Marketing 101 Chapter 9 – 11

CocaCola introduced Coke Zero to increase sales without taking away from its existing product sales. Which of the following is NOT true about this effort?
A. Segmentation and targeting were of little use compared to developing special advertising.
B. The word”diet”was not used in promotion because the target segment of men did not
react favorably to the “girly” connotations.
C. Masculine images were used to promote the product to the targeted segment.
D. Although Coke has more than 450 products, sales to a carefully targeted segment can greatly increase total sales.
E.Although the market for cola is mature, Coke plans to adapt the current products and services to meet the needs of changing market climate.
A. Segmentation and targeting were of little use compared to developing special advertising.
Sally is in the new marketing department of a midsized lawn and garden company. She is working on the first marketing plan the firm has ever used. She has defined the mission and objectives, and she just finished a situation analysis for the firm. The next step is to
A.develop an advertising plan to promote the upcoming sales.
B.find marketing interns or hire new staff to help with implementation.
C. create pro forma financial statements to complete the package.
D. identify and evaluate opportunities by conducting segmentation, targeting and positioning analysis.
E.use the Internet,catalogs,and vendor information to draw up a list of new products.
D. identify and evaluate opportunities by conducting segmentation, targeting and positioning analysis.
Segmentation, targeting, and positioning
A.are terms that can be used interchangeably in developing marketing plans.
B. are part of a firm’s marketing strategy.
C. should be done simultaneously so synergies can help streamline the effort.
D. are part of the marketing plan but bear little direct relationship to the marketing mix.
E. all of these
B. are part of a firm’s marketing strategy.
Alex has found that both commercial and residential real estate buyers respond positively to his marketing communication message. Alex has identified __________ that respond similarly to his marketing efforts.
A. mass customization consumers
B. geographic segments
C. market segments
D. self concept customers
E. geodemographic segments
C. market segments
For each target market, General Imaging Corporation, a manufacturer of imaging equipment, will engage in positioning, adjusting their marketing mix variables in order to give customers
A. better Medicaid and Medicare payments.
B. a perceptual map of the imaging landscape.
C. more product features than the competition offers. D. lower prices than the competition offers.
E.a clear,distinctive,and desirable understanding of their products relative to competing products.
E.a clear,distinctive,and desirable understanding of their products relative to competing products.
The first step in the STP process is to
A.identify the segmentation methods to be used.
B.produce a list of strengths and weaknesses of the firm’s past marketing strategies.
C. clearly articulate the firm’s vision or marketing strategy objectives.
D. select target markets.
E. develop a marketing mix, so that an appropriate segment can later be identified.
C. clearly articulate the firm’s vision or marketing strategy objectives.
For products like pencils and paper clips, which provide the same benefit for all consumers, marketers should probably use a(n)
A. concentrated targeting strategy.
B. lifestyle segmentation strategy.
C. benefit segmentation strategy.
D. undifferentiated targeting strategy.
E. differentiated segmentation strategy.
D. undifferentiated targeting strategy.
In a classic example of segmentation strategy, years ago Swift Meat Company transformed turkey meat into “Butterball” turkeys. In the process, the company
A. differentiated its product.
B. avoided the SARS virus.
C. created a new class of micro marketing.
D. raised consumers’ self concepts.
E. redefined mass customization.
A. differentiated its product.
Adidas Group owns Reebok, Rockport, and Greg Norman brands. Adidas uses the different brands to pursue a(n) __________ strategy.
A. concentrated targeting
B. micro marketing
C. benefit targeting
D. differentiated targeting
E. undifferentiated targeting
D. differentiated targeting
Adidas Group owns Reebok, Rockport, and Greg Norman brands. Having a variety of brands allows Adidas to
A. engage in micro marketing for hard to fit shoe customers.
B. obtain a bigger share of the shoe market.
C. use mass marketing techniques.
D. utilize geographic segmentation.
E. generate economies of scale in advertising expenditures.
B. obtain a bigger share of the shoe market.
One of the benefits of a differentiated targeting strategy is that it allows the firm to diversify its business and
A. decrease advertising spending.
B. focus on a single market segment.
C. lower overall risk.
D. use undifferentiated strategies in micro markets.
E. all of these
C. lower overall risk.
Although a differentiated targeting strategy can allow a firm to obtain a bigger share of the overall market, this strategy
A. is the cheapest option.
B. requires the use of advanced advertising techniques.
C. rarely works.
D. is often expensive.
E. is ineffective without multiple brand names.
D. is often expensive.
Firms use a differentiated targeting strategy because
A. it is easier than mass marketing.
B. it helps to obtain a bigger share of the market.
C. it is better than focusing on individual or small groups of potential customers.
D. most market segments are too small to be profitable.
E. banks are more willing to extend credit to companies with this strategic approach.
B. it helps to obtain a bigger share of the market.
When Penguin Catering Services first opened, the owner decided to target only events at resorts in its geographic region. Penguin Catering was using a(n) __________ targeting strategy.
A. concentrated
B. micromarketing
C. benefit-driven
D. differentiated
E. undifferentiated
A. concentrated
__________ is an extreme form of a targeting strategy.
A. Macromarketing
B. Micro marketing
C. Benefit marketing
D. Differentiated targeting
E. Concentrated targeting
B. Micro marketing
“Corporate pilot fish” are former employees who start a new business based primarily on contacts and contracts with their old company. A corporate pilot fish would probably pursue a __________ targeting strategy.
A. macromarketing
B. micro marketing
C. benefit based
D. differentiated
E. undifferentiated
B. micro marketing
Many companies use the Internet to allow consumers to design customized products; for example, Nike allows customers to order shoes with custom color combinations. This is a form of
A. micromarketing.
B. concentrated
targeting.
C. psychographic segmentation.
D. differentiated targeting.
E. undifferentiated targeting.
A. micromarketing.
Four frequently used targeting strategies are the micromarketing, undifferentiated, differentiated, and __________ targeting strategies.
A. geographic
B. benefit based
C. economic
D. global
E. concentrated
E. concentrated
When Mr. How, a Pennsylvania based discount lumber and hardware chain, sent snow blowers to its Augusta, Georgia, store in April, it was engaged in
A. concentrated segmentation.
B. geodemographic segmentation.
C. benefit segmentation.
D. psychographic segmentation.
E. misguided geographic segmentation.
E. misguided geographic segmentation.
Differences in weather and climate create opportunities for
A. concentrated targeting.
B. geographic segmentation.
C. benefit segmentation.
D. psychographic
segmentation.
E. demographic segmentation.
B. geographic segmentation.
NASCAR redirected its marketing efforts when a survey indicated that almost 50 percent of race fans were female. This is an example of __________ segmentation.
A. geographic
B. psychographic
C. demographic
D. benefits
E. behavioral
C. demographic
__________ segmentation is the most common basis of consumer market segmentation because these segments are easy to define and usually easy to reach.
A. Geographic
B. Psychographic
C. Behavioral
D. Benefits
E. Demographic
E. Demographic
Beer marketers know that high school educated, working class males from the ages of 25 to 40 make up an attractive market for their products. This is a __________ segment of the beer market.
