, eWOM (or “buzz”) has experienced an extremely fast growth
rate around the world in the last few years.
True
One advantage of the Gallup Poll is that the company has been tracking the same attitudes and opinions over many years, and business executives can track how these attitudes, such as attitudes toward private brands, are changing.
True
Walt Lewis was interested in knowing how best to allocate territories in Texas to the new, 10-member sales force he hired. While the sales force was undergoing training, Walt sought some secondary data that would help him allocate sets of counties to the salespersons. He knew he had to be equitable and felt strongly that each set of counties should have a market potential about equal to all the other sets. He needed some quantifiable measure of the market potential for each county, and he didn’t want to use any Census data because he felt like this was outdated. Which of the following sources of secondary data would you recommend that Walt use?
Consult the most recent American Community Survey (ACS) in the geographic region.
Clay Holladay owns a chain of radio stations. The advertising time he sells to advertisers is directly related to the number of persons who are listening to each station in each radio market. Clay purchases estimates of the number of persons who listen to the different radio stations in each market from Arbitron, a marketing research firm. In every radio market Arbitron gathers the same data; the number of persons listening to every program on each station as well as their age and gender. Arbitron records this information in a database and they offer it to every person who wishes to subscribe to it for a fee. Arbitron is an example of a:
syndicated data services firm
Tapestry Segmentation, an Esri service described in the text, applies a process of segmentation that identifies neighborhoods by major demographic and consumption patterns and then determines which of these neighborhood “segment types” represents the client’s potential customers. Which of the following best illustrates how this service was explained in your text?
The owner of a Nature’s Beauty retail store has a loyalty club of 400 members who purchase regularly, and she wants to attract other prospective customers who match the club member demographic and lifestyle profile. By determining the distinguishing characteristics of the club members, the owner can identify the Tapestry Segmentation segments, i.e. “Metropolitans,” “Metro Renters,” etc. which will allow the owner to locate and establish communications with members of these segments.
What type of research involves collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data by obtaining free form, nonstandardized, or open-ended observations and statements of what people do and say.
qualitative methods
Which of the following is a unique aspect of qualitative research
provides rich insights into consumer behavior
Which type of research involves the use of structured questions where the response options have been predetermined and a large number of respondents are involved?
quantitative research
Which type of research would likely be called “soft” research
qualitative research
Which type of research would be most appropriate if the managers of the Tide brand at Procter & Gamble wanted some ideas as to different ways Tide laundry detergent could be improved
qualitative research
In understanding the Hispanic market, researchers have found that they prefer to call themselves Latinos, and that there are vast differences between Latinos in California, Texas and Florida, the Caribbean, South America and Mexico. Your book describes this understanding of a market segment as stemming from which type of research
Qualitative
Which type of research may begin with exploratory research and then go on to conduct a full-scale, representative survey
Pluralistic
Frito-Lay brand managers want to know which of three proposed end-aisle displays work the best in terms of catching consumers’ attention. They set up prototypes of the three displays in three supermarkets and visit each to observe consumers’ head movements as they approach each display. Which observation technique would the managers be using?
direct
Which of the following observation techniques involves observing historical records, such as records of sales calls or warehouse movements
Archives
With which type of observation technique do researchers observe tangible evidence of some event, such as measuring the amount of graffiti on buildings to indicate the potential crime in an area?
physical traces
When a “secret shopper” is used to report salespersons’ level of customer assistance and courtesy, which type of observation is being used?
Covert
An observation technique where the researcher identifies beforehand which behaviors are to be observed and recorded is known as
structured observation
What type of observation method is used when human observation may be less accurate, too costly, or faulty
Mechanical obsevation
Which of the following was NOT discussed in the textbook as an appropriate condition for the use of an observation study
The behavior must be amenable to physiological measurement
Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the textbook as an advantage of observational data
A) Subjects react in a natural manner.
B) It is the only way to gather certain information (i.e. from children).
C) Recall error is maximized.
D) Sometimes observational data may be obtained at less cost.
E) Sometimes observational data may be more accurate.
Recall error is maximized
Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the textbook as a limitation of observational data?
A) Typically, only a small number of subjects are studied.
B) Recall error is maximized.
C) Subjective interpretation of results is required on the part of the researcher.
D) Underlying motives are left unexamined.
