Marketing Research Final Combined

If a population is defined as all pickup truck owners residing in Tippecanoe County.
a. asking 100 owners their attitude toward a new truck style would be an example of a consensus.
b. asking 80 owners their attitude toward a new gun rack design would be an example of a sample.
c. asking all owners their attitude toward a new truck style would be an example of universal testing.
d. asking only owners listed in the telephone directory would be an example of a sampling frame.
e. None of the above are true.
b. asking 80 owners their attitude toward a new gun rack design would be an example of a sample
The first step that must be executed in drawing a sample is to
a. determine the sample size.
b. define the population.
c. select a sampling procedure.
d. select the sample elements.
e. identify the sampling frame.
b. define the population.
The following list contains the six-step procedure for drawing a sample. Select the proper order for this procedure.

A. Collect the data from the designated elements.
B. Identify the sampling frame.
C. Define the population.
D. Determine the sample size.
E. Select a sampling procedure.
F. Select the sample elements.

a. C, B, D, E, F, A
b. B, C, D, E, F, A
c. F, D, B, E, C, A
d. C, B, E, D, F, A
e. D, C, B, E, F, A

d. C, B, E, D, F, A (DISDSC)
A sampling frame
a. is a list of population elements from which the sample will be drawn.
b. is the list of population elements actually included in the sample.
c. usually provides biased statistics.
d. is a form of probability sampling.
e. is a form of nonprobability sampling.
a. is a list of population elements from which the sample will be drawn.
The distinguishing feature of probability samples is that
a. they involve personal judgment somewhere in the selection of sample elements.
b. each population element has an equal chance of being included in the sample.
c. each population element has an equal chance of being included in the sample and every combination of n population elements is a sample possibility.
d. each population element has a known chance of being included in the sample.
e. they will always be more representative of the population than nonprobability samples.
d. each population element has a known chance of being included in the sample.
A researcher collects a small sample and finds that he does not have sufficient evidence to draw a conclusion. He then makes additional observations and finds this evidence inconclusive. He continues making observations until a conclusion can be drawn. He is using
a. random sampling
b. fixed sampling
c. sequential sampling
d. the principle of diminishing utility
e. nonprobability sampling
c. sequential sampling
The distinguishing feature of nonprobability sampling plans is that
a. they allow an assessment of sampling error
b. they are not as representative of the population as probability samples
c. they involve personal judgement somewhere in the selection of sample elements
d. there is only one basic type of nonprobability sample while there are several types of probability samples
e. they tend to be more expensive than probability samples
c. they involve personal judgement somewhere in the selection of sample elements
Snowball samples are an example of
a. convenience sampling.
b. judgement sampling.
c. quota sampling.
d. simple random sampling.
e. stratified sampling.
b. judgement sampling.
A researcher wants to study the effects of social class on consumption behavior. He establishes three different categories of social class in terms of amount of income. He then assigns each field worker a specified number of interviews with people in each income category although the interviewers are allowed to select whom they interview. This is an example of
a. random sampling.
b. systematic sampling.
c. area sampling.
d. quota sampling.
e. probability sampling.
d. quota sampling.
A researcher divides the population of the purchasers of brand X into heavy and light users. He then chooses a random sample independently from each group. This is an example of ____ sampling.
a. nonprobability
b. random
c. judgmental
d. stratified
e. quota
d. stratified
With proportionate stratified sampling, the number of elements selected from each stratum
a. is in direct proportion to the relative number of elements in each stratum in the population.
b. is in direct proportion to the relative variability of the characteristic in each stratum in the population.
c. varies directly with the heterogeneity of each stratum.
d. varies directly with the homogeneity of each stratum.
e. is none of the above.
a. is in direct proportion to the relative number of elements in each stratum in the population.
The error associated with the estimation of a population parameter from a sample statistic is
a. standard deviation.
b. variance.
c. standard error.
d. mean square error.
e. c and d.
c. standard error.
Sample size depends upon
a. the type of sample.
b. the statistic in question.
c. the homogeneity of the population.
d. a and c.
e. a, b, and c.
e. a, b, and c.
A researcher investigating the consumption of sugar takes a random sample from the population and computes the mean sugar consumption. He repeats the procedure a number of times using the exact same procedure, and finds the means obtained vary from sample to sample. This is an example of
a. systematic error.
b. sampling error.
c. nonsampling error.
d. noncoverage error.
e. response error.
b. sampling error.
Nonsampling errors
a. are as identifiable as sampling errors.
b. decrease with sample size.
c. may increase with sample size.
d. exhibit well behaved functional forms.
e. do not affect sample statistic estimates
c. may increase with sample size.
One difference between sampling and nonsampling errors is that as sample size increases, sampling errors will ____ while nonsampling errors ____.
a. decrease; may even increase
b. increase; decrease
c. remain the same; may even increase
d. increase; remain the same
e. decrease; remain the same
a. decrease; may even increase
Sampling errors can be decreased by
a. decreasing the number of observations.
b. increasing the sample size.
c. using a randomized experimental design.
d. using a Latin Square experimental design.
e. using a quota sample.
b. increasing the sample size.
An observation error is the
a. difference between the reported value and the “true” value.
b. failure to obtain information from some elements of the population which were selected from the sample.
c. duplication in the list of sample units.
d. failure to include some units of the defined survey population in the actual sampling frame.
e. difference between the observed values of a variable and the long-run average of the observed values in repetitions of the measurement.
a. difference between the reported value and the “true” value.
Failure to include some units, or entire sections, of the defined survey population in the actual operational sampling frame represents
a. noncoverage errors.
b. nonresponse errors.
c. sampling errors.
d. random errors.
e. observation errors.
a. noncoverage errors.
Let
1 = no answer
2 = not at home when contacted
3 = disconnected
4 = refused to participate in the study