A. demographic
B. psychographic
C. behavioral
D. benefits
E. geographic
A. demographic
Television advertising has recently expanded to include “miniads,” which are short ads lasting five to ten seconds. These ads are most useful in advertising to men, since men are more likely than women to channel surf during commercial breaks. This type of advertising will be more useful to marketers engaged in __________ segmentation.
A. demographic
B. psychographic
C. behavioral
D. benefits
E. geographic
A. demographic
Demographic segmentation is segmentation based on all of the following EXCEPT
A. age.
B. gender.
C. education.
D. income.
E. lifestyle
E. lifestyle
Marketers like Benetton want their ads to appeal to one’s self concept, suggesting to consumers
A. “Trendy products for the masses.”
B. “I’m like them, so I should buy their
products.”
C. “I will never be rich, but I can dress like I am.”
D. “Be Peace.”
E. “All is fair in love,marketing,and war.”
B. “I’m like them, so I should buy their
products.”
Psychographics is the segmentation method that delves into how consumers
A. adjust to demographic changes.
B. allocate scarce incomes to a variety of goods and services.
C. describe themselves.
D. value their livelihoods.
E. all of these
C. describe themselves.
In order to develop psychographic segments, the marketer must understand consumers’
A. age,income,and education.
B. gender,race,and religion.
C. disposable personal income, benefit perceptions, and alternative egos.
D. self values, self concept, and lifestyles.
E. buying patterns and behaviors.
D. self values, self concept, and lifestyles.
Paul is considering psychographics as a way to segment the market for his small travel agency. This approach to segmentation offers him an advantage because
A. it is based on underlying reasons why people make choices.
B. it is easier to use than demographics.
C. the travel business doesn’t respond well to other approaches to segmentation.
D. psychographics is the preferred method for service businesses.
E. psychographic segmentation is the least expensive method.
A. it is based on underlying reasons why people make choices.
Education marketers have learned that the primary motivations of most nontraditional college students are self respect and self-fulfillment. Understanding the values of this market segment allows marketers to
A. emphasize the benefits these consumers are looking for in a college education.
B. lower the price for this market
segment.
C. offer alternative courses based on geographic location.
D. employ loyalty marketing strategies.
E. utilize micro marketing strategies.
A. emphasize the benefits these consumers are looking for in a college education.
Baby Boomers represent a huge demographic segment for travel marketers. Baby Boomers are also heavily motivated by self-fulfillment, which creates the possibility of __________ segmentation.
A. geographic
B. self concept
C. psychographic
D. benefit
E. behavioral
C. psychographic
Beverage companies often use television commercials with images of young people laughing and enjoying themselves on a beach or in a club. These images are designed to appeal to consumers’ __________, suggesting “be like me.”
A. geographic choices
B. self concepts
C. loyalty references
D. benefit perceptions
E. demographics
B. self concepts
If values provide goals, and self concept is the way we see ourselves, lifestyles are
A. visual images of how we should live our lives.
B. marketing manipulation of consumers’ fears.
C. the way we live our lives to achieve our goals.
D. motivations turned into perceptual
maps.
E. determined by demographics.
C. the way we live our lives to achieve our goals.
VALS is the most widely used __________ segmentation tool.
A. geographic
B. behavioral
C. psychographic
D. benefits
E. geodemographic
C. psychographic
Marketers have found that __________ segmentation is often more useful for predicting consumer behavior than __________ segmentation.
A. demographic;psychographic
B. geographic;geo demographic
C. psychographic; demographic
D. demographic; behavioral
E. demographic;benefit
C. psychographic; demographic
Firms might use multiple segmentation methods to
A. tailor communications
B. design products
C. determine the substance of the marketing message
D. all of these
E. none of these
D. all of these
Although marketers have found that psychographics are often more useful for predicting consumer behavior than demographics, psychographic segmentation
A. is available only in limited geographic areas.
B. is rarely used and unproven.
C. offers only one to one marketing potential.
D. is a more expensive method for identifying potential customers.
E. is still an unproven area.
D. is a more expensive method for identifying potential customers.
__________ segmentation is the segmentation method most directly related to value creation for consumers.
A. Geographic
B. Demographic
C. Psychographic
D. Benefit
E. Geodeomographic
D. Benefit
A university using benefit segmentation and targeting students who want to get a degree quickly while still working full time would focus on
A. providing classes at convenient times and offering online courses.
B. discount pricing for students taking more than twelve credit hours.
C. the higher average salaries earned by college graduates.
D. the great variety of classes offered
E. the number of Nobel Prize winners on the faculty.
A. providing classes at convenient times and offering online courses.
The Lite beer commercial with the slogan, “less filling, tastes great,” was based on __________ segmentation.
A. geographic
B. geodemographic
C. psychographic
D. benefit
E. loyalty
D. benefit
Toothpastes sold in supermarkets and pharmacies promise various results, such as whiter teeth, protection against gum disease, tartar control, or fresh breath. Toothpaste marketers are using __________ segmentation.
A. benefit
B. geodemographic
C. psychographic
D. loyalty
E. demographic
A. benefit
Golden Years Vitamin Corporation targets consumers living in Florida who are over 65. Golden Years is using __________ segmentation.
A. benefit
B. selfactualization
C. psychographic
D. loyalty
E. geodemographic
E. geodemographic
The phrase “birds of a feather flock together” captures the idea of __________ segmentation.
A. geodemographic
B. benefit
C. psychographic
D. loyalty
E. geographic
A. geodemographic
PRIZM and Tapestry by ESRI divide and sort small geographic areas into categories using 60 or more demographic and lifestyle characteristics. These market research tools are examples of __________ segmentation.
A. geodemographic
B. benefit
C. psychographic
D. loyalty
E. geographic
A. geodemographic
Gloria is opening an upscale women’s clothing store in a growing suburban residential area. Gloria knows her target market is upper income women living within twenty miles. She can’t afford to purchase a PRIZM or Tapestry analysis so she will most likely use __________ as a basis for targeting her market.
A. voter registration lists
B. the city phonebook
C. real estate values by subdivision
D. public school enrollment data
E. new construction data
C. real estate values by subdivision
Geodemographic segmentation can be particularly useful for __________, because customers typically patronize stores close to their neighborhood.
A. Internet marketers
B. wholesaler s
C. retailers
D. consumer goods manufacturers
E. cable TV networks
C. retailers
Retail store chains often use __________ data to identify other locations with similar demographics and purchasing behavior where it might make sense to open additional stores.
A. geodemographic
B. benefit
C. psychographic
D. loyalty
E. geographic
A. geodemographic
Marketers often create a special marketing mix for loyalty segments because these segments are
A. too large to service with ordinary targeting.
B. difficulttoidentify.
C. costly to acquire.
D. usually quite profitable.
E. all of these
D. usually quite profitable.
When Ron complained to his bank about the unprofessional behavior of one teller, the branch manager added a code into his accounts alerting all tellers that Ron was a valued customer and to provide whatever service he requests. The branch management included Ron in its __________ segmentation.