E) Underlying attitudes are left unexamined.
Recall error is maximized.
Which of the following refers to a small group of people brought together and guided by a moderator through an unstructured, spontaneous discussion about some topic
Focus Groups
Which of the following is a characteristic of a nontraditional focus group?
A) meet in a dedicated room
B) use a one-way mirror for client viewing
C) meet for about 2 hours
D) have 6-12 persons
E) may have 25 or even 50 respondents
meet in a dedicated room
What is the recommended size of a “traditional” focus group
6 to 12
Focus group participants are often interviewed by moderators, referred to as
Qualitative Research Consultants
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of online focus groups over traditional focus groups
A) No physical set up is necessary.
B) Participants from anywhere in the world can participate.
C) Participants are comfortable in their homes/offices.
D) The moderator can exchange private messages with participants.
E) Participants’ “body language” may be observed
E) Participants’ “body language” may be observed
22) Which one of the following was NOT mentioned in the textbook as an advantage of focus groups?
A) They generate fresh ideas.
B) Hidden cameras record hidden motives.
C) They allow clients to observe the group.
D) They are generally versatile in that they can handle an unlimited number of topics.
E) They allow access to special respondent groups such as lawyers or doctors.
B) Hidden cameras record hidden motives.
One of the disadvantages of focus groups is that
results must be subjectively interpreted
Which one of the following is NOT an objective of focus groups?
A) generate ideas
B) understand consumer vocabulary
C) reveal consumer needs
D) determine quantities of proposed new products/services that will be sold in a given market
E) reveal consumer attitudes
D) determine quantities of proposed new products/services that will be sold in a given market
Focus groups should NOT be used when:
there is a need to predict the sales volume for a new product in a market territory
Which one of the following best represents the desired composition of a focus group
homogeneous participants
Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the textbook as a method focus group companies use to reduce “no shows”?
A) monetary incentives
B) free products or gift certificates
C) overrecruiting
D) making callbacks on the day preceding the focus group to remind the participant
E) using direct mail lists
Using direct mail list
Often, a critical requirement for a focus group meeting place is
round-table format allowing participants to see one another
Which of the following best represents the future of focus groups
Because of their many advantages and the unique abilities added by online focus groups, the popularity of focus groups is increasing and they are being used on a worldwide basis.
Which of the following qualitative techniques is characterized as a set of probing questions posed one-on-one to a subject by an interviewer so as to gain an idea of what the subject thinks about something or why he or she behaves in a certain way?
in-depth interview
In which technique below are consumers’ values determined, followed by determining which product or service attributes would be viewed as a means of achieving a desired value? For example, it is determined that “good health” is highly valued and “soy products replacing beef” is viewed as a means of achieving “good health.”
laddering
The Acme Research firm decides to use a technique that requires a person to place herself in a decision-making setting and to verbalize everything she considers in making the decision. Which qualitative technique will she be using
protocol analysis
Which situations are particularly relevant for the use of protocol analysis
purchases involving a long time frame and several decision factors
Which type of qualitative research is most useful when it is thought that most respondents will be hesitant to relate their true opinions
projective technique
A researcher for Lipton tea is interested in learning how teenagers think of iced tea, and she gives a sample of teens the following incomplete sentence: “Teens who drink tea instead of cola are…” and asks them to finish the sentence. This is an example of a(n):
sentence completion test.
Borrowed from anthropology, which type of research listed requires marketing researchers to directly observe, interview, and audio and video record consumers over time
ethnographic research
Which of the following qualitative techniques involves determining the amount of attention or interest by measuring the dilation of the pupil in the eye
pupilometer
A device that determines the level of excitement by measuring the electrical activity in the respondent’s skin is known as
a galvanometer
Though they are often used, focus groups are NOT considered qualitative research
False
Quantitative techniques deal with the “soft side” of marketing research
False
Quantitative techniques often use structured questions having predetermined response options and are sometimes referred to as “survey research.”
True
Conducting a nationwide telephone survey of several thousand persons using a representative sampling plan would be an example of quantitative research
True
A combination of qualitative and quantitative research is referred to as pluralistic research
True
Pluralistic research is losing favor in the field of marketing research because of its extensive and exclusive use of “soft” research methods
False
Photo-elicitation is a qualitative research technique demonstrated to understand the nuances of global markets.