Which of them contribute to the nonresponse bias in a telephone survey?
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 2, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4

e. 1, 2, 3, 4
Common methods to reduce not-at-homes include all of the following, EXCEPT
a. make advance appointments with the respondent
b. a callback at a different time than the initial call.
c. leaving a questionnaire if the respondent is not at home.
d. better interviewer training.
e. All of the above are common methods of reducing not-at-homes.
e. All of the above are common methods of reducing not-at-homes.
The number provided by the calculation, number of sample units contacted divided by the total number of sample units approached is commonly called
a. the response rate.
b. the contact rate.
c. the completeness rate.
d. the refusal rate.
e. the nonresponse rate.
b. the contact rate.
Which of the following does NOT need to occur for respondents to answer questions put to them?
a. understand what is being asked
b. process the information cognitively
c. retrieve the pertinent facts
d. evaluate the response in terms of its accuracy
e. all of the above need to occur
e. all of the above need to occur
The primary way to control for the potential bias due to interviewers’ attitudes, opinions, perceptions, etc., is through
a. matching the backgrounds of the interviewer and interviewee.
b. training the interviewer.
c. recruiting interviewers with similar socioeconomic backgrounds.
d. conducting the survey using a rigid set of procedures that the interviewers must follow.
e. requiring the interviewer to complete the questionnaire so that it can be determined if there is a pattern between the interviewer’s answers and the answers he or she secures when administering the questionnaire.
b. training the interviewer.
Which type of cheating is most detectable with normal validation procedures?
a. The interviewer asks only the key questions and fills in the remaining information later.
b. The interviewer interviews respondents in groups rather than separately as instructed.
c. The interviewer fabricates the whole interview.
d. The interviewer interviews the “wrong” respondent because the designated respondent is unavailable.
e. The interviewer employs one contact for information for two separate studies and thereby introduces contamination through respondent fatigue.
c. The interviewer fabricates the whole interview.
Which of the following are office errors?
a. not-at-homes
b. refusals
c. interviewer cheating
d. coding errors
e. response errors
d. coding errors
Which of the following characteristics does NOT affect the content of the research report?
a. The reader’s technical sophistication.
b. The reader’s interest.
c. The circumstances surrounding the research.
d. The intended use of the report.
e. They all affect the content.
e. They all affect the content.
The criteria by which a report will be judged include all of the following except:
a. complete
b. accuracy
c. conciseness
d. statistical sophistication
e. all of the above are report criteria
d. statistical sophistication
Which of the following is FALSE?
a. The research report represents the end product of the research process. No matter what the proficiency with which all previous steps have been dispatched, the project will be no more successful than the research report.
b. The audience determines the type of report. Researchers must make every effort to acquaint themselves with the specific preferences of their audience. They should not consider these preferences as unalterable, but any deviations from them should be made with reason and not from ignorance.
c. The fundamental criterion by which research reports are evaluated is communication with the reader.
d. The technical capacity of the reader is unimportant as far as the research report is concerned. Rather, the reader’s interest is critical in determining the content of the report. An interested reader should be expected to overcome any difficulties he or she might have in understanding the report because of limited technical expertise.
e. All of the above statements are true.
d. The technical capacity of the reader is unimportant as far as the research report is concerned. Rather, the reader’s interest is critical in determining the content of the report. An interested reader should be expected to overcome any difficulties he or she might have in understanding the report because of limited technical expertise.
Which of the following is FALSE?
a. A good test of a summary is self-sufficient in that a summary should not require the appended full report but should be able to stand on its own.
b. In general, it is not desirable for the researcher to draw conclusions in the written report. Rather they should limit their reports to presentation of the facts and should let the reader draw his or her own inferences from this presentation.
c. The good summary in a research report contains the necessary introductory information to provide background, and the important results and conclusions.
d. The true summary is an abstract of the whole report in which everything is restated in condensed form.
e. As a general rule, the research report with wide distribution will require a more extensive introduction than a report for a narrow audience since a major purpose of the introduction is to provide the background information the reader needs to appreciate the discussion in the body of the report.
b. In general, it is not desirable for the researcher to draw conclusions in the written report. Rather they should limit their reports to presentation of the facts and should let the reader draw his or her own inferences from this presentation.
Consider the measurement model: Y0 = YT + YS + YR. In verbal terms, the model indicates
a. a measurement (Y) at time zero (Y0) is a function of (Y) at time T (YT) plus the change due to the factors YS and YR.
