MGT 291 Exam 2 Question Bank

_____ represents “those psychological processes that cause the arousal, direction, and persistence of voluntary actions that are goal directed.”

A. Diversity
B. Motivation
C. Attitude
D. Emotion
E. Intelligence

B – Motivation represents “those psychological processes that cause the arousal, direction, and persistence of voluntary actions that are goal directed.”
_____ are physiological or psychological deficiencies that arouse behavior.

A. Ethics
B. Abilities
C. Beliefs
D. Values
E. Needs

E – Needs are physiological or psychological deficiencies that arouse behavior.
In 1943, psychologist _____ published his now-famous need hierarchy theory of motivation.

A. David McClelland
B. Frederick Taylor
C. Richard Hackman
D. Frederick Herzberg
E. Abraham Maslow

E – In 1943, psychologist Abraham Maslow published his now-famous need hierarchy theory of motivation.
Which of the following is a key managerial implication of Maslow’s theory?

A. Adults can be trained to increase their achievement motivation.
B. A satisfied need may lose its motivational potential.
C. Managers should create challenging task assignments.
D. Achievement, affiliation, and power needs can be considered during the selection process, for better placement.
E. The highest order need of self-actualization should be satisfied first before moving on to the lower level needs.

B – Although research does not clearly support Maslow’s theory of motivation, there is one key managerial implication of the theory worth noting. That is, a satisfied need may lose its motivational potential.
According to Maslow’s need hierarchy, what is the highest order need?

A. Safety
B. Love
C. Self-actualization
D. Physiological
E. Esteem

C – Maslow said the five need categories are arranged in a prepotent hierarchy. Accordingly, when one’s physiological needs are relatively satisfied, one’s safety needs emerge, and so on up the need hierarchy, one step at a time. Once a need is satisfied it activates the next higher need in the hierarchy. This process continues until the need for self-actualization is activated.
Identify this well-known psychologist who is not only recognized for his research on the need for achievement, but also for his investigations on the needs for affiliation and power.

A. Abraham Maslow
B. Frederick Herzberg
C. Frederick Taylor
D. David McClelland
E. Greg Oldham

D – David McClelland, a well-known psychologist, has been studying the relationship between needs and behavior since the late 1940s. Although he is most recognized for his research on the need for achievement, he also investigated the needs for affiliation and power.
According to McClelland’s need theory, the need for _____ refers to the desire to accomplish something difficult, to master, manipulate, or organize physical objects, human beings or ideas, and to excel one’s self.

A. self-actualization
B. growth
C. power
D. achievement
E. affiliation

D – The need for achievement is defined by the following desires: To accomplish something difficult. To master, manipulate, or organize physical objects, human beings, or ideas. To do this as rapidly and as independently as possible. To overcome obstacles and attain a high standard. To excel one’s self.
James has a desire to accomplish something difficult and to do it as rapidly and as independently as possible. This relates to McClelland’s need for:

A. achievement
B. safety
C. power
D. affiliation
E. love

A – The need for achievement is defined by the following desires: To accomplish something difficult. To master, manipulate, or organize physical objects, human beings, or ideas. To do this as rapidly and as independently as possible. To overcome obstacles and attain a high standard. To excel one’s self.
David McClelland, a well-known psychologist, has been studying the relationship between needs and behavior since the late 1940s. According to him, motivation comprises three dominant needs:

A. safety, love, and esteem
B. growth, existence, and relatedness
C. power, persuasion, and persistence
D. affiliation, love, and relatedness
E. achievement, affiliation, and power

E – David McClelland, a well-known psychologist, has been studying the relationship between needs and behavior since the late 1940s. Although he is most recognized for his research on the need for achievement, he also investigated the needs for affiliation and power.
Achievement-motivated people share which of the following characteristics?

A. A preference for working on tasks of very high difficulty
B. A preference for situations in which performance is due to their effort rather than other factors
C. They desire less feedback on their successes and failures than low achievers
D. They are more concerned with discipline and self-respect
E. They are concerned only about their relationship with their peers and subordinates

B – Achievement-motivated people share three common characteristics: (1) a preference for working on tasks of moderate difficulty; (2) a preference for situations in which performance is due to their efforts rather than other factors, such as luck; and (3) they desire more feedback on their successes and failures than do low achievers.
According to David McClelland, people with high need for _____ desire to spend time in social relationships and activities.

A. power
B. self-actualization
C. affiliation
D. growth
E. achievement

C – People with a high need for affiliation prefer to spend more time maintaining social relationships, joining groups, and wanting to be loved.
According to McClelland’s need theory, the need for _____ reflects an individual’s desire to influence, teach, coach, or encourage others to achieve.

A. power
B. self-actualization
C. affiliation
D. growth
E. achievement

A – The need for power reflects an individual’s desire to influence, coach, teach, or encourage others to achieve.
Ness likes to work, and is concerned with discipline and self-respect. He has the desire to teach and encourage others to achieve. Ness can be described as an individual with a high need for:

A. power
B. love
C. affiliation
D. safety
E. achievement

A – The need for power reflects an individual’s desire to influence, coach, teach, or encourage others to achieve. People with a high need for power like to work and are concerned with discipline and self-respect.
_____ refers to any set of activities that involve altering of specific jobs or interdependent systems of jobs with the intent of improving the quality of employees’ job experiences and their on-the-job productivity.

A. Job satisfaction
B. Value attainment
C. Job involvement
D. Job design
E. Organizational commitment

D – Job design, also referred to as job redesign, “refers to any set of activities that involve the alteration of specific jobs or interdependent systems of jobs with the intent of improving the quality of employee job experience and their on-the-job productivity.”
The _____ approach to job design is based on the idea that employees can proactively change or redesign their own jobs, thereby boosting their own motivation and engagement.

A. vertical loading
B. horizontal loading
C. top-down
D. bottom-up
E. indirect

D – The bottom- up approach is based on the idea that employees can proactively change or redesign their own jobs, thereby boosting their own motivation and engagement.
Scientific management draws from research in industrial engineering and is most heavily influenced by the work of:

A. Abraham Maslow
B. David McClelland
C. Frederick Herzberg
D. Hackman and Oldham
E. Frederick Taylor

E – Scientific management draws from research in industrial engineering and is most heavily influenced by the work of Frederick Taylor.
Which of the following envisions job design as a process in which employees and individual managers jointly negotiate the types of tasks employees complete at work?

A. Vertical job loading
B. Horizontal job loading
C. Top-down approach
D. Bottom-up approach
E. Idiosyncratic deals

E – The latest approach to job design attempts to merge the top-down and bottom-up perspectives and is referred to as idiosyncratic deals. This view envisions job design as a process in which employees and individual managers jointly negotiate the types of tasks employees complete at work.
_____ involves putting more variety into a worker’s job by combining specialized tasks of comparable difficulty.

A. Job enlargement
B. Job rotation
C. Job enrichment
D. Job hopping
E. Employee engagement

A – Job enlargement involves putting more variety into a worker’s job by combining specialized tasks of comparable difficulty.
_____ calls for moving employees from one specialized job to another.

A. Job enlargement
B. Job enrichment
C. Job rotation
D. Job hopping
E. Job sharing

C – Job rotation calls for moving employees from one specialized job to another.
In an effort to redesign jobs, Sandra, manager at Perfect Printing, Inc., added various tasks to Ross’ job. In addition to copying, now Ross is also responsible for collating, putting covers on each job, stapling, and mailing back the final completed product to the customer. This can be described as an example of:

A. job rotation
B. job enlargement
C. mechanistic approach
D. job enrichment
E. job sharing

B – Job enlargement involves putting more variety into a worker’s job by combining specialized tasks of comparable difficulty.
Which of the following is also referred to as horizontally loading the job?

A. Job rotation
B. Job enlargement
C. Scientific approach
D. Job enrichment
E. Job crafting

B – Job enlargement involves putting more variety into a worker’s job by combining specialized tasks of comparable difficulty. Some call this horizontally loading the job.
Suzanne is moved from one specialized job to another at work. Her supervisor calls it his way of reducing boredom in the job. This is an example of:

A. job rotation
B. job enlargement
C. mechanistic approach
D. job crafting
E. job hopping

A – Job rotation calls for moving employees from one specialized job to another. By rotating employees from job to job, managers believe they can stimulate interest and motivation while providing employees with a broader perspective of the organization.
_____ is the practical application of Frederick Herzberg’s motivator-hygiene theory of job satisfaction.

A. Job rotation
B. The mechanistic approach
C. Job enrichment
D. The perceptual-motor approach
E. Job enlargement

C – Job enrichment is the practical application of Frederick Herzberg’s motivator-hygiene theory of job satisfaction.
According to Herzberg’s motivator-hygiene model, _____ is (are) a hygiene factor.

A. characteristics of the work
B. responsibility
C. achievement
D. working conditions
E. recognition

D – Herzberg found job dissatisfaction to be associated primarily with factors in the work context or environment. Specifically, company policy and administration, technical supervision, salary, interpersonal relations with one’s supervisor, and working conditions were most frequently mentioned by employees expressing job dissatisfaction. Herzberg labeled this second cluster of factors hygiene factors.
According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivator?

A. Salary
B. Working conditions
C. Technical supervision
D. Company policy and administration
E. Characteristics of the work

E – Job satisfaction was more frequently associated with achievement, recognition, characteristics of the work, responsibility, and advancement. These factors were all related to outcomes associated with the content of the task being performed. Herzberg labeled these factors motivators because each was associated with strong effort and good performance.
According to Herzberg’s motivator-hygiene theory, if Adam wants to maintain a level of no dissatisfaction among his employees, which of the following factors should he pay attention to?

A. Hygiene
B. Growth
C. Motivators
D. Recognition
E. Relational

A – According to Herzberg’s interpretation, an individual will experience no job dissatisfaction when he or she has no grievances about hygiene factors.
According to Herzberg’s interpretation, an individual will experience _____ when he/she has _____ about hygiene factors.

A. no job dissatisfaction; grievances
B. job dissatisfaction; no grievances
C. no job dissatisfaction; no grievances
D. job satisfaction; no grievances
E. job satisfaction; grievances

C – According to Herzberg’s interpretation, an individual will experience no job dissatisfaction when he or she has no grievances about hygiene factors.
_____ entails modifying a job such that an employee has the opportunity to experience achievement, recognition, stimulating work, responsibility, and advancement.

A. Job rotation
B. Job enrichment
C. Job commitment
D. Job enlargement
E. Job involvement

B – Job enrichment entails modifying a job such that an employee has the opportunity to experience achievement, recognition, stimulating work, responsibility, and advancement.
The job characteristics model of job design was developed by:

A. Frederick Taylor
B. Abraham Maslow
C. David McClelland
D. J. Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham
E. Frederick Herzberg and Mary Follett

D – Two OB researchers, J. Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham, played a central role in developing the job characteristics approach.
The _____ model deals with determining how work can be structured so that employees are internally or intrinsically motivated.

A. bottom-up
B. organizational commitment behavior (OCB)
C. job characteristics
D. need hierarchy
E. three-factor

C – Two OB researchers, J. Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham, played a central role in developing the job characteristics approach. These researchers tried to determine how work can be structured so that employees are internally or intrinsically motivated.
_____ occurs when an individual is “turned on to one’s work because of the positive internal feelings that are generated by doing well, rather than being dependent on external factors for the motivation to work effectively.”