A. benefit
B. geodemographic
C. psychographic
D. loyalty
E. geographic
D. loyalty
Airlines were among the first retailers to embrace loyalty segmentation when they created
A. business class seating.
B. 30 day advance pricing.
C. fuel surcharges.
D. in flight movies.
E. frequent flyer programs.
E. frequent flyer programs.
One of the reasons marketers use loyalty segmentation is
A. the high cost of finding new customers.
B. government tax incentives for loyalty.
C. accounting difficulties associated with identifying new customers.
D. rapid population increases.
E. the failure of micro marketing as a workable strategy.
A. the high cost of finding new customers.
While demographic and geographic segmentation of retail customers is relatively easy, these characteristics do NOT help marketers determine
A.
how old their customers are.
B.
what their customers need.
C.
where their customers live.
D.
which customers have young children.
E.
what income brackets their customers are in.
B.
what their customers need.
Kim’s Kayak Tours initially identified active retirees living in the retirement community nearby as one of its target markets. Kim then tailored her service and marketing message to the interests and schedules of that audience. Kim initially used __________ segmentation and then used __________ segmentation.
A.
micromarketing; loyalty
B.
lifestyle; macromarketing
C.
geodemographic; lifestyle
D.
geographic; loyalty
E.
behavioral; geodemographic
C.
geodemographic; lifestyle
Marketers often employ a combination of segmentation methods, using __________ to identify and target their customers, and __________ to design products and messages to appeal to them.
A.
loyalty segmentation; demographics
B.
undifferentiated targeting; differentiated targeting
C.
loyalty segmentation; geodemographics
D.
geodemographic segmentation; lifestyle or benefit segmentation
E.
lifestyle segmentation; geographic segmentation
D.
geodemographic segmentation; lifestyle or benefit segmentation
Karen has identified four potential market segments for her Rent-A-Chef home meal catering service. The next step is to
A.
categorize each market segment by consumer demographics.
B.
establish her overall objectives.
C.
decide on a targeting strategy.
D.
develop a positioning strategy.
E.
evaluate the attractiveness of each segment
E.
evaluate the attractiveness of each segment
Karen has identified four potential market segments for her Rent-A-Chef home meal catering service. She will now evaluate whether or not each segment is all of the following EXCEPT
A.
substantial.
B.
responsive.
C.
profitable.
D.
reachable.
E.
realistic.
E.
realistic.
Carlos has identified four potential market segments for his Rent-A-Chef home meal catering service. He will now compare the segments to see if they are different enough from each other. Carlos is evaluating whether or not each segment is
A.
identifiable.
B.
responsive.
C.
profitable.
D.
reachable.
E.
substantial.
A.
identifiable.
Greta is concerned that one of the potential market segments she has identified for her dog grooming service is too small and has too little income to have sufficient buying power. Greta is concerned with whether the segment is
A.
substantial.
B.
responsive.
C.
profitable.
D.
reachable.
E.
identifiable
A.
substantial.
Ryan wants to sell personal website services to American soldiers in Afghanistan. Because of the difficulty of communicating with people in a war zone, Ryan may have trouble with this segment not being
A.
substantial.
B.
perceptive.
C.
identifiable.
D.
reachable.
E.
quantifiable.
D.
reachable.
With access to the Internet nearly universal in the United States, many potential market segments have become more
A.
substantial.
B.
perceptive.
C.
identifiable.
D.
reachable.
E.
quantifiable.
D.
reachable.
Talbots, an upscale women’s clothing store, targets college-educated women between 35 and 55 years old with average household income of $75,000 or more. This is a form of __________ segmentation.
A.
benefit
B.
geodemographic
C.
psychographic
D.
demographic
E.
geographic
D.
demographic
When Talbots, an upscale women’s clothing store, tries to portray an image of “traditional, conservative, and with good taste,” they are appealing to their target market’s
A.
lifestyle.
B.
geodemographics.
C.
demographics.
D.
loyalty.
E.
PRIZM segment.
A.
lifestyle.
College students can be a less __________ market segment because students’ media habits are quite diverse.
A.
substantial
B.
perceptive
C.
identifiable
D.
reachable
E.
quantifiable
D.
reachable
For a segmentation strategy to be successful, the customers in the segment must react similarly and positively to the firm’s marketing mix. The market segment must be
A.
substantial.
B.
perceptive.
C.
identifiable.
D.
reachable.
E.
responsive.
E.
responsive.
When Starbucks first opened, many critics suggested, “No one will pay $4.00 for a cup of coffee.” Starbucks’ critics suggested consumers would not be __________ to the company’s offerings.
A.
responsive
B.
perceptive
C.
identifiable
D.
reachable
E.
quantifiable
A.
responsive
The manager of Plantation River Country Club wanted members of the very upscale club to use the bar and dining facilities more frequently. He offered a two-for-one “happy hour” special but few members showed up. The manager did not have a grasp of what would make his target market
A.
substantial.
B.
responsive.
C.
identifiable.
D.
reachable.
E.
quantifiable.
B.
responsive.
Caroline is assessing market growth, market competitiveness, and market access for each segment she has identified. Caroline is assessing __________ of each potential market segment.
A.
substance
B.
responsiveness
C.
identification
D.
reach
E.
profitability
E.
profitability
After assessing the market growth potential for his company’s baby products in Mexico, Harmon wanted to evaluate market competitiveness. To do this, Harmon would consider
A.
mass marketing distribution potential and logistical support.
B.
the current size of the market and the expected growth rate.
C.
ease of pricing control and number of promotional outlets.
D.
the number of competitors, entry barriers, and product substitutes.
E.
profitability and customer buying behavior
D.
the number of competitors, entry barriers, and product substitutes.
After assessing the market growth potential and market competitiveness for his company’s baby products in Mexico, Harmon wanted to evaluate market access. To do this, Harmon would consider
A.
ease of accessing or developing distribution channels and brand familiarity.
B.
the current size of the market and the expected growth rate.
C.
ease of pricing control and number of promotional outlets.
D.
the number of competitors, entry barriers, and product substitutes.
E.
profitability and customer buying behavior
A.
ease of accessing or developing distribution channels and brand familiarity.
Which of the following would NOT be used in calculating the profitability of a segment?
A.
segment perceptions
B.
segment size
C.
segment adoption percentage
D.
profit margin percentage
E.
fixed costs
A.
segment perceptions
Fiona wants to sell a local advertising calendar. There are 1,000 households in her community, and she estimates that 30 percent will buy a calendar. The printing company will charge a $100 setup fee, and calendars will cost $4.00 each to print. What price will she need to charge to cover all costs and make a $500 profit?
A.
$6.00
B.
$7.00
C.
$8.00
D.
$9.00
E.
$10.00
A.
$6.00
Paula is trying to determine whether the segments she is considering for her day care center will be profitable. Which of the following will not specifically help her in this analysis?
A.
The number of children needing day care in the immediate area.
B.
The fixed costs of operating the center.