b. a measurement (Y0) is a function of the true score plus systematic error.
c. a measurement (Y0) is a function of the true score plus random error.
d. a measurement (Y0) is a function of the true score plus systematic error plus random error.
e. a measurement always equals the true score
d. a measurement (Y0) is a function of the true score plus systematic error plus random error.
Validity is
a. concerned with the relationships of random error with systematic error.
b. equal to the true score plus the systematic error.
c. equal to the true score plus systematic error minus random error.
d. concerned with the extent to which differences in scores reflect true differences in the characteristic.
e. concerned with the extent to which differences in scores reflect instability in the measurements.
d. concerned with the extent to which differences in scores reflect true differences in the characteristic.
Split-half reliability as typically applied is a measure of
a. the internal consistency of the scale.
b. relatively stable characteristics of the individual which affect his score.
c. the simultaneous correlations of all the items.
d. stability and equivalence.
e. none of the above.
a. the internal consistency of the scale.
Which of the following might NOT be considered a benefit of using secondary data?
a. Secondary data help to state better the problem under investigation.
b. Secondary data cost less to collect than primary data.
c. Secondary data can suggest improved methods or data for addressing the research problem.
d. Secondary data provide comparative data to which primary data can be compared.
e. Secondary data better fit the problem under investigation.
e. Secondary data better fit the problem under investigation.
All of the following are criteria by which to judge the accuracy of secondary data EXCEPT
a. the ability of the sponsoring organization to collect the data.
b. the source.
c. the general evidence regarding quality.
d. the purpose of publication.
e. all of the above are criteria that should be used to judge the accuracy of secondary data.
e. all of the above are criteria that should be used to judge the accuracy of secondary data.
Secondary data rarely fit perfectly the researcher’s particular problem. Some of the sources of lack of fit are
a. out-of-date statistics, differences in units of measurement, differences in class boundaries.
b. differences in units of measurement, theories of measurement, and class boundaries.
c. differences in evaluations of what is important.
d. None of the above
a. out-of-date statistics, differences in units of measurement, differences in class boundaries.
Which of the following are examples of secondary data (as contrasted with primary data)?
a. Demographic information (birth, age, marriage, income, etc.) collected from a sample of respondents as a part of market segmentation study for a prominent grocery chain.
b. Housing data (tenure, race of occupants, year built, etc.) as reported in the Journal of Marketing and later used by a researcher working on a project for a construction company.
c. Housing data especially collected from a sample by a researcher working on a project for a construction company.
d. Consumer attitudes as measured by an attitude questionnaire designed and used by a researcher investigating a model of consumer behavior.
e. None of the above.
b. Housing data (tenure, race of occupants, year built, etc.) as reported in the Journal of Marketing and later used by a researcher working on a project for a construction company.
BehaviorScan is an attempt to gain what advantage(s) that mail diaries have over scanners?
a. speed
b. matching of demographic characteristics to purchase behavior
c. unbiased response
d. cost
e. all of the above
b. matching of demographic characteristics to purchase behavior
The NAICS codes:
a. will be used along with SIC codes
b. will replace SIC codes
c. are used along with editing and tabulating data
d. increase the data reliability
e. are only for the U.S.A.
b. will replace SIC codes
Which of the following can be used to measure knowledge of an advertisement?
a. unaided recall
b. aided recall
c. recognition
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the communication method in comparison to the observation method of data collection?
a. accuracy
b. cost
c. speed
d. versatility
e. they are all advantages of the communication method.
a. accuracy
The observation method
a. cannot measure all consumer characteristics precisely but can give very good estimates for awareness, intentions, motivations, and past behavior.
b. is limited in that only behaviors can be observed.
c. is considered to be more objective than the communication method.
d. is a faster means of data collection than the communication method because a detailed questionnaire does not have to be prepared, and observers can quickly record many observations.
e. requires development of sophisticated procedures to be effective.
c. is considered to be more objective than the communication method.
The responses as well as questions are standardized in
a. an unstructured-disguised questionnaire.
b. an unstructured-undisguised questionnaire.
c. a structured-undisguised questionnaire.
d. all of the above.
e. b and c above.
c. a structured-undisguised questionnaire.
With unstructured-undisguised questionnaires
a. the purpose of the study is open ended.
b. the purpose of the study is not communicated to the respondents.
c. the purpose of the study is clear but the responses to the questions are open ended.
d. the purpose of the study is clear but the responses to the questions are dichotomous.
e. the purpose of the study is to define the responses which are open ended.
c. the purpose of the study is clear but the responses to the questions are open ended.
Structured-disguised questionnaires typically rest on some proposition regarding the role of attitude in the person’s mental and psychological make-up. One proposition holds, for example, that