A. Counterproductive work behavior
B. Vertical job loading
C. Horizontal job loading
D. Intrinsic motivation
E. Job dissatisfaction

D – Intrinsic motivation occurs when an individual is “turned on to one’s work because of the positive internal feelings that are generated by doing well, rather than being dependent on external factors for the motivation to work effectively.”
According to the job characteristics model, experienced responsibility is elicited by:

A. task identity
B. skill variety
C. feedback from job
D. task significance
E. autonomy

E – Experienced responsibility is elicited by the job characteristic of autonomy.
____, a core job characteristic, refers to the extent to which the job requires an individual to perform a variety of tasks that require him/her to use different skills and abilities.

A. Task significance
B. Skill variety
C. Task identity
D. Autonomy
E. Task variety

B – Skill variety refers to the extent to which the job requires an individual to perform a variety of tasks that require him/her to use different skills and abilities.
____, a core job characteristic, refers to the extent to which the job requires an individual to perform a whole or completely identifiable piece of work.

A. Task significance
B. Skill variety
C. Task identity
D. Autonomy
E. Task variety

C – Task identity refers to the extent to which the job requires an individual to perform a whole or completely identifiable piece of work.
In the job characteristics model, which three core job dimensions combine to create experienced meaningfulness of work?

A. Autonomy, task identity, and feedback
B. Skill variety, task identity, and task significance
C. Skill variety, autonomy, and feedback
D. Feedback, task identity, and task significance
E. Skill variety, task significance, and autonomy

B – Three of the job characteristics combine to determine experienced meaningfulness of work: skill variety, task identity, and task significance.
Toyota Motor Company empowers some of its employees to identify and help remedy problems occurring during product assembly. Recently, Henry, a clerk, was empowered to check for his own errors. According to the job characteristics model, _____ was elicited through this.

A. experienced meaningfulness
B. experienced responsibility
C. knowledge of results
D. job dissatisfaction
E. counterproductive work behavior

B – Experienced responsibility is elicited by the job characteristic of autonomy, defined as the extent to which the job enables an individual to experience freedom, independence, and discretion in both scheduling and determining the procedures used in completing the job.
_____ refers to the extent to which the job affects the lives of other people within or outside the organization.

A. Task identity
B. Skill variety
C. Feedback from job
D. Task significance
E. Autonomy

D – Task significance refers to the extent to which the job affects the lives of other people within or outside the organization.
According to the job characteristics model, _____ refers to the extent to which the job enables an individual to experience freedom, independence, and discretion in both scheduling and determining the procedures used in completing the job.

A. Task identity
B. Skill variety
C. Feedback from job
D. Task significance
E. Autonomy

E – Autonomy refers to the extent to which the job enables an individual to experience freedom, independence, and discretion in both scheduling and determining the procedures used in completing the job.
According to the job characteristics model, _____ is the extent to which an individual receives direct and clear information about how effectively he/she is performing the job.

A. task identity
B. skill variety
C. feedback
D. task significance
E. autonomy

C – Feedback is the extent to which an individual receives direct and clear information about how effectively he or she is performing the job.
A painter whose job only involves spraying paints eight hours a day, five days a week, would score:

A. high on skill variety
B. low on skill variety
C. high on autonomy
D. high on task identity
E. high on feedback

B – Skill variety refers to the extent to which the job requires an individual to perform a variety of tasks that require him or her to use different skills and abilities.
An example of a job scoring low on the task significance dimension would be that of a:

A. furniture maker who designs a sofa from scratch to the finished product
B. shop owner who not only owns the shop but also operates it entirely
C. worker who sweeps the floors in the office
D. salesperson who is dependent on his supervisor for his schedule for the week
E. doctor who performs various surgeries in the hospital

C – Task significance refers to the extent to which the job affects the lives of other people within or outside the organization.
David, a new salesperson at Fun Books, Inc., is given a set of leads for each day and is required to follow a standardized sales script with each potential customer. It can be said that David’s job scores:

A. high on job identity
B. high on self-actualization
C. high on intrinsic motivation
D. low on autonomy
E. high on skill variety

D – Autonomy refers to the extent to which the job enables an individual to experience freedom, independence, and discretion in both scheduling and determining the procedures used in completing the job.
Job _____ is defined as “the physical and cognitive changes individuals make in the task or relational boundaries of their work.”

A. enlargement
B. enrichment
C. rotation
D. crafting
E. hopping

D – Job crafting is defined as “the physical and cognitive changes individuals make in the task or relational boundaries of their work.”
Which of the following approaches to job design represents proactive and adaptive employee behavior aimed at changing tasks, relationships, and cognitions associated with one’s job?

A. Job characteristics model
B. Job enlargement
C. Job enrichment
D. Job rotation
E. Job crafting

E – Job crafting approach to job design represents proactive and adaptive employee behavior aimed at changing tasks, relationships, and cognitions associated with one’s job.
_____ encompasses a change in how you perceive or think about the tasks and relationships associated with your job.

A. Job hopping
B. Job enlargement
C. Job rotation
D. Horizontal job loading
E. Cognitive crafting

E – Cognitive crafting is the final form of job crafting. It encompasses a change in how you perceive or think about the tasks and relationships associated with your job.
_____ represent(s) “employment terms individuals negotiate for themselves, taking myriad forms from flexible schedules to career development.”

A. Top-down approaches
B. Vertical job loading
C. Horizontal job loading
D. Job hopping
E. Idiosyncratic deals

E – Idiosyncratic deals represent “employment terms individuals negotiate for themselves, taking myriad forms from flexible schedules to career development.”
Dorothy feels that typing work for her faculty is a waste of time. She is lacking a sense of:

A. meaningfulness
B. competence
C. proficiency
D. aptitude
E. extrinsic motivation

A – A sense of meaningfulness gives employees important and meaningful tasks to complete.
Job _____ is an affective or emotional response toward various facets of one’s job.

A. rotation
B. satisfaction
C. crafting
D. enrichment
E. enlargement

B – Job satisfaction is an affective or emotional response toward various facets of one’s job.
Which of the following models propose that satisfaction is a result of met expectations?

A. Need fulfillment models
B. Discrepancies models
C. Value attainment models
D. Equity models
E. Dispositional/genetic components

B – Discrepancies models propose that satisfaction is a result of met expectations.
The _____ models of job satisfaction propose that satisfaction is determined by the extent to which the characteristics of a job allow an individual to fulfill his/her needs.

A. motivator-hygiene
B. need hierarchy
C. need fulfillment
D. job characteristic
E. discrepancy

C – The need fulfillment models propose that satisfaction is determined by the extent to which the characteristics of a job allow an individual to fulfill his/her needs.
The idea underlying the _____ model of job satisfaction is that satisfaction results from the perception that a job allows for fulfillment of an individual’s important work values.

A. value creation
B. met expectations
C. discrepancies
D. value attainment
E. genetic component

D – The idea underlying value attainment is that satisfaction results from the perception that a job allows for fulfillment of an individual’s important work values.
In which model of job satisfaction is satisfaction a function of how “fairly” an individual is treated?

A. Need fulfillment model
B. Discrepancies model
C. Value attainment model
D. Equity model
E. Dispositional/genetic components model

D – In the equity model, satisfaction is a function of how “fairly” an individual is treated at work.
_____ reflects the extent to which an individual identifies with an organization and is committed to its goals.

A. Value attainment
B. Job satisfaction
C. Organizational commitment
D. Dispositional behavior
E. Turnover

C – Organizational commitment reflects the extent to which an individual identifies with an organization and is committed to its goals.
Higher organizational commitment from employees can facilitate higher:

A. turnover
B. absenteeism
C. perceived stress
D. productivity
E. dissatisfaction

D – Higher commitment can facilitate higher productivity.
_____ behaviors represent types of behavior that harm employees, the organization as a whole, or organizational stakeholders such as customers and shareholders.

A. Contextual performance
B. Withdrawal cognitions
C. Organizational citizenship
D. Nondiscretionary
E. Counterproductive work

E – Counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs) represent types of behavior that harm employees, the organization as a whole, or organizational stakeholders such as customers and shareholders.
_____ is a model of motivation that explains how people strive for fairness and justice in social exchanges or give-and-take relationships.

A. Hierarchy of needs theory
B. McClelland’s need theory
C. Theory X
D. Herzberg’s motivator-hygiene theory
E. Equity theory

E – Equity theory is a model of motivation that explains how people strive for fairness and justice in social exchanges or give-and-take relationships.
Equity theory is based on _____ theory.

A. goal-setting
B. need satisfaction
C. cognitive dissonance
D. motivator-hygiene
E. expectancy

C – Equity theory is based on cognitive dissonance theory, developed by social psychologist Leon Festinger in the 1950s.
The cognitive dissonance theory was developed by the psychologist:

A. Abraham Maslow
B. Frederick Herzberg
C. Leon Festinger
D. J. Stacy Adams
E. David McClelland

C – Equity theory is based on cognitive dissonance theory, developed by social psychologist Leon Festinger in the 1950s.
According to Festinger’s theory, people are motivated to maintain consistency between their cognitive beliefs and their:

A. behavior
B. attitude
C. personality
D. character
E. traits

A – According to Festinger’s theory, people are motivated to maintain consistency between their cognitive beliefs and their behavior. Perceived inconsistencies create cognitive dissonance (or psychological discomfort), which, in turn, motivates corrective action.
According to Adams, the two primary components in the employee-employer exchange are:

A. money and motivation
B. effort and performance
C. pay and performance
D. inputs and outcomes
E. promotion and participation

D – Central to understanding Adams’s equity theory of motivation is an awareness of key components of the individual-organization exchange relationship. This relationship is pivotal in the formation of employees’ perceptions of equity and inequity. Adams points out that two primary components are involved in the employee-employer exchange, inputs and outcomes.
In the employee-employer exchange, an employee’s inputs would include:

A. seniority
B. job security
C. status symbols
D. recognition
E. fringe benefits

A – An employee’s inputs, for which he/she expects a just return, include education/training, skills, creativity, seniority, age, personality traits, effort expended, and personal appearance. On the outcome side of the exchange, the organization provides such things as pay/bonuses, medical benefits, challenging assignments, job security, promotions, status symbols, recognition, and participation in important decisions.
In the employee-employer exchange, the outcome component includes:

A. education/training
B. seniority
C. personality trait
D. skills
E. recognition

E – On the outcome side of the exchange, the organization provides such things as pay/bonuses, medical benefits, challenging assignments, job security, promotions, status symbols, recognition, and participation in important decisions. An employee’s inputs, for which he/she expects a just return, include education/training, skills, creativity, seniority, age, personality traits, effort expended, and personal appearance.
_____ exists for an individual when his/her ratio of perceived outcomes to inputs is equal to the ratio of outcomes to inputs for a relevant co-worker.

A. Mutuality
B. Equity
C. Positive inequity
D. Negative inequity
E. Learned helplessness

B – Equity exists for an individual when his/her ratio of perceived outcomes to inputs is equal to the ratio of outcomes to inputs for a relevant co-worker.
Johnny discovered that he was paid less compared to his co-worker, Jim, who had the same qualifications as him. However, Johnny also knew that Jim was handling additional responsibilities when compared to him. Hence, Johnny most likely perceived a sense of:

A. equity
B. negative bias
C. positive inequity
D. learned helplessness
E. high dissatisfaction

A – Equity exists for an individual when his/her ratio of perceived outcomes to inputs is equal to the ratio of outcomes to inputs for a relevant co-worker. Because equity is based on comparing ratios of outcomes to inputs, inequity will not necessarily be perceived just because someone else receives greater rewards. If the other person’s additional outcomes are due to his/her greater inputs, a sense of equity may still exist.
A person will experience _____ when his/her outcome to input ratio is greater than that of a relevant co-worker.