C.
The percentage of parents in the area who can both afford to send their child or children to day care and who are willing to do so.
D.
The average number of school-age children in families sending a child to the day care center.
E.
The price she would charge minus the variable cost of providing service to each child.
D.
The average number of school-age children in families sending a child to the day care center.
n addition to calculating the potential profitability of a market segment, marketers will also consider
A.
customer loyalty.
B.
defection rates.
C.
the cost of replacing customers.
D.
likely future sales to customers.
E.
all of these
E.
all of these
Ronaldo wants to develop an Internet auction-based business and is working through the STP process. After establishing his objectives, describing potential market segments, and evaluating the attractiveness of each segment, Ronaldo now has to
A.
differentiate his product line.
B.
consider future customer loyalty.
C.
create a perceptual map.
D.
select a target market.
E.
divide geographic segments into lifestyle groups
D.
select a target market.
When selecting a target market, firms should attempt to
A.
decide between demographic and geographic segmentation methods.
B.
seek out opportunities to customize products.
C.
develop a strong communication plan.
D.
match the firm’s competencies with a market segment’s attractiveness.
E.
reposition the brand
D.
match the firm’s competencies with a market segment’s attractiveness.
__________ involves defining the firm’s marketing mix variables so that target customers have a clear, distinctive, and desirable understanding of the firm’s offerings relative to competitors’ offerings.
A.
Processing
B.
Perceptualizing
C.
Positioning
D.
Proportioning
E.
Prospecting
C.
Positioning
Whenever Donald calls on potential pest control customers, he emphasizes the fact that, unlike the national franchise competitors, he is a local business person and has been in business over twenty years. Donald is __________ his business relative to his competition.
A.
segmenting
B.
packaging
C.
positioning
D.
pricing
E.
targeting
C.
positioning
Regina wants to position her financial services company. Regina can position her services according to all of the following EXCEPT
A.
the value proposition.
B.
product attributes.
C.
symbols.
D.
competitive comparisons.
E.
profitability.
E.
profitability.
Whenever the president of the local public university promotes the institution, he emphasizes the university’s price (much lower than neighboring private colleges) and high quality. He is positioning the institution based on
A.
the value proposition.
B.
product attributes.
C.
symbols.
D.
competitive comparisons.
E.
profitability.
A.
the value proposition.
We often see advertisements touting a product as being made with natural ingredients, or being long-lasting. Marketers using these types of promotions are positioning their products based on
A.
the value proposition.
B.
product attributes.
C.
symbols.
D.
competitive comparisons.
E.
profitability
B.
product attributes.
Alexis has selected target markets for her fashion accessories store in a suburban strip mall. She is now deciding how to position the accessories. She could consider positioning based on
A.
the value proposition.
B.
product attributes.
C.
symbols.
D.
competitive comparisons.
E.
all of these
E.
all of these
Marco was assigned to help create a positioning strategy for his employer’s products based on product attributes. He should consider
A.
the features the engineers feel are most important.
B.
the ways the sales representatives have been positioning the firm’s products.
C.
the characteristics that helped his firm win a statewide award for excellence in manufacturing.
D.
what the target market would consider the most important features.
E.
the safety record of the firm and its products.
D.
what the target market would consider the most important features.
Almost all U.S. political candidates use some combination of red, white, and blue in their campaign posters. They are trying to position themselves in voters’ minds using
A.
the value proposition.
B.
salient attributes.
C.
symbols.
D.
the competition.
E.
all of these
C.
symbols.
Jim wants to position his firm against his competitors. In doing so he should
A.
never select a competitor in the same neighborhood.
B.
avoid making the competitor’s product look undesirable.
C.
avoid looking too much like the competitor so that he’d confuse the target segment.
D.
avoid discussing the strengths of his product so that competitors won’t be aware of his product quality.
E.
avoid discussing the weaknesses of his competitors so they won’t retaliate
C.
avoid looking too much like the competitor so that he’d confuse the target segment.
A __________ is often used to illustrate the position of a firm’s products or brands in consumers’ minds.
A.
mass marketing analysis
B.
psychographic profile
C.
perceptual map
D.
loyalty timeline
E.
PRIZM analysis
C.
perceptual map
Within a perceptual map, a(n) __________ represents where a particular market segment’s desired product would lie.
A.
point of parity
B.
strategic target
C.
PRIZM cluster
D.
ideal point
E.
benefit centroid
D.
ideal point
“Why create a perceptual map?” asked David. Andreas, the senior marketing manager, gave him four reasons. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason?
A.
“It’s a quick way for senior managers to see not only our product but each of our competitors, all at once.”
B.
“It’s a way to demonstrate the dimensions that our customers think are important.”
C.
“It shows where we aren’t—and where our competitors aren’t—in our customers’ and prospects’ minds.”
D.
“It’s a way to show the position of the company in ten years.”
E.
“We can easily show where we are positioned and how large the market is.”
D.
“It’s a way to show the position of the company in ten years.”
The perceptions of __________ are being measured in a perceptual map.
A.
competitors
B.
strategic planners
C.
the company’s executive team
D.
the current R&D team
E.
consumers
E.
consumers
Which of the following segmentation methods is being used when M&Ms offers special wedding-themed packaging for customized M&Ms (imprinted with the names of the bride and groom)?
A.
Occasion segmentation
B.
Geographic segmentation
C.
Lifestyle segmentation
D.
Benefit segmentation
E.
Loyalty segmentation
A.
Occasion segmentation
Godiva Chocolates produces specially decorated boxes of candies for Valentine’s Day, Easter, and Christmas. This is an example of
A.
occasion segmentation.
B.
loyalty segmentation.
C.
geographic segmentation.
D.
psychographic segmentation.
E.
demographic segmentation
A.
occasion segmentation.
Which of the following defines a value proposition?
A.
The unique value that a product or service provides to its customers
B.
A special discount offer dropping the price
C.
An advertisement that talks about value
D.
A display of the position of products or brands in the consumer’s mind
E.
None of these
A.
The unique value that a product or service provides to its customers
Overriding desires that drive how we live our lives are called
A.
self-values.
B.
self-concept.
C.
self-esteem.
D.
self-confidence.
E.
self-control.
A.
self-values.
When Victoria’s Secret offers different product lines, such as its Pink line, it is trying to capture the market by
A.
segmenting, targeting, and positioning.
B.
offering everything to everyone.
C.
trying lots of options to find out which one works.
D.
continual test marketing.
E.
focusing exclusively on its Pink brand.
A.
segmenting, targeting, and positioning.
When evaluating the attractiveness of the segment, if a segment is expected to react positively to the firm’s offering, we say that the segment is
A.
responsive.
B.
identifiable.
C.
reachable.
D.
substantial.
E.
reactive.
A.
responsive.
What is the best situation in the Circles for a Successful Value Proposition framework?
A.
The firm’s benefits overlap with both customer needs/wants and competitors’ benefits.
B.
The firm’s benefits overlap with customer needs/wants but not with competitors’ benefits.
C.