a. an individual’s knowledge, perception and memory are conditioned by his attitudes and thus in order to assess his attitudes, we should ask him what he knows.
b. an individual’s attitudes are conditioned by his knowledge and thus in order to find out what he knows we should ask him about his attitudes.
c. greater knowledge reflects the strength and direction of attitudes.
d. there is no relation between knowledge and attitude.
c. greater knowledge reflects the strength and direction of attitudes.
Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Advantages of the mall intercept approach include the speed and ease with which a study can be implemented.
b. The advantages of CRT administration of questionnaires have helped telephone interviews become the most popular data collection technique.
c. The slower speed of data collection and processing with computer-assisted interviewing is offset by the increased accuracy of the responses.
d. One of the benefits of the computer-aided interview (CAI) is increased accuracy in the results.
e. E-mail administered questionnaires provide more control than regular mail questionnaires in getting a reply from the intended respondent.
c. The slower speed of data collection and processing with computer-assisted interviewing is offset by the increased accuracy of the responses.
Which of the following statements are NOT true of mall intercepts?
a. Due to the biased nature of the sampling frame, mall intercepts have become less popular with marketers in recent years.
b. One problem with a mall intercept approach is that not everyone shops at malls.
c. One problem with a mall intercept approach is that the frequency with which a person shops at a mall affects his or her likelihood of being asked to participate in the study.
d. All of the above are true of mall intercepts.
a. Due to the biased nature of the sampling frame, mall intercepts have become less popular with marketers in recent years.
Which of the following is NOT a current use for computer-aided interviewing (CAI) software?
a. telephone surveys where each interviewer has a computer from which to ask questions
b. in-person interviews where the respondent can respond to questions as they appear on the computer screen
c. mail administration where the questionnaire is sent on diskette to the respondent who completes the questionnaire and returns the diskette by mail
d. interviews in conjunction with mall intercepts where the respondent responds to questions as they appear on the monitor
e. all of the above are current uses for CAI software
e. all of the above are current uses for CAI software
Which of the following would NOT be considered a disadvantage of computer-assisted interviewing?
a. inability to explain ambiguous questions
b. cannot solicit lengthy responses
c. cannot probe respondents to clarify vague responses
d. disk-by-mail administration is only useful for respondents who have computers
e. all of the above are disadvantages of computer-assisted interviewing
e. all of the above are disadvantages of computer-assisted interviewing
Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Telephone interviews are generally the fastest of the three types of data collection by questionnaire.
b. Personal interviews and telephone interviews can produce interviewer bias.
c. Sequence bias is a more acute problem with personal and telephone interviews than with mail questionnaires.
d. The problems of interviewer bias in a telephone survey are more easily solved than in a personal interview.
e. Personal interviews present more administrative problems than mail questionnaires or telephone interviews.
c. Sequence bias is a more acute problem with personal and telephone
Which of the following items is associated with administrative control?
a. cost
b. speed
c. directing the inquiry to the designated respondent
d. a and b above
d. a and b above
The first step in designing a questionnaire is to
a. determine the type of questionnaire and method of administration.
b. specify what information will be sought.
c. determine the content of individual questions.
d. determine the form of response to each question.
e. determine the wording of each question.
b. specify what information will be sought.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. A “filter” question can be used to determine if a questionnaire respondent is familiar with a certain topic.
b. Any questionnaire response is a good response.
c. Telescoping error refers to the fact that people tend to remember only events that have occurred rather recently.
d. An optimal reference period used for framing questions is about one year.
e. They are all false.
a. A “filter” question can be used to determine if a questionnaire respondent is familiar with a certain topic.
Which of the following about questionnaire design is TRUE?
a. Not including a “no opinion” category may force respondents to take a stand on an issue on which they have no opinion. This can introduce response error.
b. Including an “other” alternative for a multiple-choice question frees the researcher from having to make sure the list of alternatives is exhaustive.
c. Dichotomous questions typically have a “don’t know” or “no opinion” category.
d. Dichotomous questions have considerably more advantages than multiple choice questions primarily due to their simplicity.
a. Not including a “no opinion” category may force respondents to take a stand on an issue on which they have no opinion. This can introduce response error.
Which of the following does NOT affect a respondent’s willingness to produce a response?
a. amount of work involved
b. the person’s ability to articulate an answer
c. the sensitivity of the issue
d. the individual’s ability to remember the event
e. a through d all affect a respondent’s willingness to provide a response
e. a through d all affect a respondent’s willingness to provide a response
What is wrong with this question?