A. equity
B. learned helplessness
C. negative inequity
D. positive inequity
E. dissatisfaction

D – A person will experience equity when his/her outcome to input ratio is greater than that of a relevant co-worker.
As per the equity theory, if the comparison person receives greater outcomes for similar inputs, _____ will be perceived.

A. equity
B. negative inequity
C. no dissatisfaction
D. positive inequity
E. high satisfaction

B – If the comparison person enjoys greater outcomes for similar inputs, negative inequity will be perceived.
At work, if Joey’s outcome to input ratio is greater than that of Tony’s (his relevant co-worker), Joey will experience:

A. equity
B. no satisfaction
C. positive inequity
D. high dissatisfaction
E. negative inequity

C – A person will experience positive inequity when his/her outcome to input ratio is greater than that of a relevant co-worker.
_____ reflects an individual’s “different preferences for, tolerances for, and reactions to the level of fairness associated with any given situation.”

A. Organizational commitment
B. Instrumentality
C. Equity bias
D. Expectancy
E. Equity sensitivity

E – Equity sensitivity reflects an individual’s “different preferences for, tolerances for, and reactions to the level of equity associated with any given situation.”
An individual’s tolerance for negative and positive fairness is called:

A. dynamic equity
B. interactional justice
C. his expectancy threshold
D. equity sensitivity
E. instrumentality

D – Equity sensitivity reflects an individual’s “different preferences for, tolerances for, and reactions to the level of equity associated with any given situation.”
_____ are people who have a higher tolerance for negative inequity.

A. Entitleds
B. Strategists
C. Benevolents
D. Sensitives
E. Comparison others

C – Equity sensitivity spans a continuum ranging from benevolents to sensitives to entitled. Benevolents are people who have a higher tolerance for negative inequity.
_____ are described as individuals who adhere to a strict norm of reciprocity and are quickly motivated to resolve both negative and positive inequity.

A. Benevolents
B. Entitleds
C. Sensitives
D. Comparison others
E. Equalists

C – Equity sensitives are described as individuals who adhere to a strict norm of reciprocity and are quickly motivated to resolve both negative and positive inequity.
Marie has no tolerance for negative inequity. She can be described as a(n):

A. benevolent
B. comparison other
C. sensitive
D. strategist
E. entitled

E – Entitleds have no tolerance for negative inequity. They actually expect to obtain greater output/input ratios than comparison with others and become upset when this is not the case.
_____ reflects the extent to which people perceive that they are treated fairly at work.

A. Corporate governance
B. Instrumentality
C. Organizational justice
D. Business ethics
E. Expectancy

C – Organizational justice reflects the extent to which people perceive that they are treated fairly at work.
Employees at Globe Trade, Inc., have always felt that resources and rewards are allocated unfairly at work. Such employee perceptions reflect the lack of:

A. distributive justice
B. interpersonal justice
C. informational justice
D. procedural justice
E. interactional justice

A – Distributive justice reflects the perceived fairness of how resources and rewards are distributed or allocated.
_____ justice is defined as the perceived fairness of the process and procedures used to make allocation decisions.

A. Distributive
B. Procedural
C. Interpersonal
D. Informational
E. Interactional

B – Procedural justice is defined as the perceived fairness of the process and procedures used to make allocation decisions.
According to research, positive perceptions of distributive and procedural justice are enhanced by:

A. implementing a command-and-control structure
B. reducing the number of rewards but increasing their intensity
C. giving employees a “voice” in decisions that affect them
D. interpersonal justice
E. increasing the perception of negative inequity amongst employees

C – Research shows that positive perceptions of distributive and procedural justice are enhanced by giving employees a “voice” in decisions that affect them.
Employees of Carnation Motors have always felt that they are unfairly treated when procedures are implemented. Such employee perceptions reflect:

A. distributive justice
B. intrapersonal justice
C. practical justice
D. procedural justice
E. interactional justice

E – Interactional justice relates to the “quality of the interpersonal treatment people receive when procedures are implemented.”
_____ theory holds that people are motivated to behave in ways that produce desired combinations of expected outcomes.

A. Equity
B. Expectancy
C. Motivator-hygiene
D. Goal setting
E. Hierarchy of needs

B – Expectancy theory holds that people are motivated to behave in ways that produce desired combinations of expected outcomes.
_____ plays a central role in expectancy theory because it emphasizes the cognitive ability to anticipate the likely consequences of behavior.

A. Personality
B. Value
C. Perception
D. Attitude
E. Belief

C – Perception plays a central role in expectancy theory because it emphasizes the cognitive ability to anticipate the likely consequences of behavior.
Embedded in expectancy theory is the principle of ____, which states that people strive to maximize their pleasure and minimize their pain.

A. hedonism
B. instrumentality
C. equity
D. benevolence
E. valence

A – Embedded in expectancy theory is the principle of hedonism. Hedonistic people strive to maximize their pleasure and minimize their pain.
_____ theory of motivation is generally used to predict behavior in any situation in which a choice between two or more alternatives must be made.

A. Hierarchy of needs
B. McClelland’s need
C. Herzberg’s motivator-hygiene
D. Expectancy
E. Equity

D – Generally, expectancy theory can be used to predict behavior in any situation in which a choice between two or more alternatives must be made.
____, according to Vroom’s terminology, represents an individual’s belief that a particular degree of effort will be followed by a particular level of performance.

A. Expectancy
B. Benevolence
C. Equity
D. Instrumentality
E. Valence

A – Expectancy, according to Vroom’s terminology, represents an individual’s belief that a particular degree of effort will be followed by a particular level of performance.
According to Vroom, “expectancy” refers to which of the following linkages?

A. Performance → Effort
B. Outcome → Performance
C. Performance → Outcome
D. Effort → Performance
E. Valence → Effort

D – An expectancy, according to Vroom’s terminology, represents an individual’s belief that a particular degree of effort will be followed by a particular level of performance. In other words, it is an effort → performance expectation.
An expectancy of _____ indicates effort has no anticipated impact on performance.

A. zero
B. 1.0
C. -1.0
D. 0.5
E. any negative number

A – An expectancy of zero indicates effort has no anticipated impact on performance.
Which of the following is a performance → outcome perception?

A. Expectancy
B. Instrumentality
C. Valence
D. Distributive justice
E. MBO

B – An instrumentality is a performance → outcome perception.
____, according to Vroom’s terminology, represents a person’s belief that a particular outcome is contingent on accomplishing a specific level of performance.

A. Expectancy
B. Benevolence
C. Equity
D. Instrumentality
E. Valence

D – An instrumentality is a performance → outcome perception. It represents a person’s belief that a particular outcome is contingent on accomplishing a specific level of performance.
According to Vroom’s terminology, performance is said to be _____ when it leads to something else.

A. entitled
B. benevolent
C. instrumental
D. equitable
E. sensitive

C – Performance is instrumental when it leads to something else. For example, passing exams is instrumental to graduating from college.
An instrumentality of _____ indicates attainment of a particular outcome is totally dependent on task performance.

A. zero
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. -1.0
E. -2.0

B – An instrumentality of 1.0 indicates attainment of a particular outcome is totally dependent on task performance.
An instrumentality of zero indicates that:

A. the attainment of a particular outcome is totally dependent on task performance
B. performance is totally dependent on effort
C. high performance reduces the chance of obtaining an outcome while low performance increases the chance
D. there is no relationship between performance and receiving an outcome
E. performance is less dependent on effort and more dependent on luck

D – An instrumentality of zero indicates there is no relationship between performance and receiving an outcome
An instrumentality of -1.0 reveals that:

A. the attainment of a particular outcome is totally dependent on task performance
B. performance is totally dependent on effort
C. high performance reduces the chance of obtaining an outcome while low performance increases the chance
D. there is no relationship between performance and receiving an outcome
E. performance is less dependent on effort and more dependent on luck

C – An instrumentality of -1.0 reveals that high performance reduces the chance of obtaining an outcome while low performance increases the chance.
If a professor is known to give everyone in the class an “A” regardless of performance level, then:

A. expectancy is high
B. instrumentality is low
C. instrumentality is high
D. valence is low
E. valence is high

B – Performance is instrumental when it leads to something else.
The value of a reward or outcome, according to Vroom, is called:

A. expectancy
B. instrumentality
C. valence
D. equity
E. organizational justice

C – As Vroom used the term, valence refers to the positive or negative value people place on outcomes.
Valence mirrors our:

A. personality
B. expectancy
C. instrumentality
D. personal preferences
E. behavior

D – As Vroom used the term, valence refers to the positive or negative value people place on outcomes. Valence mirrors our personal preferences.
In Vroom’s expectancy theory, _____ refer(s) to different consequences that are contingent on performance, such as pay, promotions, or recognition.

A. outcomes
B. perception
C. values
D. attitude
E. performance

A – In Vroom’s expectancy model, outcomes refer to different consequences that are contingent on performance, such as pay, promotions, or recognition.
Which of the following is an important practical managerial implication of the expectancy theory?

A. Design challenging jobs
B. Monitor employee motivation through interviews
C. Reward people for desired performance
D. Determine the outcomes employees value
E. Tie some rewards to group accomplishments to build teamwork

D – Expectancy theory has important practical implications for individual managers and organizations as a whole. All distracters other than D are organizational implications of the expectancy theory.
Edwin Locke defines a(n) _____ as “what an individual is trying to accomplish; it is the object or aim of an action.”

A. expectancy
B. perception
C. goal
D. personality
E. instrumentality

C – Edwin Locke, a leading authority on goal setting, and his colleagues define a goal as “what an individual is trying to accomplish; it is the object or aim of an action.”
John wants to become a successful heart surgeon. This reflects John’s:

A. expectancy
B. perception
C. goal
D. personality
E. instrumentality

C – Edwin Locke, a leading authority on goal setting, and his colleagues define a goal as “what an individual is trying to accomplish; it is the object or aim of an action.”
A management system that incorporates participation in decision making, goal setting, and objective feedback is known as:

A. organizational justice
B. management by control
C. an expectancy system
D. management by objectives
E. instrumentality

D – Management by objectives is a management system that incorporates participation in decision making, goal setting, and objective feedback.
The instructor’s deadline for turning in your term project would prompt you to complete it, as opposed to going out with friends, watching television, or studying for another course. This is due to which of the following motivational mechanisms of goal setting?

A. Goals direct attention
B. Goals regulate effort
C. Goals increase patience
D. Goals increase persistence
E. Goals foster the development and application of task strategies and action plans

B – Not only do goals make us selectively perceptive, they also motivate us to act. The instructor’s deadline for turning in your term project would prompt you to complete it, as opposed to going out with friends, watching television, or studying for another course.
Within the context of goal setting, _____ represents the effort expended on a task over an extended period of time.

A. perception
B. instrumentality
C. persistence
D. valence
E. equity

C – Within the context of goal setting, persistence represents the effort expended on a task over an extended period of time.
Goal _____ pertains to the quantifiability of a goal.