The firm’s benefits overlap with competitors’ benefits but not with customer needs/wants.
D.
Customer needs/wants overlap with both the firm’s benefits and competitors’ benefits.
E.
None of the three circles overlaps.
B.
The firm’s benefits overlap with customer needs/wants but not with competitors’ benefits.
n the Circles for a Successful Value Proposition framework, the value proposition is represented by
A.
the intersection between customer needs/wants and competitors’ benefits.
B.
the intersection between the firm’s benefits and competitors’ benefits.
C.
the intersection between customer needs/wants and the firm’s benefits.
D.
the intersection between all three of the circles.
E.
the part of the firm’s benefits that doesn’t overlap with anything.
C.
the intersection between customer needs/wants and the firm’s benefits.
Which of these is NOT one of the main components of a value proposition?
A.
The target market.
B.
The name of the product or brand being offered.
C.
The product/service category or concept being offered.
D.
The price of the product or service being offered.
E.
The unique point of difference or benefits offered.
D.
The price of the product or service being offered.
Let’s Dish is a meal-preparation service operating in three states. Customers visit a Let’s Dish store to select and partially prepare their meals, which are then packaged for the freezer. At home, the customer can pull a meal out of the freezer and warm it in the oven or microwave. If Let’s Dish wanted to expand into new areas of the U.S., what segmentation method would probably be most useful in choosing new locations?
A.
Loyalty segmentation.
B.
Benefit segmentation.
C.
Psychographic segmentation.
D.
Geodemographic segmentation.
E.
Demographic segmentation.
D.
Geodemographic segmentation.
Social networking sites that compete directly with Facebook have a difficult time surviving; however, LinkedIn has survived by focusing on the needs of business professionals, who seek to network with colleagues, share their expertise, post online resumés, and look for new jobs. What segmentation method is LinkedIn using?
A.
Loyalty segmentation.
B.
Benefit segmentation.
C.
Psychographic segmentation.
D.
Geodemographic segmentation.
E.
Demographic segmentation.
B.
Benefit segmentation.
Marketing research includes all of the following EXCEPT
A.
collecting data.
B.
creating data.
C.
recording data.
D.
interpreting data.
E.
analyzing data.
B.
creating data.
After a year in business, Tyrone hired a market research company to analyze his sales data and tell him which groups of customers were the most profitable to his firm. Tyrone will probably use the results of this research to
A.
define market segments.
B.
adjust positioning strategies.
C.
change product offerings.
D.
adjust prices.
E.
do all of these.
E.
do all of these.
When Olivia learned that just twenty of her yoga studio customers accounted for 80 percent of her annual revenue, she probably
A.
adjusted class schedules to meet the needs of those twenty customers.
B.
surveyed those twenty customers to see what other types of yoga classes they were interested in.
C.
offered a special session for just those twenty customers.
D.
analyzed the geodemographics of those twenty customers to see how she could attract more people like them.
E.
did all of these tasks
E.
did all of these tasks
Political consultants have been using market research for decades to help their candidates understand
A.
who makes up the voting public and how to reach them.
B.
what ethical lapses they can get away with.
C.
which consumers spend the most money.
D.
how large their campaign signs should be.
E.
how to buy the votes they need.
A.
who makes up the voting public and how to reach them.
Paul subscribes to an Internet service that alerts him whenever other firms in his industry are quoted in the media. Paul is using this type of market research primarily to
A.
provide a link between him and his production center.
B.
help him understand the needs of his customers.
C.
monitor his competitors.
D.
increase profits through the sale of syndicated data.
E.
decide how to price his new products.
C.
monitor his competitors.
Leonard just bought his first bagel franchise. As part of the franchising agreement, Leonard receives a monthly report detailing the actions and results of other franchisees. Leonard can use this market research report to
A.
provide a link between him and his environment.
B.
help him understand the needs of his customers.
C.
monitor the marketplace.
D.
decrease the uncertainty associated with decision making.
E.
do all of these tasks.
E.
do all of these tasks.
Every month Dr. Combahee takes her staff to lunch and asks them to share patients’ comments and concerns. Dr. Combahee is using the lunches as an informal marketing research effort intended primarily to
A.
provide a link between herself and her profession.
B.
help her to understand the needs of her customers.
C.
monitor her competitors.
D.
decrease the uncertainty associated with decision making.
E.
improve profitability.
B.
help her to understand the needs of her customers.
Retail checkout scanning systems create a tremendous amount of purchasing information usually stored in a company’s
A.
website.
B.
file cabinets.
C.
data warehouse.
D.
cash registers.
E.
qualitative research department.
C.
data warehouse.
Through analysis of sales data, Price-Cutters retail store found that customers who bought peanut butter also tended to buy bananas. Price-Cutters was engaged in
A.
syndicated surveying.
B.
focus group analysis.
C.
behavioral analysis.
D.
data mining.
E.
structured sampling.
D.
data mining.
Walmart is known for its efficient logistical systems. Every time consumers buy something, that purchase is recorded and sent to company headquarters, where it is used to generate reorders to vendors. In addition, customers’ billions of purchases are analyzed using data mining techniques to uncover
A.
the impact of income tax laws.
B.
patterns of consumers’ purchasing behavior.
C.
the relationship between primary and secondary data.
D.
new ideas for human resources management.
E.
competitors’ pricing strategies.
B.
patterns of consumers’ purchasing behavior.
If a firm has geodemographic and purchasing information about its customers, the firm can use data mining techniques to
A.
understand psychographic motivations.
B.
create marketing mixes based on consumer self-values.
C.
build separate marketing programs for different geodemographic segments.
D.
determine which syndicated data warehouse services to purchase.
E.
find out which competitors its customers purchase from
C.
build separate marketing programs for different geodemographic segments.
From charitable giving to medical records to Internet tracking, consumers are more anxious than ever about
A.
secondary data retrieval systems.
B.
exploitation by foreign marketers.
C.
their ability to get credit cards.
D.
preserving their right to privacy.
E.
the unstructured nature of market research.
D.
preserving their right to privacy.
When conducting a survey about choosing vacation destinations, Hillary will need to __________ in order to get reluctant respondents to provide honest information.
A.
choose only highly verbal consumers
B.
assure consumers that their individual responses will be kept confidential
C.
use only focus group interviews
D.
ask unstructured questions
E.
create an efficient data warehouse
B.
assure consumers that their individual responses will be kept confidential
The Marketing Research Process follows five steps, and researchers
A.
may not always go through them in the exact sequence if the situation changes or new information is discovered.
B.
should maintain the integrity of the process by following each step sequentially and thoroughly.
C.
often collect data before defining the research objectives.
D.
should be prepared to present the results before completing the analysis if they are under a great deal of pressure to meet a deadline.
E.
may follow the process by completing all steps at once instead of planning the process first.
A.
may not always go through them in the exact sequence if the situation changes or new information is discovered.
The first question a market researcher should ask when considering a research study is
A.
Who will pay for it?
B.
Will the research be useful?
C.
When is the due date?
D.
What sample size will be needed?
E.
Should we use structured or unstructured questions?