What is your annual income? (please check)
$10,000 – $25,000
$25,000 – $40,000
$40,000 – $50,000
$50,000 – $75,000

a. The categories are not of equal ranges.
b. The alternatives are not exhaustive.
c. The categories are not mutually exclusive.
d. All of the above are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.

e. Both b and c are correct.
The question, “Do you feel the government should be forced to stop picking our pockets with excessive taxes and return a portion of the taxes collected to taxpayers?”
a. is leading.
b. contains an implicit alternative
c. is double-barreled.
d. a and c only.
e. none of the above.
d. a and c only.
Do you own your own home?
Yes No

The above is an example of a ____ question.
a. multichotomous
b. bi-polar
c. free response
d. dichotomous
e. projective

d. dichotomous
Branching questions are less appropriate with
a. personal interviews.
b. telephone interviews.
c. mail questionnaires.
d. mall intercepts interviews.
c. mail questionnaires.
When utilizing observational methods of data collection, which of the following should be specified by the researcher?
a. Who should be observed?
b. What behaviors should be reported?
c. When should the observations be made?
d. Where should the observations be made?
e. All of the above.
e. All of the above.
Which of the following statements about attitude is FALSE?
a. Attitude represents a predisposition to respond to an object.
b. Attitude changes over time quickly.
c. Attitude is a latent variable that produces consistency in behavior.
d. Attitude has a directional quality.
e. Attitude and liking are similar notions.
b. Attitude changes over time quickly.
Which of the following statements about nominal scales is true?
a. The numbers identify the objects.
b. The numbers order the objects.
c. The median can be used as the measure of average.
d. The mean can be used as the measure of average.
a. The numbers identify the objects.
Which of the following statements is NOT true of an ordinal scale?
a. It has the property of identity.
b. It has the property of order.
c. The mean is an appropriate measure of average.
d. All of the above are true of an ordinal scale.
c. The mean is an appropriate measure of average.
It is reasonable to state that one object has twice as much of the attribute property when it has a score of 60 and the other object has a score of 30 when measurement is on a(n) ____ scale.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
e. interval or ratio
d. ratio
The ordinal scale represents a higher level of measurement than the nominal in that
a. the assigned numerals serve to identify the objects.
b. the magnitude of the differences in the objects is shown.
c. the assigned numerals represent the order as well as identifying the object.
d. it has a natural zero.
e. it has an arbitrary zero.
c. the assigned numerals represent the order as well as identifying the object.
The method of summated ratings overcomes which criticism of the method of equal-appearing intervals?
a. Difficulties in developing a large number of statements.
b. The costs due to the size of the judgment sample required with equal-appearing intervals.
c. The difficulty of generating total scores by which to array subjects.
d. The non-scientific nature of item analysis with the method of equal-appearing intervals.
e. The lack of ability for a subject to express his intensity of feeling with an equal-appearing interval scale.
e. The lack of ability for a subject to express his intensity of feeling with an equal-appearing interval scale.
A person scoring 78 out of 100 possible on a Likert scale indicates
a. the person has a favorable attitude toward the object.
b. the person has an unfavorable attitude toward the object.
c. the person is neutral toward the object.
d. the person has a favorable attitude when compared to the average score of 60.
e. none of the above.
d. the person has a favorable attitude when compared to the average score of 60.
Which of the following pairs is not appropriate for anchoring a semantic differential scale item in a marketing application?
a. good-bad
b. unbelievable-believable
c. able to attract attention-unable to attract attention
d. fluffy-hard
e. all of the above could be used
e. all of the above could be used
The Stapel scale is
a. a modification of the semantic differential which uses bi-polar pairs, has numbered points on the scale and uses 8 scale positions
b. a modification of the semantic differential which frees the researcher from the need for item analysis
c. a modification of the semantic differential which is uni-polar, has 7 scale positions and points are numbered on the scale
d. an eight-point rating scale
e. uni-polar, has 10 scale positions and points on the scale are numbered
e. uni-polar, has 10 scale positions and points on the scale are numbered
Which of the following is FALSE?
a. A Likert scale is an example of a comparative rating scale.
b. A semantic differential scale is an example of an itemized scale.
c. When using graphic rating scales, individuals indicate their rating by placing a check at the appropriate point on a line that runs from one extreme of the attribute to the other.
d. Itemized scales are similar to graphic scales in that individuals make their judgments independently.
e. Comparative scales involve relative judgments.