A. difficulty
B. commitment
C. specificity
D. instrumentality
E. equity

C – Goal specificity pertains to the quantifiability of a goal. For example, a goal of selling nine cars a month is more specific than telling a salesperson to do his/her best.
Robert, the owner of Morewords Books, Inc., told Adams, the new salesperson, to do his best. However, Adams was unsure what “best” meant and his performance remained poor compared to the rest of the sales team. This was because the goal given to Adams lacked:

A. specificity
B. valence
C. expectancy
D. difficulty
E. instrumentality

A – Goal specificity pertains to the quantifiability of a goal. For example, a goal of selling nine cars a month is more specific than telling a salesperson to do his/her best.
_____ lets people know if they are headed toward their goals or if they are off course and need to redirect their efforts.

A. Instrumentality
B. Valence
C. Expectancy
D. Feedback
E. Goal sensitivity

D – Feedback lets people know if they are headed toward their goals or if they are off course and need to redirect their efforts.
_____ inform(s) people about performance standards and expectations so that they can channel their energies accordingly. In turn, _____ provide(s) the information needed to adjust direction, effort, and strategies for its accomplishment.

A. Feedback; goals
B. Goals; valence
C. Goals; persistence
D. Goals; feedback
E. Equity; goals

D – Goals inform people about performance standards and expectations so that they can channel their energies accordingly. In turn, feedback provides the information needed to adjust direction, effort, and strategies for goal accomplishment.
_____ approach to goal setting deals with picking a method that seems best suited for the individual and situation at hand.

A. Equity
B. Expectancy
C. Contingency
D. Participative
E. Management by objectives

C – Managers are advised to use a contingency approach by picking a method that seems best suited for the individual and situation at hand.
A(n) _____ outlines the activities or tasks that need to be accomplished in order to obtain a goal.

A. vision
B. mission statement
C. action plan
D. valence
E. strategic window

C – An action plan outlines the activities or tasks that need to be accomplished in order to obtain a goal.
Once goals are set, the next step in implementing a goal-setting program is to:

A. promote goal commitment
B. provide support and feedback
C. ensure goal specificity
D. increase instrumentality and valence
E. link them to a goal-based bonus

A – Once goals are set, the next step in implementing a goal setting program is to promote goal commitment.
In setting goals, _____ is used when an organization wants to compare its performance or internal work processes to those of other organizations or to other internal units, branches, departments, or divisions within the organization.

A. evaluation and assessment
B. a performance criterion
C. benchmarking
D. formalized research
E. an estimate-based method

C – A number of sources can be used as input during the goal-setting stage. Goals can be set by conducting external or internal benchmarking. Benchmarking is used when an organization wants to compare its performance or internal work processes to those of other organizations (external benchmarking) or to other internal units, branches, departments, or divisions within the organization (internal benchmarking).
People with _____ goal orientation view skills as malleable; they make efforts not only to achieve current tasks but also to develop the ability to accomplish future tasks.

A. high learning
B. high performance-prove
C. low performance-prove
D. low instrumental
E. high performance-avoid

A – People with a high learning goal orientation view skills as malleable. They make efforts not only to achieve current tasks but also to develop the ability to accomplish future tasks.
Edward’s goal was to earn $10 million in three months. He did not have any action plan for it though and had no clue as to how he would go about it. All he knew was that he wanted to be rich in three months. In terms of a SMART goal, Edward’s goal is:

A. not measurable
B. not attainable
C. realistic
D. not time bound
E. specific

B – In accordance with available research evidence, goals should be “SMART,” an acronym that stands for specific, measurable, attainable, results oriented, and time bound. Goals should be realistic, challenging, and attainable. Impossible goals reduce motivation because people do not like to fail.
_____ is objective information about performance shared with those in a position to improve the situation.

A. Reinforcement
B. Feedback
C. Rewards
D. Punishment
E. Evaluation

B – Feedback is information about individual or collective performance shared with those in a position to improve the situation.
_____ is the exchange of information about the status and quality of work products. It provides a road map to success.

A. Performance appraisal
B. Performance management
C. Management by objectives
D. Feedback
E. Total quality management

D – Feedback is the exchange of information about the status and quality of work products. It provides a road map to success.
Traditional appraisals are different from feedback in the sense that they:

A. discourage two-way communication
B. provide a road map to success
C. treat employee involvement positively
D. encourage employees to participate in performance review
E. ensure that the manager and employees are in sync with respect to the work to be performed

A – Traditional appraisals discourage two-way communication and treat employee involvement as a bad thing.
Feedback serves two functions for those who receive it: _____ and:

A. judgmental; developmental
B. judgmental; motivational
C. motivational; developmental
D. instructional; motivational
E. developmental; instructional

D – Experts say feedback serves two functions for those who receive it: one is instructional and the other motivational.
Feedback is said to be _____ when an assistant accountant is advised to handle a certain entry as a capital item rather than as an expense item.

A. motivational
B. judgemental
C. instructional
D. developmental
E. negative

C – Feedback instructs when it clarifies roles or teaches new behavior. For example, an assistant accountant might be advised to handle a certain entry as a capital item rather than as an expense item.
Feedback is said to be _____ when it serves as a reward or promises a reward.

A. motivational
B. judgemental
C. instructional
D. developmental
E. ineffective

A – Feedback motivates when it serves as a reward or promises a reward.
The three main sources of feedback include oneself, others, and:

A. society
B. peers
C. customers
D. the task itself
E. perception of the individual performing the task

D – It almost goes without saying that employees receive objective feedback from others such as peers, supervisors, lower-level employees, and outsiders. Perhaps less obvious is the fact that the task itself is a ready source of objective feedback. A third source of feedback is oneself, but self-serving bias and other perceptual problems can contaminate this source.
Feedback becomes positive or negative when it:

A. serves as information
B. is given by a subordinate
C. is compared to a goal, standard, or expectation
D. does not serve as a basis for improvement
E. results from positive or negative equity

C – Feedback itself is simply information, neither positive nor negative. It only becomes positive or negative when it is compared to a goal, standard, or expectation.
Generally, people tend to perceive and recall _____ feedback more accurately than they do _____ feedback.

A. positive; negative
B. upward; downward
C. negative; positive
D. negative; downward
E. downward; upward

A – Generally, people tend to perceive and recall positive feedback more accurately than they do negative feedback.
Self-efficacy can be damaged by _____ feedback.

A. positive
B. negative
C. upward
D. downward
E. 360-degree

B – Self-efficacy can be damaged by negative feedback, as discovered in a pair of experiments with business students.
The behavioral outcomes of feedback include direction, effort, persistence, and:

A. forecasting
B. personality
C. resistance
D. shaping
E. formulating goal-attainment strategies

C – While the fourth outcome of goal setting involves formulating goal-attainment strategies, the fourth possible outcome of feedback is resistance.
_____ feedback stands the traditional approach on its head by having lower-level employees provide feedback on a manager’s style and performance.

A. Vertical
B. Top-down
C. Horizontal
D. Upward
E. Motivational

D – Upward feedback stands the traditional approach on its head by having lower-level employees provide feedback on a manager’s style and performance.
When Jenny evaluates her supervisor, she is providing _____ feedback.

A. upward
B. downward
C. horizontal
D. diagonal
E. top-down

A – Upward feedback stands the traditional approach on its head by having lower-level employees provide feedback on a manager’s style and performance.
According to research, managers who received anonymous upward feedback received _____ ratings and liked the process _____ than did those receiving feedback from identifiable employees.

A. higher; less
B. lower; less
C. higher; more
D. lower; more
E. moderate; more

B – Managers who received anonymous upward feedback received lower ratings and liked the process less than did those receiving feedback from identifiable employees.
Comparison of anonymous feedback from one’s supervisor, subordinates, and peers with self-perceptions is known as _____ feedback.

A. upward
B. horizontal
C. positive
D. negative
E. 360-degree

E – Letting individuals compare their own perceived performance with behaviorally specific (and usually anonymous) performance information from their manager, subordinates, and peers is known as 360-degree feedback.
360-degree feedback that involves feedback from outsiders is sometimes called _____ feedback.

A. upward
B. triangular
C. horizontal
D. diagonal
E. full-circle

E – Letting individuals compare their own perceived performance with behaviorally specific (and usually anonymous) performance information from their manager, subordinates, and peers is known as 360-degree feedback. Even outsiders may be involved in what is sometimes called full-circle feedback.
According to research, upward and 360-degree feedback leads us to _____ anonymity and _____ use for pay and promotion decisions.

A. favor; discourage
B. favor; encourage
C. disfavor; discourage
D. disfavor; encourage
E. encourage; favor

A – Research evidence on upward and 360-degree feedback leads us to favor anonymity and discourage use for pay and promotion decisions.
Feedback should be:

A. used to punish employees
B. given at the end of a year or on a half-yearly basis
C. given about things that are beyond the individual’s control
D. delivered as soon as possible to the time the behavior was displayed
E. negative as far as possible since negative feedback tends to motivate individuals

D – Feedback should be delivered as soon as possible to the time the behavior was displayed. Do not: 1. Use feedback to punish, embarrass, or put down employees. 2. Provide feedback that is too late to do any good. 3. Provide feedback about something that is beyond the individual’s control.
_____ encompass not only compensation and benefits, but also personal and professional growth opportunities and a motivating work environment that includes recognition, job design, and work-life balance.

A. Performance evaluations
B. Total rewards
C. Full-circle rewards
D. Profit-sharing plans
E. Non-performance considerations

b – Total rewards encompass not only compensation and benefits, but also personal and professional growth opportunities and a motivating work environment that includes recognition, job design, and work-life balance.
Which of the following is an intrinsic reward?

A. Financial
B. Social
C. Psychic
D. Material
E. Environmental

C – Financial, material, and social rewards qualify as extrinsic rewards because they come from the environment. Psychic rewards, however, are intrinsic rewards because they are self-granted.
When rewards come from the environment, they are called _____ rewards.

A. extrinsic
B. psychic
C. intrinsic
D. taxable
E. equity

A – Financial, material, and social rewards qualify as extrinsic rewards because they come from the environment. Psychic rewards, however, are intrinsic rewards because they are self-granted.
_____ rewards are self-granted.

A. Financial
B. Intrinsic
C. Material
D. Extrinsic
E. Social

B – Financial, material, and social rewards qualify as extrinsic rewards because they come from the environment. Psychic rewards, however, are intrinsic rewards because they are self-granted.
Angelina derives pleasure from the actual task of writing a book. She can be described as _____ motivated.

A. extrinsically
B. financially
C. materially
D. intrinsically
E. socially

D – Financial, material, and social rewards qualify as extrinsic rewards because they come from the environment. Psychic rewards, however, are intrinsic rewards because they are self-granted. One who derives pleasure from the task itself, feels their work is meaningful, or has a sense of responsibility will likely become engaged with his/her work: Employee engagement is fueled by intrinsic motivation.
The three general criteria for distribution of rewards include performance-based results, performance-based actions and behaviors, and:

A. gender
B. non-performance considerations
C. level of perceived equity
D. personality
E. attitude

B – The three general criteria for distribution of rewards include performance-based results, performance-based actions and behaviors, and non-performance considerations.
Which of the following is an action or behavior-related performance criterion for the distribution of rewards?