B.
Will the research be useful?
Assuming that a market research study will answer important questions and reduce uncertainty associated with the proposed project, the other major question that needs to be addressed before starting the study is
A.
How will the results be presented?
B.
Will observational research be considered intrusive?
C.
Is top management committed to the study?
D.
How will the questions be defined?
E.
Who will manage the research?
C.
Is top management committed to the study?
Just as marketers create value by meeting the needs and wants of consumers, market researchers create value if
A.
the research is expensive.
B.
all participants like the research design.
C.
the research does not cost too much.
D.
the results will be used in making management decisions.
E.
the research is finished quickly.
D.
the results will be used in making management decisions.
Benefit-cost analysis in market research weighs
A.
the benefits of answering questions against the cost of the research.
B.
the benefit of qualitative research against the cost of quantitative research.
C.
the benefit of primary data research against the cost of secondary data research.
D.
the benefit of a data warehouse against the cost of syndicated data.
E.
the benefit of internal secondary data against the cost of external secondary data.
A.
the benefits of answering questions against the cost of the research.
Wanda and Jim are working on a research project to anticipate customer attitudes toward a proposed new product line for their company. They have worked with the marketing manager to determine the answers that are needed, and have created a detailed design of the project. Their next logical step will be to
A.
develop a budget.
B.
begin to collect data.
C.
summarize their preliminary conclusions to present to managers.
D.
begin recommending changes to the new product line based on the ideas they developed in the design phase.
E.
analyze the data.
B.
begin to collect data.
Academic researchers often jump at the opportunity to conduct a research study, curious to learn more and address unanswered questions for the sake of general knowledge. Business people tend to be more cautious before embarking on a marketing research study, recognizing that research is often
A.
beyond most managers’ ability to comprehend.
B.
expensive and time consuming.
C.
an academic exercise of little real value.
D.
an impediment to decisive management.
E.
of little use in real marketing situations.
B.
expensive and time consuming.
Market research begins with
A.
designing the research project.
B.
analyzing data.
C.
defining objectives and research needs.
D.
presenting results.
E.
creating the data collection process.
C.
defining objectives and research needs.
The manager of a company selling baby products asks you to conduct research into the question, “Is life expectancy getting longer in Kuwait?” The problem with this research objective is that
A.
it is irrelevant to the baby products company.
B.
it is already known and available on the U.S. Census website.
C.
it will lead to a set of unstructured questions.
D.
it is a research question that probably cannot be answered with any level of accuracy.
E.
it is a question related to another culture.
A.
it is irrelevant to the baby products company.
The manager of a company selling cellular phones in rural U.S. markets asks you to conduct survey research into the question, “What percentage of people in Kansas live in communities of less than 10,000 people?” The problem with this research objective is that
A.
it is irrelevant to the cellular company.
B.
it is already known and available on the U.S. Census website.
C.
it will lead to a set of unstructured questions.
D.
it is a research question that probably cannot be answered with any level of accuracy.
E.
it is too expensive to determine the answer.
B.
it is already known and available on the U.S. Census website.
After defining objectives and research needs, the next step in the marketing research process involves
A.
research evaluation.
B.
data collection.
C.
data analysis.
D.
research design.
E.
report writing.
D.
research design.
During the research design step of the marketing research process, researchers identify the type of data needed and
A.
the statistical software to be used.
B.
the dates when data will be collected.
C.
the forum in which the data will be presented.
D.
the identities of research participants in the project.
E.
the type of research necessary to collect the data.
E.
the type of research necessary to collect the data.
Victor’s custom auctioneering service provides online auction selling assistance. Victor plans to conduct marketing research in order to determine which auction site is best for his customers. His next step is to
A.
identify the type of data he needs to have.
B.
determine the statistical software he will use.
C.
outline the presentation format he will use.
D.
collect data.
E.
define his privacy policy.
A.
identify the type of data he needs to have.
Company sales invoices, census data, and trade association statistics are examples of
A.
primary data.
B.
data mines.
C.
secondary data
D.
tertiary data.
E.
qualitative data.
C.secondary data
Commercial research firms like ACNielsen and SymphonyIRI Group are sources of
A.
primary data.
B.
internal secondary data.
C.
data mining.
D.
syndicated data.
E.
public data
D.
syndicated data.
Jalel is the marketing manager for moderately well-known rock band. He wants to know more about industry trends including sales by different musical styles, online downloads, and concert attendance. Jalel will most likely use __________ to gather this type of data.
A.
focus groups
B.
observation
C.
syndicated data
D.
sales invoices
E.
census data
C.
syndicated data
Once a marketing researcher is ready to move beyond preliminary insights to specific, informed questions, the researcher is ready to conduct
A.
quantitative research.
B.
data warehousing.
C.
syndicated marketing surveys.
D.
qualitative research.
E.
research design.
A.
quantitative research.
A marketing research project often begins with a review of the relevant __________ data.
A.
primary
B.
secondary
C.
quantitative
D.
unfocused
E.
structured
B.
secondary
Joe is reviewing secondary data his company collected about seasonal variation in consumer spending. The advantages of using these data include that
A.
they are new and can be used to project overall demand.
B.
they can be quickly accessed at a relatively low cost.
C.
they are historical data that can be used to accurately predict future trends.
D.
they have been collected for just the purpose Joe is using it for.
E.
their high cost can be justified by the results.
B.
they can be quickly accessed at a relatively low cost.
Omar is responsible for marketing and marketing research for a mid-sized manufacturer of assemblies for the housing market. His boss has asked him to cut back expenses, especially in marketing research: “Why can’t you just use information off the Internet? There’s plenty out there.” What is Omar’s best response to try to get his boss to change his mind?
A.
“We can try, but if it’s wrong it’s not my fault.”
B.
“Those are secondary data, and they may not be as timely, accurate, and relevant as what we need. Our decisions may not be as good, and we’ll run a huge risk.”
C.
“I’d rather not use any data at all than use secondary data.”
D.
“This is a matter of principle. I quit.”
E.
“You should never use any information from the Internet in marketing research.”
B.
“Those are secondary data, and they may not be as timely, accurate, and relevant as what we need. Our decisions may not be as good, and we’ll run a huge risk.”
Ron is opening a new Internet-based marketing business. He finds a wealth of data on a web design company’s site. This site describes the tremendous sales potential for Internet-based marketing companies. Ron should
A.
base his projections on the information provided.
B.
offer to share his Internet sales experience with the site.
C.
be cautious, because the data may be more promotional than trustworthy.
D.
contact the company and ask if the data are derived from census information.
E.
collect primary data to confirm the web design company’s data.
C.
be cautious, because the data may be more promotional than trustworthy.
Marvin is looking for data to help him with a new market research study assigned to him. When reviewing existing secondary data from a past research study, Marvin should pay careful attention to
A.
how the secondary data were collected.
B.
where the data were warehoused.
C.
whether or not the Census Bureau has certified the research.
D.
whether the data were transformed into information.
E.
how often primary data were substituted for secondary data.
A.
how the secondary data were collected.