a. A Likert scale is an example of a comparative rating scale.
Marketing research
a. generates information in the firm’s environment.
b. transmits information from the environment to the firm.
c. interprets feedback information.
d. makes decisions based upon information from the environment.
e. does a, b, and c.
e. does a, b, and c.
Although no general organizational form of marketing research departments exists, departments are commonly organized by
a. research techniques, such as statistical analysis, field interviewing or questionnaire design.
b. area of application, such as product line, brand, market segment or geographic area.
c. marketing function performed, such as field sales analysis, advertising research or product planning.
d. a and b.
e. a, b and c.
e. a, b and c.
Which of these following statements is true?
a. Consumer research about e-commerce requires different marketing research tools.
b. Marketing research about the Internet is best handled by companies that create Internet software.
c. Marketing research about the Internet is best handled by large companies that have access to large samples of consumers.
d. Consumers’ Internet activities can be integrated with their purchase data.
e. Web-based surveys will help ensure a representative, global sample for marketing researchers.
d. Consumers’ Internet activities can be integrated with their purchase data.
The feature that distinguishes MIS from a project approach to research is that
a. it can only be used by marketing managers.
b. information is collected on a regular basis.
c. it is used for a more limited set of problems.
d. the information is accurate.
e. the information is used in making marketing decisions.
b. information is collected on a regular basis.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. A marketing information system is a set of procedures and methods for the regular planned collection, analysis, and presentation of information for use in making marketing decisions.
b. The primary difference between traditional marketing research and marketing intelligence is that the intelligence system is computer-based while the research project is a written survey.
c. The emphasis in traditional marketing research is on continuously monitoring normal business activities such as sales, market share, and product positioning through a series of recurring research steps.
d. The rapid growth of databases, on-line informational services, and DSS systems will eventually replace the traditional project approach to market research.
e. They are all false.
a. A marketing information system is a set of procedures and methods for the regular planned collection, analysis, and presentation of information for use in making marketing decisions.
An MIS needs analysis investigates
a. the form in which managers need information.
b. the types of information managers need.
c. the types of decisions managers make.
d. b and c.
e. a, b, and c.
e. a, b, and c.
The first step in designing a Marketing Information system is
a. determining which decision makers will use the system.
b. collecting as much data as possible.
c. selecting the computer hardware needed for the system.
d. hiring a special design team to put the system together.
e. identifying possible sources of the necessary data.
a. determining which decision makers will use the system.
A decision support system consists of
a. dialog systems.
b. model systems.
c. data systems.
d. b and c.
e. a, b, and c.
e. a, b, and c.
9. The customer information module of a DSS system typically includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. who uses the product.
b. where the customer buys the product.
c. unemployment information.
d. how often the customer buys the product.
e. when the customer uses the product.
c. unemployment information.
Information concerning the effects of last fall’s advertising campaign on sales of the advertised product would normally be contained in which data system module?
a. customer information module
b. economic and demographic information module
c. product information module
d. industry information module
e. competitor information module
a. customer information module
Which of the following statements is false:
a. Data mining is different from data analysis.
b. Data mining is conducted on large numbers of consumers.
c. Data mining is conducted on large numbers of variables.
d. Data mining attempts to find “nuggets” of marketing information amidst data.
e. Data mining requires tremendous data storage system and fast data access.
a. Data mining is different from data analysis.
Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Program strategy specifies the types of studies that are to be conducted and for what purposes.
b. Project strategy deals with how a study should be conducted.
c. Program strategy is determined by a company’s philosophy of how marketing research fits into its marketing plan.
d. Project strategy involves the design of the individual studies that a firm conducts to gather information.
e. A program strategy and a project strategy are identical.
e. A program strategy and a project strategy are identical.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The choice of a data-collection method for a specific issue reflects the firm’s program strategy.