True
Observation techniques allow researchers to observe rather than communicate with a person to obtain information.
True
Observing the trashcans of consumers to find out the extent of recycling would be an example of using an archive source of information.
False
Using a device attached to a family’s TV or recording a sales presentation in a laboratory are examples of overt observation techniques.
True
Using a “secret shopper” to record and report how sales clerks assisted customers would be an example of covert observation.
True
Nissan allegedly placed a Japanese observer in a couple’s home, and the couple thought he was there as part of an educational exchange program. Rather, he was observing the couple’s automobile buying behavior for Nissan. This example illustrates that there are ethical issues associated with observation studies
True
A researcher is to observe supermarket meat-shopping behavior. She has carefully laid out an observation form that contains a list of all possible relevant behaviors. This is an example of structured observation
True
Machines that count automobiles passing by are likely to be more accurate than humans counting the autos. This “traffic counting” machine would be an example of mechanical observation.
True
“Faulty recall” occurs when actions or activities are so repetitive or automatic that the respondent cannot recall specifics about the behavior under question. It is a reason for not using an observation technique.
False
One advantage of observation studies is that the subjects are not aware that they are being studied and therefore act in a natural manner
True
One of the advantages of observational studies is that large numbers of persons may be observed; therefore, representativeness is increased.
False
Observation studies have the advantage of allowing observation of consumers’ motives, attitudes, and intentions
False
Focus groups consist of dividing large groups (classes of college students, church groups, and so on) into several smaller groups. This allows each subgroup to focus on a separate issue such as price of the product, packaging of the product, usefulness of the product, and so on. Combining all the subgroup reports together affords clients greater “focus” on their products and services.
False
Traditional focus groups have 6 to 12 participants and are conducted in a dedicated room with a one-way mirror for client viewing
True
Rooms designed especially for focus groups are referred to as focus group facilities.
True
Focus group moderators are sometimes called qualitative research consultants.
True
Focus group reports must translate the qualitative statements of participants into categories and then report the degree of consensus apparent in the focus groups
True
There is only one form of online focus group; focus group members meet in a focus group facility and the focus group is communicated via the Internet to clients who may be in remote locations.
False
One of the disadvantages of focus groups is that they do not constitute representative samples of larger populations.
True
Focus groups should be used when something must be predicted or forecast with precision.
False
Focus groups should be composed of persons who are similar in terms of demographics and other relevant variables.
True
A preferred seating arrangement in a focus group should allow each participant to see the leader of the focus group but not one another.
False
Moderators of focus groups need not be hired until the focus groups are actually ready to begin.
False
An in-depth interview has the advantages of allowing the interviewer to probe by asking many additional questions. This leads to rich, sometimes revealing responses
True
In-depth interviews are especially useful when the researcher wants to understand decision making at the individual level and the respondent is not influenced by others, as they may be in a focus group.
True
Laddering is a technique used with in-depth interviews which attempts to determine which product attributes are linked to values held by consumers.
True
Protocol analysis involves placing people in decision-making situations and asking them to verbalize everything they consider when making a decision
False
When the decision process is very short and recall may be faulty, protocol analysis may be useful to slow down the process.
False
Protocol analysis is NOT useful when the buying takes place over a long period of time, such as buying a house.
False
McDonald’s conducts a study and finds that there is an increase in the number of consumers who value “healthy foods.” These consumers link soy-based meat products with a healthy diet. McDonald’s decides to reintroduce the McLean burger. This example illustrates the use of a qualitative research technique known as laddering.
True
One way to get consumers to bypass their rational controls and strike up a meaningful dialogue in focus groups is through the use of projective techniques such as “Sort Me Up” or “Sort Me Straight.”
True
The sentence completion test is one in which respondents are given incomplete sentences and then asked to complete them in their own words.
True
The picture test, a projective technique, is carried out by asking respondents to fill in “balloons” drawn above the heads of the actors
Flase
In role playing, participants are asked to pretend they are a “third person,” such as a friend or neighbor, and describe how the third person would react in a certain situation.
True
In ethnographic research, marketing researchers act exactly as anthropologists, in that they enter into an “immersion” state with consumers and observe their behavior by living with them.