After reviewing the existing data on seasonal spending by his company’s customers, Marvin decided he needed new information collected to address his research questions. Marvin will need __________ data to address the questions in his market research study.
A.
primary
B.
secondary
C.
mined
D.
syndicated
E.
warehoused
A.
primary
The major advantage of primary data collection is that
A.
it can be easily accessed through syndicated databases.
B.
it can be tailored to meet the specific research needs.
C.
it takes less time to collect than secondary data.
D.
it is general enough to meet many different researchers’ needs.
E.
all of these are advantages of primary research data.
B.
it can be tailored to meet the specific research needs.
The major disadvantages of primary data collection are that
A.
it can only be accessed through syndicated databases or unstructured data mines.
B.
it cannot be tailored to meet specific research needs.
C.
it takes more time to collect than secondary data and is more costly.
D.
it is too general to meet researcher’s and manager’s needs.
E.
all of these are disadvantages of primary research data.
C.
it takes more time to collect than secondary data and is more costly.
Caroline needs to find information about income and age distribution in Orange County, California. The best source of secondary research of use to Caroline is likely to be
A.
door-to-door surveys.
B.
focus group interviews.
C.
syndicated data.
D.
sales invoices at public libraries.
E.
U.S. Census data.
E.
U.S. Census data.
Data collection begins
A.
only after completing the research design process.
B.
after determining whether there are any objections.
C.
whenever the researcher wants to.
D.
after creating the presentation format.
E.
after analyzing the data.
A.
only after completing the research design process.
When the market research problem is not clearly defined, a researcher will likely engage in __________ research.
A.
data mining
B.
qualitative
C.
survey
D.
quantitative
E.
experimental
B.
qualitative
Recently, the number of students enrolled in the marketing program dropped while enrollment in the psychology program increased. The chair of the marketing department will probably use __________ as a first step to gain a better understanding of why enrollments are changing.
A.
experimental research
B.
data warehousing
C.
syndicated data
D.
qualitative research
E.
structured questionnaires
D.
qualitative research
Quantitative research offers a means to confirm ideas through
A.
surveys or experiments.
B.
in-depth interviews.
C.
data mining.
D.
qualitative research.
E.
informal analysis.
A.
surveys or experiments.
Bianca’s discount home furnishings store is in a strip mall. She wants to know what other businesses in the strip mall her customers visit when they come to her store. To collect information for this objective, Bianca will most likely use
A.
door-to-door surveys.
B.
focus group interviews.
C.
observation.
D.
sales invoices.
E.
census data.
C.
observation.
Quantitative research
A.
is always conducted using primary data collection.
B.
revises the research objective based on data mining.
C.
confirms insights and provides a basis for taking a course of action.
D.
offers conclusions that are always correct.
E.
includes focus group interviews.
C.
confirms insights and provides a basis for taking a course of action.
__________ confirms insights and provides a basis for taking a course of action.
A.
Primary data collection
B.
Data mining
C.
Qualitative research
D.
Quantitative research
E.
Statistical sourcing
D.
Quantitative research
When consumers are __________, observation becomes particularly useful in understanding consumers’ preferences.
A.
unwilling to participate in research
B.
confused by questionnaires
C.
unable to articulate their experiences
D.
interviewed too frequently
E.
highly educated
C.
unable to articulate their experiences
When consumers are unable to articulate their experiences, __________ becomes particularly useful in understanding consumers’ preferences.
A.
observation
B.
surveying
C.
in-depth interviewing
D.
primary data mining
E.
a focus group
A.
observation
Recently, Google hired a team of economists to study consumers’ online search behavior. This type of market research is a form of __________ research.
A.
focus group
B.
survey
C.
in-depth interview
D.
primary data mining
E.
observational
E.
observational
Using __________, researchers ask questions, listen to and record responses, and ask additional questions based on initial responses.
A.
questionnaires
B.
experiments
C.
in-depth interviews
D.
primary data mining
E.
observation
C.
in-depth interviews
Social media monitoring, in-depth interviews, and focus groups are all __________ research methods.
A.
quantitative
B.
data warehousing
C.
syndicated marketing
D.
qualitative
E.
structured
D.
qualitative
Zan wants to collect considerable information about the current opinions of his ten most important customers. Zan will probably use the __________ research method.
A. socialmedia monitoring
B. experimenta l
C. in-depth interview
D. primary data
mining
E. observation
C. in-depth interview
Which of the following research methods would be best in helping a marketer understand how people feel about a product or service on an individual, detailed level?
A. Focus groups
B. Survey
s
C. Social media monitoring
D. Primary data mining
E. In depth interviews
E. In depth interviews
When the detailed opinions of a few industry experts or experienced consumers are needed, __________ are often the best qualitative research method.
A. focus groups
B. surveys
C. social media
studies
D. in depth interviews
E. secondary data mining studies
D. in depth interviews
Randall wants to do an online survey of college professors about the factors that influence their textbook selection. He would like to use a structured questionnaire but is not sure what responses to include for each question. Randall could use __________ to help him develop his questionnaire.
A. in depth interviews
B. experiments
C. surveys
D. observation
E. primary data mining
A. in depth interviews
Frederica manages an upscale women’s clothing store. She wants more information about her customers’ general feelings about upcoming fall fashions. Frederica will most likely use __________ to gather this type of data.
A. door to door surveys
B. focus group interviews
C. syndicated data
D. sales invoices
E. censusdata
B. focus group interviews
A(n) __________ is a small group of people brought together for an intensive discussion of a topic.
A. focus group
B. socialmediasite
C. experiment
D. data mining session
E. in depth interview
A. focus group
n a focus group, researchers usually videotape the session in order to
A. evaluate the potential for in-depth interviews.
B. assess both verbal and nonverbal responses.
C. post the videos on the corporate website.
D. avoid asking repetitive
questions.
E.create survey instruments to send to the participants.
B. assess both verbal and nonverbal responses.
Tyree is concerned about a competitor’s new line of outdoor barbeque grills that provide most of the same features as his products. Tyree might consider using __________ to gather qualitative information from consumers about the competitor’s offerings.
A. industry surveys
B. experiments
C. focus
groups
D. observation
E. primary data mining
C. focus
groups
Martin has hired a market research company to bring together a small group of soft drink consumers and get feedback on the three new advertising slogans his firm is considering. The market research firm might conduct a(n) __________ to provide the information Martin has requested.
A. industry survey
B. experiment
C. focus group
D. observational study
E. primary data mining analysis
C. focus group
In the infamous Coke-New Coke taste test, 54 percent of consumers, using a blind taste test, preferred the New Coke formula to the existing formulation. This is an example of a(n) __________ market research method.
A. qualitative
B. quantitative
C. observational
D. syndicated
E. invalid
B. quantitative
Malcolm is the campaign manager for a congressional candidate. He wants to know how voters in his district feel about recent sexual harassment scandals involving politicians. Malcolm will most likely use __________ to gather this type of data.