b. A company’s philosophy of how marketing research fits into its marketing plan determines its project strategy for marketing research.
c. The design of the individual studies themselves defines the firm’s program strategy to research.
d. Project strategy should be dealt with before program strategy.
e. A program strategy specifies the types of studies to be conducted and for what purposes.
e. A program strategy specifies the types of studies to be conducted and for what purposes.
The most important step in the research process is
a. determining the research design.
b. designing data collection method and forms.
c. preparing the research report.
d. analyzing and interpreting the data.
e. formulating the problem.
e. formulating the problem.
After determining the research design the next step in the research process is
a. design sample and collect data.
b. design data collection method and forms.
c. formulate problem.
d. prepare the research proposal.
e. none of the above.
b. design data collection method and forms.
The sampling frame deals with
a. the list of population elements from which the sample will be selected.
b. the procedure used to select the sample from the population.
c. the number of population elements to be chosen as the sample.
d. the form of the sample to be chosen from the population elements.
e. none of the above are representative of a sampling frame.
a. the list of population elements from which the sample will be selected.
Data analysis generally involves a series of steps. In correct order, the first three of these steps are
a. tabulating, coding, and editing.
b. coding, tabulating, and editing.
c. editing, coding, and tabulating.
d. editing, tabulating, and coding.
e. coding, editing, and tabulating.
c. editing, coding, and tabulating. (ECT)
Research problems arise from
a. unanticipated change in the marketing environment in the form of competitor initiatives.
b. a firm’s planned change of a marketing variable.
c. customer complaint letters.
d. a and c.
e. a, b and c.
e. a, b and c.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The decision problem is also the research problem.
b. The decision problem involves determining what information to provide and how that information can best be secured.
c. The key difference between the decision problem and the research problem is the decision problem focuses on what action needs to be taken while the research problem focuses on what information to provide and how that information can best be secured.
d. The key difference between the decision problem and the research problem is the research problem focuses on what action needs to be taken while the decision problem focuses on what information to provide and how that information can best be secured.
e. They are all true.
c. The key difference between the decision problem and the research problem is the decision problem focuses on what action needs to be taken while the research problem focuses on what information to provide and how that information can best be secured.
The descriptive study
a. usually takes the form of an experiment.
b. has its major emphasis on the discovery of insights and ideas.
c. is concerned with determining the frequency with which something occurs.
d. is concerned with the determination of a cause-and-effect relationship.
e. has as its main objective the establishment of priorities for future research.
c. is concerned with determining the frequency with which something occurs.
A causal research design is typically concerned with
a. the frequency with which something occurs.
b. the discovery of ideas and insights.
c. how two variables vary together.
d. the determination of cause-and-effect relationships.
e. establishing priorities when studying competing explanations of phenomenon.
d. the determination of cause-and-effect relationships.
Which of the following is capable of providing more convincing evidence of causal relationships?
a. an exploratory design
b. an experiment
c. turnover analysis
d. cross-sectional analysis
e. a descriptive design
b. an experiment
The experience survey is a procedure most appropriate for
a. exploratory studies.
b. descriptive studies.
c. laboratory experimentation.
d. field experimentation.
e. computer simulation.
a. exploratory studies.
Focus groups are useful for which of the following purposes
a. generating hypotheses.
b. generating information helpful in structuring questionnaires.
c. gathering background information on a product category.
d. a and c.
e. a, b, and c.
e. a, b, and c
Firms conducting a focus group
a. attempt to develop relatively homogeneous groups.
b. attempt to develop relatively heterogeneous groups.
c. heavily recruit previous focus group members.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
a. attempt to develop relatively homogeneous groups.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The services of a skilled psychologist make the task of analyzing the responses from a depth interview very easy.
b. The open-ended question is particularly useful in descriptive research.
c. A projective technique involves the use of a stimulus that an individual is asked to describe, expand upon, or build a structure around.
d. The researcher can explore all areas of inquiry by direct questioning.
e. They are all false