False
Marketing researchers walking with seniors in their walking groups and listening to them discuss their hopes, fears, worries, health, family and friends would be an example of an application of ethnographic research.
True
One of the disadvantages of physiological measurements is that even when the respondent reacts to a stimulus we can’t tell if the response is positive or negative
True
Physiological measurements are NOT useful when the subject matter is something sensitive and may embarrass persons to the point that they cannot articulate a truthful response.
False
A study was conducted of online buyers to determine purchasing differences among buyer segments such as males and females. The research began with a series of focus groups followed by in-depth interviews. Finally, an online survey was conducted of several thousand online buyers. If you had to classify this research, which of the following would be most appropriate?
Pluralistic
The tax revenue department of a small town located in a dry county decides to sift through collected garbage in the town to assess the amount of alcohol consumed. This is an example of:
Physical Traces
Nissan Motor Corporation sent a Japanese researcher to stay at the home of a California couple as part of a student exchange program. However, the researcher was really spying on the couple to better understand automobile buying behavior. This illustrates that:
observation raises ethical questions.
Sue Miller, brand manager for Zippo Cat Foods, wanted to gather some information from cat food buyers. She arranged to conduct several focus groups, each conducted online with as many as 25 to 50 participants. She also wanted to interact with the focus group participants. Sue would be using which type of focus group?
Nontraditional
Earl Chestnut and Ann Arnold were considering conducting a focus group for their company’s cookie brand, Oats N’ Raisins. Their objective was to understand when and under what circumstances cookies are offered as a snack in households. Earl wanted to recruit 25 people representing the different groups of employers in the city, that is, a medical researcher, a longshoreman, a truck driver, someone from the legal community, and so on. Ann felt it would be better to have a more homogeneous group such as housewives with kids still in school. Which of the following should be chosen?
Ann’s homogeneous group
Jamie Sims developed a female public urinal that has the advantage of allowing women to use the restroom much faster. Jamie knows that waiting lines for women’s rooms often are present in large, heavily used public facilities such as busy airports or spectator events. She has perfected her urinal and a major plumbing manufacturer is interested in producing and distributing the device. However, the manufacturer wants Jamie to provide some research evidence indicating how receptive women are to using the device. Jamie is concerned about how to conduct the research since the topic is socially sensitive. Given this situation, Jamie should use:
qualitative, projective technique research.
Jerri Allen has trained for several months to conduct focus groups. She has just completed her first focus group as the moderator. Which factor should Jerri remember when reporting and using focus group results?
Qualitative statements must be categorized, and assessments must be made as to the representativeness of the focus group participants.
Billy Neighbors decides to use a qualitative research technique called laddering. Which of the following would best describe how laddering could be used by Billy’s Pork processing company?
determining values important to consumers (i.e., good health); the routes consumers take to achieve those values (i.e., exercise, eating good foods, rest); and which specific product attributes (i.e., eat white meats) are used as a means of achieving the end desired value (i.e., good health)
Wisconsin Research Associates is asked to help name a new product that is a new type of nonfat cheese. Several names are suggested: SkinnyCheese, CheeseSmart, LoFaCheez, and SansCholes. What would be the most appropriate qualitative technique to determine the meanings of these names to customers?
word association test
) Surveys involve interviews with a large number of respondents using a predesigned questionnaire.
T
One of the advantages of surveys is that they can tap the “unseen” — motives, interests, attitudes, and intentions
T
Surveys allow for large samples, which are suitable for tabulation and statistical analysis.
T
The three major ways to collect data are: have a person ask the questions, have a computer assist or conduct the questioning, or allow the respondents themselves to complete the survey.
T
One of the advantages of the person-administered survey is that the interviewer is able to respond to questions asked by respondents.
T
One of the disadvantages of computer-administered surveys is that they cannot depict pictures, video, or other graphics to the respondent.
F
Real-time capture of data is available only through the use of in-home interviewing, provided the researcher has a modem and may transmit the survey results to a computer shortly after the interview.
F
Interview evaluation refers to the fact that some people become anxious about the possible reactions the interviewer may have to their answers to survey questions.
T
Surveys conducted without the presence of an agent — human or computer — are referred to as self-administered surveys
T
Whereas self-administered surveys are faster than personal or computer-assisted surveys, they have the highest cost.