A. Equity
B. Tenure
C. Level in hierarchy
D. Organizational performance
E. Teamwork and creativity in performance

E – Action or behavior-related performance criteria include teamwork, cooperation, risk taking, and creativity.
Which of the following is a non-performance consideration for the distribution of rewards?

A. Teamwork
B. Organizational performance
C. Nature of work
D. Risk taking
E. Quantity and quality of performance

C – Non-performance consideration for the distribution of rewards includes customary or contractual, where the type of job, nature of the work, equity, tenure, level in hierarchy, etc.
_____ is the popular term for monetary incentives linking at least some portion of the pay check directly to results or accomplishments.

A. Pay for performance
B. Non-variable pay
C. Equity
D. Salary
E. Wage

A – Pay for performance is the popular term for monetary incentives linking at least some portion of the pay check directly to results or accomplishments.
Pay for performance is also referred to as:

A. fixed compensation
B. equity pay
C. variable pay
D. base salary
E. living wages

C – Pay for performance is the popular term for monetary incentives linking at least some portion of the pay check directly to results or accomplishments. Many refer to it simply as incentive or variable pay.
The most basic form of pay for performance is the traditional _____ plan, whereby the employee is paid a specified amount of money for each unit of work.

A. time-rate
B. sales commission
C. profit-sharing
D. merit pay
E. piece-rate

E – The most basic form of pay for performance is the traditional piece-rate plan, whereby the employee is paid a specified amount of money for each unit of work.
One of the main reasons why rewards fail to motivate is because:

A. they are given almost immediately after performance
B. of the lack of emphasis on monetary rewards
C. different rewards are given for different achievements
D. of the use of one-shot rewards with a short-lived motivational impact
E. extensive rewards fail to become entitlements

D – Some of the main reasons why rewards fail to motivate is the use of one-shot rewards with a short-lived motivational impact, too much emphasis on monetary rewards, rewards lack an “appreciation effect,” extensive benefits become entitlements, too long a delay between performance and rewards, and too many one-size-fits-all rewards.
The law of effect which states that behavior with favorable consequences tends to be repeated, while behavior with unfavorable consequences tends to disappear, was formulated by:

A. B. F. Skinner
B. Edward L. Thorndike
C. Frederick Herzberg
D. David McClelland
E. Peter Drucker

B – Thorndike formulated his famous law of effect, which says behavior with favourable consequences tends to be repeated, while behavior with unfavorable consequences tends to disappear.
Which of the following says that behavior with favorable consequences tends to be repeated, while behavior with unfavorable consequences tends to disappear?

A. Law of effect
B. Behaviorism
C. Operant conditioning
D. Reward equity norm
E. Extinction

A – Thorndike formulated his famous law of effect, which says behavior with favourable consequences tends to be repeated, while behavior with unfavorable consequences tends to disappear.
Skinner’s work became known as behaviorism because he dealt strictly with:

A. observable behavior
B. unobservable inner states
C. equity perception
D. attitudes
E. non-performance criteria

A – Skinner’s work became known as behaviorism because he dealt strictly with observable behavior.
Skinner labeled unlearned reflexes or stimulus-response connections as _____ behavior.

A. operant
B. respondent
C. effective
D. normative
E. extinct

B – Skinner labeled unlearned reflexes or stimulus-response connections as respondent behavior.
According to Skinner, which of the following categories of behavior described a very small proportion of adult human behavior, such as shedding tears while peeling onions and reflexively withdrawing one’s hand from a hot stove?

A. Operant behavior
B. Respondent behavior
C. Cognitive dissonance
D. Learned behavior
E. Unobservable inner states

B – Skinner labeled unlearned reflexes or stimulus-response connections as respondent behavior. This category of behavior was said to describe a very small proportion of adult human behavior, such as shedding tears while peeling onions and reflexively withdrawing one’s hand from a hot stove.
_____ behavior refers to learned, consequences-shaped behavior.

A. Operant
B. Respondent
C. Effective
D. Normative
E. Extinct

A – Skinner attached the label operant behavior to behavior that is learned when one “operates on” the environment to produce desired consequences.
Skinner attached the label “operant behavior” to behavior that is learned when one “operates on” the environment to produce desired consequences. Some call this the _____ model.

A. cognitive dissonance
B. performance management
C. response-stimulus
D. negative reinforcement
E. balanced equity

C – Skinner attached the label operant behavior to behavior that is learned when one “operates on” the environment to produce desired consequences. Some call this the response-stimulus model.
_____ is the process of strengthening a behavior by contingently presenting something pleasing.

A. Positive reinforcement
B. Punishment
C. Extinction
D. Negative reinforcement
E. Operant behavior

A – Positive reinforcement is the process of strengthening a behavior by contingently presenting something pleasing.
Employees at Max Manufacturing strive to operate at a zero-defect level because each one of them gets publicly recognized for their individual and team accomplishments. This is an example of:

A. extinction
B. positive reinforcement
C. respondent behavior
D. punishment
E. negative reinforcement

B – Positive reinforcement is the process of strengthening a behavior by contingently presenting something pleasing.
Which of the following strengthen behavior?

A. Positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement
B. Punishment and extinction
C. Positive reinforcement and extinction
D. Punishment and negative reinforcement
E. Negative reinforcement and extinction

A – Positive reinforcement is the process of strengthening a behavior by contingently presenting something pleasing. Negative reinforcement also strengthens a desired behavior by contingently withdrawing something displeasing.
Employees at Studious Bookstore show up on time just to avoid the manager screaming at them. This is an example of:

A. positive reinforcement
B. extinction
C. punishment
D. negative reinforcement
E. respondent behavior

D – Negative reinforcement strengthens a desired behavior by contingently withdrawing something displeasing. For example, an army sergeant who stops yelling when a recruit jumps out of bed has negatively reinforced that particular behavior. The desired behavior is getting up on time. The displeasing consequence removed is yelling.
Which of the following strengthens a behavior by contingently withdrawing something displeasing?

A. Positive reinforcement
B. Extinction
C. Negative reinforcement
D. Punishment
E. Respondent behavior

C – Negative reinforcement strengthens a desired behavior by contingently withdrawing something displeasing.
_____ is the process of weakening behavior through either the contingent presentation of something displeasing or the contingent withdrawal of something positive.

A. Positive reinforcement
B. Respondent behavior
C. Extinction
D. Negative reinforcement
E. Punishment

E – Punishment is the process of weakening behavior through either the contingent presentation of something displeasing or the contingent withdrawal of something positive.
Which of the following weaken behavior?

A. Positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement
B. Punishment and extinction
C. Positive reinforcement and extinction
D. Punishment and negative reinforcement
E. Negative reinforcement and extinction

B – Punishment is the process of weakening behavior through either the contingent presentation of something displeasing or the contingent withdrawal of something positive. Weakening a behavior by ignoring it or making sure it is not reinforced is referred to as extinction.
Rose did not finish her homework by the 7:00 p.m. deadline given her, so she was barred from watching television for one week. This is an example of:

A. punishment
B. positive reinforcement
C. extinction
D. negative reinforcement
E. shaping

A – Punishment is the process of weakening behavior through either the contingent presentation of something displeasing or the contingent withdrawal of something positive. Examples of withdrawing something positive include docking a tardy employee’s pay or forbidding the use of the Internet in the classroom or at work.
Making behavior occur less often by ignoring or not reinforcing it is called:

A. punishment
B. positive reinforcement
C. extinction
D. negative reinforcement
E. shaping

C – Weakening a behavior by ignoring it or making sure it is not reinforced is referred to as extinction.
When John makes sexist remarks to be humorous, Kathy and Ben ignore him and do not laugh at his jokes. This is an example of:

A. positive reinforcement
B. extinction
C. negative reinforcement
D. punishment
E. shaping

B – Weakening a behavior by ignoring it or making sure it is not reinforced is referred to as extinction.
When a behavior is reinforced every time, it refers to:

A. continuous reinforcement
B. variable interval reinforcement
C. fixed ratio reinforcement
D. variable ratio reinforcement
E. fixed interval reinforcement

A – Every instance of a target behavior is reinforced when a continuous reinforcement (CRF) schedule is in effect.
Emma’s mother praises her every time she draws a new picture in her drawing book. This motivates Emma to draw more and more new pictures in her book. Emma’s mom is indulging in _____ reinforcement.

A. continuous
B. intermittent
C. negative
D. fixed ratio
E. variable ratio

A – Every instance of a target behavior is reinforced when a continuous reinforcement (CRF) schedule is in effect.
Slot machines that pay off after a random number of lever pulls are an example of:

A. continuous reinforcement
B. variable interval reinforcement
C. fixed ratio reinforcement
D. variable ratio reinforcement
E. fixed interval reinforcement

D – Slot machines that pay off after a random number of lever pulls are an example of variable ratio reinforcement.
When a fixed number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs, it refers to:

A. continuous reinforcement
B. variable interval reinforcement
C. fixed ratio reinforcement
D. variable ratio reinforcement
E. fixed interval reinforcement

C – When a fixed number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs, it refers to fixed ratio reinforcement.
A _____ reinforcement schedule is said to be followed when a random number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs.

A. continuous
B. fixed interval
C. variable interval
D. fixed ratio
E. variable ratio

E – A variable ratio reinforcement schedule is said to be followed when a random number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs.
When the first response after a specific period of time has elapsed is reinforced, it refers to _____ reinforcement.

A. continuous
B. fixed ratio
C. fixed interval
D. variable ratio
E. variable interval

C – When the first response after a specific period of time has elapsed is reinforced, it refers to fixed interval reinforcement.
What type of reinforcement schedule is administered when the first response after random periods of time have elapsed is reinforced?

A. Fixed ratio
B. Fixed interval
C. Variable interval
D. Variable ratio
E. Continuous reinforcement

C – A variable interval is used when the first response after random periods of time have elapsed is reinforced.
Random supervisory praise for employees who have been doing a good job is an example of _____ reinforcement.

A. continuous
B. fixed ratio
C. fixed interval
D. variable ratio
E. variable interval

E – Random supervisory praise for employees who have been doing a good job is an example of variable interval reinforcement.
A(n) ____ is defined as two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms and goals and have a common identity.

A. group
B. social network
C. crowd
D. organization
E. society

A – Drawing from the field of sociology, we define a group as two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms and goals and have a common identity.
Drawing from the field of sociology, according to the definition of a group, how many individuals make up a group?

A. At least 10
B. Between 10 and 25
C. Two or more
D. No more than five
E. One is sufficient

C – Drawing from the field of sociology, we define a group as two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms and goals and have a common identity.
According to organizational psychologist Edgar Schein, which of the following would be considered a group?

A. A crowd on a street corner watching an event
B. A whole organization
C. A labor union
D. A committee
E. A total department

D – According to organizational psychologist Edgar Schein, the size of a group is limited by the possibilities of mutual interaction and mutual awareness. Mere aggregates of people do not fit this definition because they do not interact and do not perceive themselves to be a group even if they are aware of each other as, for instance, a crowd on a street corner watching some event. A total department, a union, or a whole organization would not be a group in spite of thinking of themselves as “we,” because they generally do not all interact and are not all aware of each other. However, work teams, committees, subparts of departments, cliques, and various other informal associations among organizational members would fit the definition of a group.
If the group is formed by a manager to help the organization accomplish its goals, then it qualifies as a(n) _____ group.