c. A projective technique involves the use of a stimulus that an individual is asked to describe, expand upon, or build a structure around.
Which descriptive study is the best known and most widely used?
a. the after-only with control group
b. the cross-sectional study
c. an omnibus panel
d. a longitudinal study
e. none of the above
b. the cross-sectional study
True longitudinal analysis
a. is concerned with the determination of cause-and-effect relationships.
b. can be performed on any panel.
c. involves a one-time cross-sectional sample of elements from the population of interest.
d. is simply a fact-gathering study.
e. can only be performed using panels that rely on repeated measurements of the same variables.
e. can only be performed using panels that rely on repeated measurements of the same variables.
Another name for a turnover table is
a. a cohort table.
b. a panel data matrix.
c. a brand loyalty matrix.
d. a brand switching matrix.
e. none of the above are names for a turnover table.
d. a brand switching matrix.
The main disadvantage of panels is that they
a. are nonrepresentative.
b. are expensive to maintain.
c. allow only simple analysis of the data.
d. suffer more from interview bias than any other data collection methods.
e. all of the above.
that they
a. are nonrepresentative.
A cross-sectional study
a. typically involves panels.
b. is a type of causal study.
c. is the least common design.
d. typically involves a sample of elements from the population of interest.
e. measures sample members repeatedly.
d. typically involves a sample of elements from the population of interest.
In a controlled experiment
a. all other explanations for the effect have been eliminated.
b. we can conclusively prove relationships.
c. only replication will increase our confidence in the resulting conclusions.
d. we substitute method knowledge for conceptual knowledge.
e. a and b are true.
c. only replication will increase our confidence in the resulting conclusions.
Laboratory experiments are primarily distinguished from field experiments by
a. their manipulation of variables.
b. their cost.
c. their validity.
d. their control.
e. their environments.
e. their environments.
When a researcher tries to ensure that the changes observed in the effect variable are reproducible in other situations, the researcher is attempting to enhance the experiment’s
a. internal validity.
b. convergent validity.
c. external validity.
d. construct validity.
e. none of the above are correct.
c. external validity.
Which of the following is not an example of the testing effect?
a. Students take a test and score 84; two weeks later they take a different test and score 90.
b. A person is asked about her attitudes toward Ford automobiles; she then watches Ford commercials more closely than before.
c. After Dan is asked to be on a consumer panel that reports purchasing behavior, he changes his purchasing behavior.
d. While answering a questionnaire, Dawn tries to answer the last questions consistent with how she answered the first questions.
e. a through d are all examples of the testing effect.
a. Students take a test and score 84; two weeks later they take a different test and score 90.
If a subject forgets to show up to the second observation time period, the research project has experienced
a. selection bias.
b. experimental mortality.
c. maturation.
d. subject variation.
e. b and c.
b. experimental mortality.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. In an experiment it is safe to assume that the people who did not respond were equal to the people who did.
b. The ability to control who will be exposed to the treatment variable is a feature that distinguishes true experiments from quasi-experiments.
c. True experimental designs eliminate all doubts in interpreting the results of the research.
d. b and c.
e. They are all false.
b. The ability to control who will be exposed to the treatment variable is a feature that distinguishes true experiments from quasi-experiments
The factor that makes the data from true experimental designs more valid than data from any pre-experimental designs is
a. matching.
b. randomization.
c. the absence of extraneous sources of error.
d. the fact that the results can always be generalized to the larger population.
e. the fact that each of the test units is measured before and after the introduction of the experimental stimulus.
b. randomization.
Consider the following design and assume no interactive testing effect is present:

(R) 01 X 02

(R) 03 04

The difference represented by (02 01) (04 03) estimates the EFFECT of
a. history.
b. maturation.
c. history, maturation and all other relevant sources jeopardizing internal validity.
d. experimental variable.
e. statistical regression.

d. experimental variable.
Which of the following is TRUE of test markets?
a. Simulated test markets are not useful for eliminating weak products before they go to a standard test market.
b. Electronic test markets, popular in the 1970’s, are now a declining segment of the test market industry.
c. A prime advantage of simulated test markets is the protection from competitors that they provide.
d. In a standardized test market the entire test program is conducted by an outside service.
e. They are all false.
c. A prime advantage of simulated test markets is the protection from competitors that they provide