F
Self-administered surveys eliminate interview evaluation apprehension.
T
Self-administered surveys place a very high premium on proper questionnaire design
T
Mixed-mode surveys are also referred to as “hybrid surveys.”
T
While mobile research is just arriving on the scene, it is an exciting approach that best fits the mobile lifestyle of mature consumers.
F
It is believed that conducting an interview in the respondent’s home improves the quality of the data and facilitates the rapport between interviewer and interviewee.
F
All malls allow for as many research firms who wish to intercept shoppers because it attracts more customers.
F
Because shopping malls usually draw customers from a large area, they excel in terms of providing representative samples
F
A disadvantage of in-office interviews is that interviewers must be at a certain place at an exact time
T
An advantage of in-office interviews is that they have low costs.
F
Telephone surveys have the potential to provide a high-quality sample
T
Telephone surveys, although yielding high-quality samples, do not have fast turnaround times. This is why they are rarely used for political polling.
F
Telephone surveys may be preferable to face-to-face surveys when the topics being addressed are sensitive
T
The data-collection landscape of China is the same as that in Western and European countries.
F
“Paper-and-pencil” questionnaires are those administered by mall interviewers.
F
Traditional telephone interviewing offers opportunities for interviewer cheating.
T
Two variations of computer-administered telephone interview systems are (1) using a human interviewer and (2) using a computer, sometimes with a synthesized or recorded voice.
T
Central location telephone interviewing offers good control of interviewers.
T
The CATI approach has many benefits, but it does not eliminate the need for editing completed questionnaires.
F
With CATI systems, tabulations may be run at any time during the study and, as a result, questions may be added or deleted from the study.
T
Most CATI systems are programmed to make wrong answers impossible.
T
A CATI is a form of person-administered interview.
F
CAPI stands for computer-assisted personal interviewing.
T
With a CATS system, interviews are conducted entirely by computers.
T
Online surveys are making profound changes in the marketing research landscape.
T
One of the disadvantages of online surveys is that they may lack sample representativeness.
T
Drop-off surveys are especially appropriate for local market research undertakings in
T
Self-selection bias is very strong in in-home interviewing.
F
Mail surveys suffer from low response rates
T
Company policies or procedures must prohibit the practice of multiple screening or interviewing of a single respondent during any one interview to adhere to ethical marketing research practices.
T
Key factors influencing the choice of a survey data collection method include the researchers’ time and budget.
T
Incidence rate is the percentage of the population that possesses some characteristic necessary to be included in the survey.
T
The only practical way to do research with Millennials, who are a prime target for many companies, is with some online-based data collection method.
T
We attempt to measure the properties — sometimes called attributes or qualities — of objects.
T
Subjective properties are observable and tangible
F
A scale that is simply “yes” or “no” is said to have origin.
F
The terms “greater than” or “less than” are most commonly used in ordinal scale measurement techniques
T
When the distances between scale descriptors are absolute and known, the scale is referred to as an assumed interval scale.
F
Categorical scales represent scales that are either nominal or ordinal
T
When a scale has a “true zero” point, it is a nominal scale.
F
Ratio scales are easy for respondents to understand as they are in dollars, times, years, or some other
familiar denomination.
T
Scale development is a process used by marketing researchers to adapt rating scale formats which facilitate consistent translation of unobservable constructs.
T
Because every research project is different, it is wise to develop a new and novel scale format to suit the particular needs of the existing situation.
F
A scale that asks consumers the extent to which they agree or disagree with the statement that Levi’s 501s are good looking is a modified Likert scale
T
The lifestyle inventory is a special application of the modified Likert scale. It measures activities, interests, and opinions using the Likert question form.
T
A consumer likes the restaurant Red Lobster and answers “Very Satisfied” to a survey about many dimensions of the restaurant without really paying attention to each specific dimension, such as price, product quality, atmosphere, and so on. This is an example of what is known as the halo effect
T
One of the appealing aspects of the semantic differential scale is that the researcher may compute averages and plot them on the scale. This creates a “profile” of the object being measured — store, brand, and so on.
T
Different cultures tend to respond differently to scales, and a scale developed in Western culture may not be automatically transferred to other cultures
T
All scale measures must have a middle, neutral response option
F
A valuable byproduct of using the same scale in global marketing research is that cultural response biases can be identified and adjustments can be made.