A. formal
B. informal
C. heterogeneous
D. primary
E. involuntary

A – If the group is formed by a manager to help the organization accomplish its goals, then it qualifies as a formal group.
A(n) _____ group exists when the members’ overriding purpose of getting together is friendship.

A. formal
B. informal
C. homogeneous
D. secondary
E. horizontal

B – An informal group exists when the members’ overriding purpose of getting together is friendship.
Formal groups fulfill two basic functions: _____ and:

A. organizational; individual
B. moral; motivational
C. teamwork; productivity
D. planning; organizing
E. affiliation; safety

A – Researchers point out that formal groups fulfill two basic functions: organizational and individual.
Which of the following is an individual function of a formal group?

A. Accomplish complex, interdependent tasks that are beyond the capabilities of individuals
B. Generate new or creative ideas and solutions
C. Provide a problem-solving mechanism for personal and interpersonal problems
D. Implement complex decisions
E. Socialize and train newcomers

C – One of the individual functions of formal groups is to provide a problem-solving mechanism for personal and interpersonal problems.
Which of the following is an organizational function of formal groups?

A. Satisfy the individual’s need for affiliation
B. Generate new or creative ideas and solutions
C. Reduce the individual’s anxieties and feelings of insecurity and powerlessness
D. Provide a problem-solving mechanism for personal and interpersonal problems
E. Give individuals an opportunity to test and share their perceptions of social reality

B – One of the organizational functions of formal groups is to generate new or creative
The fifth stage added later to Tuckman’s original model of group development was:

A. forming
B. norming
C. adjourning
D. performing
E. storming

C – One oft-cited model of group development is the one proposed in 1965 by educational psychologist Bruce W. Tuckman. His original model involved only four stages (forming, storming, norming, and performing). The five-stage model evolved when Tuckman and a doctoral student added “adjourning” in 1977 ideas or solutions.
Which of the following is the first stage of the group development model by Tuckman?

A. Performing
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Storming
E. Adjourning

B – The first stage of the group development model by Tuckman is forming.
Which of the following is most likely to occur during the forming stage of the group development process?

A. “Ice breaking”
B. “We feeling”
C. Testing of the leader’s policies
D. Development of a feeling of team spirit
E. Solving of task problems

A – Forming stage is also known as the “ice-breaking” stage of the group development process.
During which of the following stages of Tuckman’s group development process are group members uncertain and anxious about such things as their roles, the people in charge, and the group goals?

A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Adjourning
D. Performing
E. Storming

B – During the forming stage, group members tend to be uncertain and anxious about such things as their roles, the people in charge, and the group’s goals.
Mutual trust is low during which stage of the group development process?

A. Adjourning
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Unfreezing
E. Performing

C – During the forming stage, group members tend to be uncertain and anxious about such things as their roles, the people in charge, and the group’s goals. Mutual trust is low, and there is a good deal of holding back to see who takes charge and how.
The group issue of “Can we do the job properly?” is addressed in which stage of the group development process?

A. Adjourning
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Storming
E. Performing

E – The group issue of “Can we do the job properly?” is addressed during the performing stage of the group development process.
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in Tuckman’s group development model?

A. Storming, performing, norming, forming, and adjourning
B. Norming, storming, forming, adjourning, and performing
C. Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning
D. Norming, forming, storming, performing, and adjourning
E. Forming, performing, norming, storming, and adjourning

C – The correct sequence of stages in Tuckman’s group development model is: Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
The group issue of “Why are we here?” is addressed in which stage of Tuckman’s group development process?

A. Performing
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Storming
E. Adjourning

B – The group issue of “Why are we here?” is addressed in the forming stage of Tuckman’s group development process.
Flora was asked by her supervisor to represent the department on the newly formed work team, called “Quality of Work Life,” at Image Design, Inc. Flora’s issue of “Who’s in charge here?” on the work team will be addressed in which stage of Tuckman’s Group Development Process?

A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Adjourning
D. Norming
E. Forming

A – The group issue of “Why are we fighting over who is in charge and who does what?” is addressed in the storming stage of the group development process.
A search committee has been created at Dowell University to hire a new dean of the College of Business. During which stage of the group development process would the search committee address role agreements and start working as a team?

A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Adjourning
D. Norming
E. Forming

D – The group issue of “Can we agree on roles and work as a team?” is addressed in the norming stage of the group development process.
The individual issue of “How can I best execute my role?” is addressed in which stage of the group development process?

A. Adjourning
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Storming
E. Performing

E – The individual issue of “How can I best perform my role?” is addressed in the performing stage of the group development process.
During which of the following stages of Tuckman’s group development process do individuals test the leader’s policies and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure?

A. Adjourning
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Storming
E. Performing

D – Storming is a time of testing. Individuals test the leader’s policies and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure.
Which of the following would take place during the storming stage of the group development process?

A. Groups become cohesive
B. Subgroups take shape
C. Members break the ice
D. Mutual trust is developed between members
E. The assigned work is completed

B – During the storming stage of the group development process, subgroups take shape, and subtle forms of rebellion, such as procrastination, occur.
A “we feeling” that binds members of a group together is called:

A. group cohesiveness
B. escalation of commitment
C. groupthink
D. ostracism
E. cross-functionalism

A – Group cohesiveness, defined as the “we feeling” that binds members of a group together, is the principal by-product of stage 3.
A feeling of team spirit is first experienced during the _____ stage of the group development process.

A. forming
B. norming
C. performing
D. storming
E. adjourning

B – A feeling of team spirit is experienced during the norming stage because members believe they have found their proper roles. Group cohesiveness, defined as the “we feeling” that binds members of a group together, is the principal by-product of stage 3.
Group cohesiveness is the principal by-product of which stage of group development process?

A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming
E. Performing

A – Group cohesiveness, defined as the “we feeling” that binds members of a group together, is the principal by-product of stage 3, i.e., norming.
Activity during the _____ stage of the group development process is focused on solving task problems.

A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming
E. Performing

E – Activity during the performing stage of the group development process is focused on solving task problems.
A climate of open communication, strong cooperation, and lots of helping behavior is found during which of the following stages of group behavior?

A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming
E. Performing

E – Activity during the performing stage of the group development process is focused on solving task problems. There is a climate of open communication, strong cooperation, and lots of helping behavior.
During the adjourning stage of the group development process, leaders need to:

A. focus on developing mutual trust among the group members
B. emphasize valuable lessons learned in group dynamics
C. develop a feeling of team spirit
D. focus on personal commitment to group goals
E. test organizational policies and assumptions

B – During the adjourning stage of the group development process, leaders need to emphasize valuable lessons learned in group dynamics to prepare everyone for future group and team efforts.
Expected behaviors for a given position are called:

A. attitudes
B. roles
C. values
D. beliefs
E. norms

B – A role is a set of expected behaviors for a particular position, and a group role is a set of expected behaviors for members of the group as a whole.
A(n) _____ is a set of expected behaviors for a particular position, and a(n) _____ is a set of expected behaviors for members of the group as a whole.

A. role; task
B. task; role
C. induced norm; natural norm
D. role; group role
E. task; norm

D – A role is a set of expected behaviors for a particular position, and a group role is a set of expected behaviors for members of the group as a whole.
Which of the following enables a work group to define, clarify, and pursue a common purpose?

A. Maintenance roles
B. Performance norms
C. Group cohesiveness
D. Task roles
E. Values and beliefs

D – Task roles enable the work group to define, clarify, and pursue a common purpose. Maintenance roles foster supportive and constructive interpersonal relationships.
A project team member is performing a(n) _____ function when he/she says at an update meeting, “What is the real issue here? We don’t seem to be getting anywhere.”

A. informal
B. personal
C. maintenance
D. harmonizing
E. task

E – A project team member is performing a task function when he or she says at an update meeting, “What is the real issue here? We don’t seem to be getting anywhere.”
An individual who says, “Let’s hear from those who oppose this plan,” is performing a(n) _____ function.

A. evaluating
B. storming
C. informal
D. task
E. maintenance

E – An individual who says, “Let’s hear from those who oppose this plan,” is performing a maintenance function.
_____ roles keep the group on track while _____ roles keep the group together.

A. Maintenance; task
B. Initiator; elaborator
C. Task; maintenance
D. Compromiser; follower
E. Elaborator; initiator

C – Task roles keep the group on track while maintenance roles keep the group together.
Which of the following task roles are goal-directed roles?

A. Elaborator, gatekeeper, and orienter
B. Orienter, follower, and energizer
C. Recorder, evaluator, and harmonizer
D. Initiator, orienter, and energizer
E. Initiator, commentator, and energizer

D – The task roles of initiator, orienter, and energizer are goal-directed roles.
Which of the following is a maintenance role?

A. Initiator
B. Elaborator
C. Orienter
D. Encourager
E. Energizer

D – The roles of encourager, harmonizer, compromiser, gatekeeper, standard setter, commentator, and follower are considered maintenance roles.
Which of the following is a task role?

A. Encourager
B. Harmonizer
C. Compromiser
D. Gatekeeper
E. Coordinator

E – The roles of initiator, information seeker/giver, opinion seeker/giver, elaborator, coordinator, orienter, evaluator, energizer, procedural technician, and recorder are considered task roles.
Jenny’s role in her work group is to keep the group headed toward its stated goal. Jenny’s role can be described as that of a(n):

A. initiator
B. orienter
C. evaluator
D. gatekeeper
E. harmonizer

B – An orienter keeps the group headed toward its stated goal(s).
Harry encourages all his group members to participate in discussions. Harry’s role can be described as a(n):

A. evaluator
B. harmonizer
C. gatekeeper
D. compromiser
E. encourager

C – The role of a gatekeeper is to encourage all group members to participate.
Barny’s role in his work group is to promote greater understanding through examples or exploration of implications. Barny’s role can be described as that of a(n):

A. initiator
B. elaborator
C. coordinator
D. energizer
E. standard-setter

B – An elaborator promotes greater understanding through examples or exploration of implications.
Angelina is in charge of evaluating the quality of group processes. Angelina’s role can be described as a(n):

A. coordinator
B. recorder
C. elaborator
D. compromiser
E. standard setter

E – The role of a standard-setter is to evaluate the quality of the group processes
While _____ involve behavioral expectations for specific positions, _____ help organizational members determine right from wrong and good from bad.

A. norms; roles
B. values; beliefs
C. beliefs; values
D. values; roles
E. roles; norms

E – While roles involve behavioral expectations for specific positions, norms help organizational members determine right from wrong and good from bad.
According to one respected team of management consultants, which of the following refers to an attitude, opinion, feeling, or actions-shared by two or more people-that guides their behavior?

A. Norms
B. Roles
C. Cohesiveness
D. Leadership
E. Ostracism

A – According to one respected team of management consultants: “A norm is an attitude, opinion, feeling, or action—shared by two or more people—that guides their behavior.”
Rejection by other group members is called:

A. groupthink
B. ostracism
C. cohesiveness
D. cross-functionalism
E. social loafing

B – Nonconformists experience criticism and even ostracism, or rejection by group members. Anyone who has experienced the “silent treatment” from a group of friends knows what a potent social weapon ostracism can be.
Jon R. Katzenbach and Douglas K. Smith, management consultants at McKinsey & Company, define a team as “a _____ number of people with _____ skills who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable.”

A. large; dissimilar
B. small; dissimilar
C. large; complementary
D. small; complementary
E. large; maintenance

D – Jon R. Katzenbach and Douglas K. Smith, management consultants at McKinsey & Company, define a team as “a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable.”
A group becomes a team when:

A. one member of the group is selected as the leader
B. it is no longer held collectively accountable
C. it develops its own mission
D. problem solving is outsourced to individuals outside the group
E. effectiveness is measured by individual outcomes

C – Groups become a team when the group develops its own purpose or mission, leadership becomes a shared activity, the group develops its own purpose or mission, problem solving becomes a way of life, not a part-time activity, and effectiveness is measured by the group’s collective outcomes and products.
Relative to Tuckman’s theory of group development, teams are task groups that have matured to the _____ stage.

A. forming
B. storming
C. norming
D. performing
E. adjourning

D – Relative to Tuckman’s theory of group development—forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning—teams are task groups that have matured to the performing stage.
According to Jon R. Katzenbach and Douglas K. Smith, the essence of a team that differentiates it from a group is:

A. common commitment
B. when effectiveness is measured by individual outcomes
C. mutual interaction
D. mutual awareness
E. individual accountability

A – Because of conflicts over power and authority and unstable interpersonal relations, many work groups never qualify as a real team. Katzenbach and Smith clarified the distinction this way: “The essence of a team is common commitment. Without it, groups perform as individuals; with it, they become a powerful unit of collective performance.”
The three Cs of a team player include:

A. committed, clear, and congenial
B. competent, consistent, and collaborative
C. collaborative, congenial, and competitive
D. competent, committed, and collaborative
E. consistent, committed, and courteous

D – The three Cs of a team player include competent, committed, and collaborative.
_____ is a catchall term for a host of techniques aimed at improving the internal functioning of work groups.

A. Groupthink
B. Team building
C. Cross-functionalism
D. Social loafing
E. Self-management

B – Team building is a catchall term for a host of techniques aimed at improving the internal functioning of work groups.
Which of the following techniques of team building are discouraged by team builders who prefer active versus passive learning?

A. Interpersonal trust exercises
B. Conflict role-play sessions
C. Competitive games
D. Experiential learning techniques
E. Rote memorizations

E – Rote memorization and lectures or discussions are discouraged by team builders who prefer active versus passive learning. Greater emphasis is placed on how work groups get the job done than on the task itself. Experiential learning techniques such as interpersonal trust exercises, conflict role-play sessions, and competitive games are common if not expected.
Which of the following is a reciprocal faith that the intentions and behaviors of another will consider the implications for you?

A. Norms
B. Roles
C. Group roles
D. Trust
E. Teamwork

D – Trust is a reciprocal faith that the intentions and behaviors of another will consider the implications for you.
Groups of employees granted administrative oversight for their work are called _____ teams.

A. entrepreneurial
B. administrative
C. virtual
D. cross-functional
E. self-managed

E – Self-managed teams are defined as groups of workers who are given administrative oversight for their task domains.
A common feature of self-managed teams, particularly among those above the shop-floor or clerical level, in which specialists from different areas are put on the same team is known as:

A. administrative alignment
B. social loafing
C. groupthink
D. group cohesiveness
E. cross-functionalism

E – A common feature of self-managed teams, particularly among those above the shop-floor or clerical level, is cross-functionalism. In other words, specialists from different areas are put on the same team.
The work team at Babyshop, Inc., is made up of technical specialists from different areas of the company. This feature of the work team at Babyshop is referred to as:

A. cross-functionalism
B. administrative alignment
C. cohesiveness
D. groupthink
E. social loafing

A – A common feature of self-managed teams, particularly among those above the shop-floor or clerical level, is cross-functionalism. In other words, specialists from different areas are put on the same team.
_____ refers to a cohesive in-group’s unwillingness to realistically view alternatives.

A. Cross-functionalism
B. Groupthink
C. Social loafing
D. Ostracism
E. Emotional trust

B – Janis defines groupthink as “a mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group, when members’ strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action.” He adds, “Groupthink refers to a deterioration of mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment that results from in-group pressures.”
The tendency for individual effort to decline as group size increases refers to:

A. ostracism
B. groupthink
C. rationalization
D. cross-functionalism
E. social loafing

E – The tendency for individual effort to decline as group size increases has come to be called social loafing.
According to research, _____ is (are) the least commonly used means of social influence in the workplace.

A. exchange
B. ingratiation
C. consultation
D. legitimating tactics
E. personal appeals

D – According to research on the nine influence tactics and ranked in diminishing order of use in the workplace, legitimating tactics are the least commonly used.
Which of the following situations best illustrates an inspirational appeal?

A. Marge has veto power over choosing the board members and votes for Richard to be evicted from the board
B. Damien asks every member of the team to offer a measure that they think will improve the team’s performance
C. Denver is always helpful with tasks just before asking for a leave
D. June is asking her colleagues to reduce the carbon footprint by opting to join the carpool
E. Nick asks Sam to cover for him at work on account of them being best friends

D – Inspirational appeal is influencing others by appealing to emotions, ideals, or values.
Freya is trying to convince Angela, her superior, with reason, logic, and facts about why her approach to implementing the new sales plan should be used. Freya is using which of the following influence tactics?

A. Inspirational appeal
B. Ingratiation
C. Pressure
D. Consultation
E. Rational persuasion

E – Rational persuasion involves using reason, logic, or facts to try and convince someone.
Zeena has a tendency to use praise or flattery with her boss prior to making a request for her per diem invoice. Zeena is using which of the following influence tactics?

A. Inspirational appeal
B. Ingratiation
C. Pressure
D. Consultation
E. Rational persuasion

B – Ingratiation is the use of flattery, praise, and humor prior to making a request.
_____ refer(s) to getting others to support your effort to persuade someone.

A. Consultation
B. Personal appeals
C. Exchange
D. Coalition tactics
E. Legitimating tactics

D – Coalition tactics refer to getting others to support your effort to persuade someone.
Jeff, in his meeting with Adam, made the following remark: “Adam, we have been good friends for a long time. I value our friendship and trust your judgment and loyalty. I would like you to take up the transition of the process to the new platform.” Jeff is using which of the following influence tactics?

A. Consultation
B. Personal appeal
C. Exchange
D. Coalition tactics
E. Legitimating tactics

B – Personal appeals involve referring to friendship and loyalty when making a request.
Leslie, an employee at Mindtech Corp., is trying to get his company to provide free dinner for those employees who frequently have to stay back past midnight. He also wants to get special permission to swipe in late the next day. He gathers support from his team to persuade the manager to discuss this. Leslie is using:

A. personal appeals
B. consultation
C. inspirational appeals
D. coalition tactics
E. legitimating tactics

D – Coalition tactics involve getting others to support your efforts to persuade someone.
Which of the following is a “soft” influence tactic?

A. Exchange
B. Coalition
C. Pressure
D. Legitimating
E. Consultation

E – Consultation is “soft” tactic which involves getting others to participate in decisions, planning, and changes.
Yazmeen wants to take things slow and use “soft” tactics with her team which mostly has newcomers. Which of the following influence tactics should she avoid?

A. Consultation
B. Strong rational persuasion
C. Inspirational appeals
D. Coalition tactics
E. Ingratiation

D – Rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, ingratiation, and personal appeals are called “soft” tactics because they are friendlier and not as coercive as the “hard” tactics.
Which the following influence tactics is referred to as a “soft” tactic?

A. Consultation
B. Coalition tactics
C. Legitimating tactics
D. Pressure
E. Exchange

A – Rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, ingratiation, and personal appeals are called “soft” tactics because they are friendlier and not as coercive as the “hard” tactics.
As a manager, if Sharon wants to steer clear of using “hard” influence tactics, which of the following should she avoid?

A. Inspirational appeals
B. Coalition tactics
C. Personal appeals
D. Ingratiation
E. Rational persuasion

B – Exchange, coalition, pressure, and legitimating tactics are called “hard” tactics because they involve more overt pressure than “soft” tactics.
According to researchers, the three possible outcomes of an influence attempt are:

A. respect, fear, and denial
B. friendship, trust, and interest
C. commitment, compliance, and resistance
D. promotion, transfer, and demotion
E. satisfaction, turnover, and dissatisfaction

C – According to researchers, an influence attempt has three possible outcomes: commitment, compliance, and resistance.
A belief that people should be paid back for their positive and negative acts is part of the _____ principle identified by Cialdini.

A. reciprocity
B. social power
C. expert power
D. empowerment
E. coalition

A – The belief that both good and bad deeds should be repaid in kind is a part of the reciprocity principle identified by Cialdini.
Adel is very religious and believes strongly in the principles of Karma. He believes “what goes around comes around” and always asks his team to work in accordance with this principle. According to Cialdini, Adel believes in the principle of:

A. liking
B. authority
C. reciprocity
D. consistency
E. social proof

C – The belief that both good and bad deeds should be repaid in kind is a part of the reciprocity principle identified by Cialdini.
At Micro Systems, a firm of 40 employees, only 5 percent of them are eligible for a 5-star rating in their performance evaluation. This entitles them to additional privileges and use of the company club free of cost for a quarter. The company is using the principle of _____ to influence their employees.

A. reciprocity
B. consistency
C. social proof
D. scarcity
E. authority

D – According to Cialdini’s principle of scarcity, people want items, information, and opportunities that have limited availability.
William is a team leader for the sales department at Target Corp. He calls a team meeting every morning and asks each of his employees for an individual target number they are willing to commit to for the day. According to Cialdini, William is using the principle of:

A. reciprocity
B. authority
C. social proof
D. consistency
E. liking

D – Cialdini’s principle of consistency states that people tend to do what they are personally committed to do.
_____ refers to the ability to get things done with human, informational, and material resources.

A. Consistency
B. Social power
C. Social proof
D. Empowerment
E. Open-book management

B – Social power is defined as “the ability to marshal the human, informational, and material resources to get something done.”
As operations head, Nannette is implementing pay-for-performance and positive reinforcement programs at ValueTech Center. Nannette is attempting to exploit which power?

A. Coercive
B. Expert
C. Referent
D. Reward
E. Legitimate

D – Pay-for-performance plans and positive reinforcement practices attempt to exploit reward power.
Threats of punishment and actual punishment give an individual _____ power.

A. referent
B. legitimate
C. reward
D. expert
E. coercive

E – Threats of punishment and actual punishment give an individual coercive power.
Which the following is NOT a power base suggested by French and Raven?

A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Informational
D. Legitimate
E. Reward

C – John French and Bertram Raven proposed that there are five bases of power: reward power, coercive power, legitimate power, expert power, and referent power.
It was widely known that Kaylie obtained compliance from her employees primarily because of her formal position and authority. Kaylie can be described as having _____ power.

A. referent
B. legitimate
C. reward
D. expert
E. coercive

B – This base of power is what people think of as authority and is anchored to one’s formal position.
The Federal Trade Commission filed suit against Gateway Learning Corp. The FTC alleged that Gateway committed unfair and deceptive trade practices. It has been selling customer information without informing customers of this fact. This is an example of the FTC using _____ power.

A. expert
B. legitimate
C. coercive
D. reward
E. referent

C – Threats of punishment and actual punishment give an individual coercive power.
Edgar is a police officer. He extorts protection money from storeowners on behalf of the local Mafia. He is using:

A. coercive power
B. expert power
C. referent power
D. negative legitimate power
E. reward power

D – Negative legitimate power tends to be threatening and demeaning to those being influenced. Its main purpose is to build the power holder’s ego.
Celebrities like Michael Jackson and Kurt Cobain have a huge fan following. Due to his, they can be said to have _____ power over the masses.