T
A valid measure is one in which a respondent answers in the same or in a very similar manner to
F
A reliable measure is one that is truthful
F
A measure can be reliable but invalid.
T
A respondent has an income of less than $10,000 but states he earns more than $100,000 during an interview. This is an example of low-reliability.
F
Face validity simply means that the measurement “looks like” it’s measuring what it is intended to measure.
T
One of the functions of the questionnaire is that it serves as the tool for standardizing questions and response choices so that every respondent responds to identical stimuli.
T
Research has demonstrated that questionnaire design is so important that it directly affects the quality of the data collected.
T
Questionnaire design is really a process of several interrelated steps.
T
Question bias is defined as wording questions in such a way that they influence the responses. Researchers should try to maximize question bias in order to achieve the results desired by clients
F
To maintain objectivity, clients should not be involved in the questionnaire design process. Once the research objectives are defined, it is up to the researcher to next provide the final
F
Gaining the client’s approval signature for the questionnaire design is not done until after the pretest
F
Question development refers to the practice of selecting appropriate response formats and wording questions that are understandable, unambiguous, and unbiased.
T
Even a single word can alter the responses to a question on a survey.
T
Because there are many meanings for most words and phrases, questionnaire questions should be very long to properly define the words contained in the question.
F
Using the word “always” in designing questions is helpful as it places a specific time parameter around an event.
F
“Would you say you never think about the warranty when buying a major electronic device?” is a properly worded question for a marketing research questionnaire.
F
To keep respondents from having to respond to long questionnaires and to reduce respondent fatigue, it is okay to introduce several topics in one question.
F
There is nothing wrong with the following question: “As a BMW owner, you are satisfied with your car, aren’t you?”
F
There is nothing wrong with the following question: “Do you believe Nichols Seafood Restaurant has good prices and service?”
F
There is nothing wrong with the following question: “Should people be allowed to protect themselves from harm by using mace as a self-defense?”
F
There is nothing wrong with the following question: “How much do you think you would pay for a pair of sunglasses that will protect your eyes from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays, which are known to cause blindness?”
F
organization of a questionnaire can cause respondents to stop answering questions.
T
) In a mail survey, the introduction is normally provided in the “cover letter.”
T
In a personal interview, the objective of the introduction should be to maximize the chance of eliciting the respondents’ cooperation to take part in the survey.
T
One reason to disguise the true sponsor of a survey is to prevent alerting competitors to the survey
T
Under conditions of anonymity, the researcher assures the respondent that his name will never be associated with his responses.
T
Screening questions are used to screen out questions that are deemed to be too difficult or ambiguous for respondents.
F
Warm-up questions are simple and easy-to-answer questions that may or may not pertain to the research objectives.
T
Transition questions include “skip” questions that determine which question, or set of questions, will be asked next
T
Screening questions should be asked at the very end of the questionnaire.
F
Complicated and difficult-to-answer questions should be asked at the very beginning of the questionnaire before the respondent becomes fatigued.
F
In determining approaches to question organization on a questionnaire, the most important guiding principle to keep in mind is how researchers will later be able to analyze the questions.
F
Computer-assisted questionnaire design programs try to ease the researcher’s task in designing questionnaires and often include “question libraries,” which contain standard questions for constructs often measured in marketing research studies (such as importance, satisfaction, or usage).
T
Although computer-assisted questionnaire design programs allow for the development of questionnaires, only data analysis-dedicated software programs allow for the data to be analyzed
F
With display logic, the questionnaire displays or asks questions that are appropriate based on the respondent’s prior answers.
T
Coding refers to placing numbers on the questionnaire to facilitate data entry after the survey is completed.
T
If a question has multiple possible answers, such as a question that asks a respondent to “indicate all that apply,” it requires special consideration in terms of coding.
T
Pretests of questionnaires for a study on toy buying by young parents can be done on colleagues in the research firm, as long as the colleagues are objective and have not been involved in the development of the questionnaire.
F
Pretests should involve at least one hundred and preferably up to five hundred trial interviews.
F
Pretests should include as many interviews as possible
F
Sample size does not have to be “huge” in order to have reasonably accurate data. For example, samples that are 400 or less may provide reasonably accurate information.
T
The sample size is always related to how representative the sample is of the population
F
Instead of determining representativeness, the size of the sample affects the sample accuracy of the results.
T
Sample size has a direct bearing on how accurate the sample’s findings are relative to the true values in the population.
T
Sample accuracy refers to how close a random sample’s statistic is to another random sample statistic drawn on the same population. If the two samples result in the same, or nearly the same, data, then one has achieved sample accuracy.
F
Large sample size bias refers to a belief that sample size determines a sample’s representativeness.
T
The only perfectly accurate sample is a census.
T
The size of a probability sample depends on the client’s desired accuracy (acceptable sample error) balanced against the cost of data collection for that sample size.
T
The confidence interval approach to determining sample size applies the concepts of accuracy, variability, and confidence interval to create a “correct” sample size.
T
Sampling error is the difference between the sample findings and the findings that the client expected to have prior to the survey.
F
Nonsampling error pertains to all sources of error other than the sample selection method and sample size.
T
A random sample must be perfectly accurate to be considered a very good representation of the population
F
A graph of the relationship between accuracy and size of the sample shows that accuracy decreases as sample size increases.
F
A graph of the relationship between accuracy and size of the sample shows that accuracy increases dramatically up until sample sizes near 500. Thereafter, it takes much larger increases in sample size to gain increases in accuracy.
T
Sample error may only be determined after data have been collected. Even if we know the level of confidence, an estimate of variability (p∗q) and the sample size, n, we cannot compute the amount of sample error we can expect to experience.
F
Variability is defined as the amount of dissimilarity or similarity in respondents’ answers to a particular question.
T
In a “Yes/No” question, 50 percent “Yes” and 50 percent “No” shows less variability than does 90 percent “Yes” and 10 percent “No.”
F
The axiom, “You can take any finding in the survey, replicate the survey with the same probability sample size, and you will be very likely to find the same finding within the ± percent range of the original finding,” is based on the idea of the confidence interval.
T
The basic concept of the central limit theorem is that all research findings are limited in their application simply because they are based upon a sample and not a census.
F
The most significant factor in calculating sample size (n) is the size of the population (N). For example, if you calculated that you needed a sample size of 300 in order to have an accurate sample for your hometown, it would take at least 10 times this amount, or about 3,000, in order to have an accurate sample representing the entire United States.
F
A probability sample size can be a very tiny percent of the population size and still be very accurate (have little sample error).
T
The only time that the population size is a consideration in sample size determination is in the case of a “small population.”
T
Using the confidence interval formula for calculating sample size, the amount of variability believed to be in the population must be estimated.
T
Using the confidence interval formula for calculating sample size, the level of confidence desired to the estimate of the population values must be determined and is represented in the formula by the z value
T
The desired accuracy should NOT be considered in order to calculate the proper sample size. This is because accuracy cannot be determined until the data are collected and analyzed.
F
In sample size formulae, acceptable sample error is noted by “e
T
It is almost always up to the researcher to educate the manager on what might be acceptable or “standard” sample error.
T
In determining the level of confidence, any level of confidence is possible, but marketing researchers typically use between 60 percent and 100 percent , depending on the importance of the issue and how much the client has to spend on the research.
F
If you calculate sample size with an e of 3 percent, and then you decide to change e to 5 percent, the required sample size will go up.
F
With the 99% level of confidence, the corresponding z value is 2.58.
T
It is “true” to say that, in practice, you can estimate variability in the population by using one of three methods: (a) set pq to the most conservative amounts of 50 percent/50 percent, (b) estimate pq based upon prior research studies, or (c) conduct a pilot study.
T
There is a separate sample size formula for estimating a percentage of the population than for estimating a mean of the population.
T
Variability (standard deviation) of a population where a mean is being estimated may be estimated by dividing the range by 6.
T
Researchers should follow to the sample size formula closely when calculating sample size. No other consideration, such as the cost to the client, should be considered, as it will surely lower the accuracy of the study.
F
The arbitrary approach to sample size determination takes the desired level of accuracy into account.
F
The conventional approach to sample size determination follows some convention or number believed somehow to be the “correct” sample size.
T
It is important that marketing researchers try to educate managers/clients on the determinants of sample size as an ethical issue arises when the researcher benefits by using larger samples.