A. expert
B. legitimate
C. referent
D. coercive
E. reward

C – Referent power comes into play when one’s personal characteristics become the reason for compliance.
Rebecca is a trainer with Microsoft and has complete knowledge of the company and its processes. She often trains junior and senior employees of the firm on different topics. She is said to have _____ power over her trainees.

A. expert
B. referent
C. coercive
D. legitimate
E. reward

A – Valued knowledge or information gives an individual expert power over those who need such knowledge or information.
According to research, which of the following power bases have a slightly negative effect on work outcomes such as performance, satisfaction, and turnover?

A. Expert power
B. Reward power
C. Legitimate power
D. Referent power
E. Coercive power

E – According to researchers, coercive power have a slightly negative effect on work outcomes.
_____ was found to be a highly acceptable managerial influence tactic because employees perceived it to be associated with the three bases of power they viewed positively: legitimate, expert, and referent.

A. Rational persuasion
B. Coalition
C. Ingratiation
D. Legitimating
E. Exchange

A – Rational persuasion was found to be a highly acceptable managerial influence tactic because employees perceived it to be associated with the three bases of power they viewed positively: legitimate, expert, and referent.
In which of the following instances is open-book management likely to succeed?

A. A team of employees between whom there are high levels of suspicion and insecurity about supervisors
B. Assembly line employees who each have specialized functions in making watches
C. A team of employees who are newly inducted into a company, and handed a list of strict “Do’s and Don’ts.”
D. Employees of a team who prefer a low degree of responsibility
E. A team of employees who have had years of experience working together and are looking to improvise

E – An exciting trend in today’s organizations centers on giving employees a greater say in the workplace. This trend wears various labels, including “participative management” and “open-book management.” Regardless of the label one prefers, it is all about empowerment. The design of work, the level of trust between management and employees, and the employees’ competence and readiness to participate represent three factors that influence the effectiveness of participative management or open-book management.
Which of the following statements is true of organizational politics?

A. It can be eliminated
B. It is a form of influence characterized by an emphasis on self-interest
C. It does not serve the interests of the organization
D. Senior employees tend to be more political than junior ones
E. The political aspects of coalitions and networks are the most obvious

B – An emphasis on self-interest distinguishes organizational politics as a form of social influence.
Which of the following forms of social influence involves intentional enhancement of self-interest?

A. Empowerment
B. Reward power
C. Personal appeal
D. Referent power
E. Organizational politics

E – Emphasis on self-interest distinguishes organizational politics from other forms of social influence.
Political maneuvering is triggered by uncertainty due to:

A. unclear objectives
B. high ingratiation
C. personal appeal
D. lack of change
E. reward power

A – Political maneuvering is triggered primarily by uncertainty.
Which the following is NOT a common source of uncertainty within organizations?

A. Any type of change
B. Lack of individual or group competition
C. Unclear objectives
D. Vague performance measures
E. Ill-defined decision processes

B – Five common sources of uncertainty within organizations are: unclear objectives, vague performance measures, ill-defined decision processes, strong individual or group competition, any type of change.
A political coalition:

A. consists of a group of individuals pursuing a single issue
B. always coincides with formal membership
C. has a very clear structure and is permanent
D. involves cooperative pursuit of general self-interests
E. is a weak force in the organization

A – A coalition is an informal group bound together by the active pursuit of a single issue.
Cooperative pursuit of group interests in specific issues is a characteristic of political action at the _____ level.

A. network
B. coalition
C. individual
D. system
E. covenant

B – Cooperative pursuit of group interests in specific issues is a characteristic of political action at the coalition level.
Cooperative pursuit of general self-interests is a characteristic of political action at the _____ level.

A. network
B. coalition
C. individual
D. covenant
E. economic

A – Cooperative pursuit of general self-interests is a characteristic of political action at the network level.
Identify the correct statement about the different levels of political action in organizations.

A. Networks pivot on specific issues
B. Politically, networks are issue-oriented
C. Politically, coalitions are people-oriented
D. Networks have longer-term agendas than do coalitions
E. Coalitions are loose associations of individuals seeking social support for their general self-interests

D – Politically, networks are people-oriented, while coalitions are issue-oriented.
Which of the following statements is true of network-level politics?

A. They consist of a group of close-knit individuals
B. They are mostly people-oriented
C. They have a short-term agenda
D. There is a cooperative pursuit of group interests in specific issues
E. They have clear boundaries and are permanent

B – Politically, networks are people-oriented, while coalitions are issue-oriented.
When organizations indulge in scapegoating, the political tactic being used is:

A. coalition
B. networking
C. reactive
D. proactive
E. corrective

C – The researchers distinguished between reactive and proactive political tactics. Some of the tactics, such as scapegoating, were reactive because the intent was to defend one’s self-interest.
Bob is a quality analyst for a content management firm. He passes a project done by one of the new hires as he is in a hurry to leave for a formal function at his home. Later, when there is a client complaint, he puts all the blame on the new hire. This is an example of _____ politics.

A. retroactive
B. moral
C. coalition
D. network
E. reactive

E – Some political tactics used in organizations are called reactive because the intent is to defend one’s self-interest.
According to research, which of the following political tactics occurs most in organizations?

A. Reciprocity
B. Associating with peers who have little or no influence in the organization
C. Using information as a knowledge tool
D. Influence sharing
E. Attacking or blaming others

E – Research involving several hundred thousand managers from every industry sector in the United States shows that 70 percent of the population tends to assign blame for failures in one of the following three ways: (1) blame others, (2) blame oneself, or (3) deny blame.
_____ refers to getting others to see us in a certain manner.

A. Ingratiation
B. Impression management
C. Reciprocity
D. Personal appeal
E. Organizational politics

B – Impression management is defined as any attempt to control or manipulate the images related to a person, organization, or ideas.
In 1982, seven deaths occurred in the Chicago area; the only link between the deaths was that each of the persons had consumed Tylenol. It was found that the Tylenol packets had been laced with cyanide. Johnson & Johnson, the manufacturer of the drug, took immediate steps to distribute warnings to hospitals, distributors, and also did a nationwide recall of Tylenol products. It also halted Tylenol production and advertising. This is an apt example of:

A. network-level politics
B. individual-level politics
C. personal appeal
D. impression management
E. influence sharing

D – Impression management is defined as any attempt to control or manipulate the images related to a person, organization, or ideas.
Which of the following statements is true of impression management in the workplace?

A. Manipulating information about one’s job performance leads to unfavorable downward impression management
B. Most employees today do not need any kind of impression management
C. Too little impression management leads to employees being branded a “schmoozer” or “phony.”
D. Praising and doing favors for one’s supervisor leads to unfavorable downward impression management
E. Favorable upward impression management tactics can be self-focused

E – Favorable upward impression management tactics can be job-focused, supervisor-focused, and self-focused.
Which the following is a situation in which a bad impression is avoided?

A. Jamie works extra hours to ensure that the weekly report is completely error-free
B. Dominic points out all the ways a new initiative can fall apart, when asked to work on it
C. Marge always agrees to take up more work than she can finish from her supervisors
D. Tanja prefers not to respond or stays in the background until people forget they asked her a question
E. Mickey holds out until the very end to let his supervisor know that he will not be able to work on a project

A – Going the extra mile always conveys a positive impression to the employer.
All of the following help employees convey a good impression EXCEPT:

A. overcommitting
B. having a positive mind-set
C. prioritizing and delivering
D. taking initiatives
E. supportive leadership

A – Initiative is often good, but biting off more than you can chew (overcommitting) means you might choke. The inability to deliver on-time or quality work is a sure way to make a bad impression.
A moderate amount of _____ impression management is a necessity for _____ today.

A. upward; top management
B. diagonal; customers
C. upward; the average employee
D. downward; consultants
E. upward; all employees

C – A moderate amount of upward impression management is a necessity for all employees today.
A favorable upward impression management tactic can be:

A. interest-focused, nature-focused, or issue-focused
B. coalition-focused, people-focused, or network-focused
C. plan-focused, objective-focused, or politics-focused
D. Issue-focused, individual-focused, or network-focused
E. job-focused, supervisor-focused, or self-focused

E – Favorable upward impression management tactics can be job-focused, supervisor-focused, and self-focused.
Impression management at the organizational level, which often involves “managing the message,” is called:

A. participative management
B. open-book management
C. public relations
D. reciprocity
E. personal appeal

C – Public relations (PR) is impression management at the organizational level and often involves “managing the message,” such as reducing the damage of bad press associated with a scandal.
Which of the following is the wrong usage of a crisis-handling strategy of an organization, thus damaging its public relations?

A. Deciding on how information is to be gathered
B. Downplaying the problem to avoid damages
C. Being understanding and empathetic
D. Careful formulation of response
E. Identifying the media channels to deliver the message

B – An organization’s crisis plan should include how information is to be gathered, how to formulate a response, who will deliver the message and via which media channels. They should also be careful not to minimize a given problem and be understanding and empathetic.
_____ is (are) a form of trust repair where one acknowledges an offense and often offers to make amends.

A. Apologies
B. Political actions
C. Personal appeals
D. Ingratiation
E. Public relations

A – Apologies are a form of trust repair where one acknowledges an offense and often offers to make amends.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective apology?

A. Downplaying a wrongdoing
B. Shifting of responsibility
C. Avoiding promises
D. Waiting till the last minute
E. Requesting for forgiveness

E – All effective apologies express regret over a mistake.
The purpose of an institutional apology is to:

A. repair relations with an external group that perceived harm by a member of the leader’s group
B. request for forgiveness and redemption for regrettable action
C. encourage followers to forgive and forget
D. restore functioning within a group when one member offends another
E. minimize a given problem

D – The purpose of an institutional apology is to restore functioning within a group when one member offends another.
A moral apology is warranted when:

A. one leader offends another
B. the follower of an organization offends another member of the organization
C. a follower of an institution offends an external party
D. followers cannot forgive or forget
E. there is a genuine regret for a wrongdoing that was committed

E – A moral apology is warranted when there is a genuine regret for a wrongdoing that was committed.
Which of the following situations calls for an intergroup apology?

A. A well-known celebrity seriously injured an individual in a drunken driving incident
B. A student of a university sorority makes fun of another student’s personal habits during a presentation
C. A senior officer of law calls African Americans “aggressive and violent” at a press conference
D. A serial killer makes a public apology out of deep-felt remorse for his actions
E. A prominent follower of a Hispanic leader assaults a member of the Latino community

E – An intergroup apology repairs relations when the follower of one group offends an external party.
A meta-analysis on keeping organizational politics in check revealed that perceptions of organizational politics were negatively associated with:

A. job satisfaction
B. job stress
C. intentions to quit
D. job dissatisfaction
E. low wages

A – A meta-analysis revealed that perceptions of organizational politics were negatively associated with job satisfaction and organizational commitment, and positively related to job stress and intentions to quit
Feedback should be:

A. used to punish employees
B. given at the end of a year or on a half-yearly basis
C. given about things that are beyond the individual’s control
D. delivered as soon as possible to the time the behavior was displayed
E. negative as far as possible since negative feedback tends to motivate individuals

D –