T
Generally, a small population situation is one in which the sample exceeds 5 percent of the total population size.
T
A finite multiplier is an adjustment factor that should be used when the sample size is small, relative to the population size.
T
It is inappropriate to apply sample size formulae when an unknown bias is introduced by a subjective sampling method (i.e., nonprobability).
T
When using nonprobability samples instead of probability samples, different formulas must be applied to determine the appropriate sample size that precisely balances desired accuracy, variability in the population, and level of confidence.
F
Information provided to clients cannot accurately represent likely outcomes and results compared to alternative available methodologies.
F
Marketing researchers make use of samples because obtaining information from every single person in a market is impractical
T
A population is defined as the entire group under study as specified by the objectives of the research project
T
A census is defined as a subset of the population that somehow represents that entire group.
F
The sample unit refers to the basic level of investigation; this could be a person, household, or supermarket.
T
Sampling error is defined as the difference between results obtained from a poll versus a sample survey
F
A sample frame is a master list of all the sample units in the population.
T
One of the reasons for taking a sample is that the typical researcher cannot analyze the huge amounts of data generated by a census.
T
Probability samples are those for which members of the population have a known chance of completing and actually turning in a survey. It has nothing to do with probability of being selected into the sample.
F
Nonprobability samples are those for which members of the population do not have a known chance of completing and turning in a survey. It has nothing to do with the probability of being selected into the sample.
F
With simple random sampling, the probability of being selected into the sample is found by dividing the population size by the sample size.
F
The blind draw method, or using a table of random numbers, is most appropriate for quota samples.
F
Random digit dialing is an example in which simple random sampling is employed quite successfully.
T
Plus-one dialing procedure is a popular variation of random digit dialing that increases the number of calls to additional sample members (hence “plus”) who may participate in the survey.
F
Systematic sampling is one of the most prevalent types of sampling techniques used in place of simple random sampling and its use has been increasing
F
The skip interval used in systematic sampling is computed by dividing the population list size by the sample size.
T
One of the differences between systematic sampling and simple random sampling is that the first one works its way through the entire population from beginning to end. The second one guarantees that the complete population will be covered, but without a systematic pattern.
T
In area sampling, the one-step approach is applied if the researcher believes that the various geographic areas (or clusters) are sufficiently identical.
T
In area sampling, the two-step approach is more costly than the one-step approach because more areas and time are involved.
T
In stratified sampling, the population is separated into different subgroups, and then samples are taken from all of the subgroups.
T
Stratified samples are most appropriate when the population is known to be “skewed
T
In stratified sampling, subgroups are referred to as clusters.
F
Stratified samples may use weighted means so that estimates of the overall sample may be made, as opposed to estimates from each stratum.
T
If the strata sample sizes are faithful to their relative sizes in the population, you have what is called a proportionate stratified sample design.
T
Mall-intercept companies often use convenience sampling to recruit respondents
T
If a researcher examined the trading area for a shopping mall and felt it was a good match with the desired population, the subsequent mall-intercept sample could be called a purposive sample.
T
Purposive samples require a judgment as to who should be in the sample.
T
A convenience sample may also be called an “exemplar sample.”
F
Andy was a senior in college, majoring in marketing. He received a call to participate in a survey on behalf of a company that was targeting graduating seniors. At the end of the survey, Andy was asked for the name of a friend who was also a senior in marketing. This is an example of a referral sample.
T
Quota samples refer to samples obtained by bid
F
A research study conducted in India for Tata Motors found that the automobile manufacturer has a high vote of consumer satisfaction in total and across three owner age groups. However, the authors concluded that because the sample was a convenience sample taken in a specific city in India, this conclusion cannot be defended as more than 99.8% of Tata owners were omitted from the sample frame.
T
One of the problems with online survey samples is the mechanics of the sample selection process
T
A river sample is created via the use of banners, pop-ups, or other online devices that invite website visitors to take part in the survey.
T
When developing a sample plan, the last step in the process is to “draw the sample.”
F
Samples may be validated only by obtaining samples from well-known, reputable sampling firms
F
The data taken from a sample reveals that 45 percent are males and 55 percent are females, and 10 percent of the sample members earn over $50,000 per year. Comparing these figures with known data, such as census data for the geographical area defined by the population, would be a way of validating the sample
T