A. surveys
B. observation
C. experiments
D. voter registration data
E. censusdata
A. surveys
When conducting a research study attempting to understand what features were most important to automobile consumers, Gary’s Research Company used a(n) questionnaire containing __________ questions, with a predetermined set of response options.
A. structured
B. in depth interview
C. observational
D. free form
E. unstructured
A. structured
Quitman had no idea how consumers would respond to a survey about attitudes toward a program opening up space travel to private citizens. He could use __________ to allow respondents to answer in their own words.
A. secondary data
B. an observational study
C. an experiment
D. a structured
questionnaire
E. a survey with open ended questions
E. a survey with open ended questions
The owner of A. C. Flora Ford Dealership wanted to know why consumers chose his company. He was fairly sure that most customers had one of three reasons—service, reputation, or location—but wanted to know which was the most frequent reason. A. C. Flora will probably use a survey with __________ questions to address his research problem.
A. observation based
B. open ended
C. experimental
D. closed ended
E. unstructured
D. closed ended
Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines for developing a market research questionnaire?
A.The layout should be professional and easy to follow.
B.Questions should only address one issue at a time.
C. Questions should be sequenced appropriately.
D. Questions should use vocabulary respondents are familiar with.
E.Sensitive questions should be asked first.
E.Sensitive questions should be asked first.
In questionnaire design, a question such as, “When was the first time you went to a dentist?” suffers from the problem of a question
A. that respondents cannot easily or accurately answer.
B.that respondents are reluctant to answer because the information is sensitive.
C. that steers respondents to a particular response.
D. that asks two questions at once.
E.that is complex and something respondents may be unfamiliar with.
A. that respondents cannot easily or accurately answer.
In questionnaire design, a question such as, “When will the technology exist to allow humans to live on Mars?” suffers from the problem of a question
A. that is one-sided,presenting only one side of an issue.
B.that respondents are reluctant to answer because the information is sensitive.
C. that steers respondents to a particular response.
D. that asks two questions at once.
E.that is complex and something respondents maybe unfamiliar with.
E.that is complex and something respondents maybe unfamiliar with.
In questionnaire design, a question such as, “Marketing is the best part of the business program, isn’t it?” suffers from the problem of a question
A.that respondents cannot easily or accurately answer.
B.That respondents are reluctant to answer because the information is
sensitive.
C. that steers respondents to a particular response.
D. that asks two questions at once
E.that is complex and something respondents maybe unfamiliar with.
C. that steers respondents to a particular response.
In questionnaire design, a question such as, “Do you like Wendy’s hamburgers and fries?” suffers from the problem of a question
A. respondents cannot easily or accurately answer.
B. that respondents are reluctant to answer because the information is
sensitive.
C. that steers respondents to a particular response.
D. that asks two questions at once.
E. that is complex and something respondents maybe unfamiliar with.
D. that asks two questions at once.
n questionnaire design, a question such as, “Do antilock braking systems reduce car accidents?” suffers from the problem of a question
A. that respondents cannot easily or accurately answer.
B. that respondents are reluctant to answer because the information is
sensitive.
C. that steers respondents to a particular response.
D. that asks two questions at once.
E. that is one sided,presenting only one side of an issue.
A. that respondents cannot easily or accurately answer.
Compared to offline surveys, online surveys benefit market researchers through all of the following EXCEPT
A. relatively high response rates.
B. real time report creation.
C. lower cost.
D. faster data collection.
E. all of these are benefits of online surveys.
E. all of these are benefits of online surveys.
Charles wants to survey recent customers about the quality of service they received at his small auto service dealership. He has customers’ mailing and email addresses. Charles will likely use an online survey primarily because it offers
A. relatively low response rates.
B. the ability to share video with respondents.
C. the ability to ask sensitive questions with anonymity.
D. fast responses at a lower cost.
E. the opportunity to survey both existing and potential customers.
D. fast responses at a lower cost.
__________ research is a type of quantitative research that manipulates variables to help determine cause and effect.
A. Descriptive
B. Syndicated
C. Manipulative
D. Focus
group
E. Experimental
E. Experimental
Each time you go to the grocery store and have your purchases scanned while using a loyalty or bonus reward card, you are contributing to a database that can help marketers determine all of the following EXCEPT
A. what a typical shopping list looks like.
B. whether changes in prices affect buying.
C. marketplace trends.
D. what kinds of promotions might be attractive to you.
E. other stores where you buy similar products.
E. other stores where you buy similar products.
Supermarkets collect information about individual customers through their use of loyalty cards, and then analyze the data to look for patterns in purchases. This is an example of
A. data mining.
B. data recovery.
C. data entry.
D. data analysis.
E. datamodeling.
A. data mining.
When a research team has gathered data for specific research needs, this is known as
A. primary data.
B. datamining.
C. secondary data.
D. data recovery.
E. datamodeling.
A. primary data.
Which of the following statements best describes secondary data?
A. Secondary data are pieces of information that have been collected prior to the start of the focal research project.
B. Secondary data are those data collected to address specific research needs.
C. Secondary data collection is always extremely time consuming and
expensive.
D. Secondary data will always meet the researchers’ needs.
E. None of these
A. Secondary data are pieces of information that have been collected prior to the start of the focal research project.
Which of the following types of research would be considered quantitative research?
A. Experimental research
B. Observational research
C. Focus group research
D. Social media
monitoring
E. In depth interviews
A. Experimental research
Which of the following is a systematic means of collecting information from people using a questionnaire?
A. Survey
B. Experiment
C. Scanner study
D. In depth interview
E. Focus group
A. Survey
If a marketing researcher has to collect data under severe time constraints, which of the following types of data sources would probably be available soonest?
A. Syndicated data
B. Focus group data
C. Experimental data
D. Panel data
E. Survey data
A. Syndicated data
Which of the following statements is NOT an example of the guidelines provided by the American Marketing Association for conducting marketing research?
A. Personal information about research participants should not be shared, EXCEPT with a designated member of senior management.
B. Selling or fundraising should not be conducted under the guise of conducting research.
C. Researchers should not misrepresent or omit pertinent research data.
D. Clients and suppliers should be treated fairly.
E. AlloftheseareresearchguidelinesprovidedbytheAmericanMarketingAssociation.
A. Personal information about research participants should not be shared, EXCEPT with a designated member of senior management.
The number of customers who discontinue their use of a service divided by the average number of total participants is called
A. churn .
B. customer retention.
C. customer lifetime value.
D. cancellation
cost.
E. customer loyalty.
A. churn .
Which of the following data sources would NOT be considered external secondary data?
A. U.S.Censusdata
B. Syndicated data
C. Newspaper articles
D. Scanner data
E. A survey
E. A survey
Which of the following types of data would be the best choice for Wendy’s fast food restaurants if the headquarters office wants to know how many hamburgers versus chicken sandwiches it has sold in past years?
A. Internal secondary data
B. External secondary data
C. Survey responses
D. Focus group data
E. Observationdata
A. Internal secondary data
A restaurant chain is working on improving the quality of its food and service. It recruits customers who agree to respond to customer satisfaction surveys once every three months over the next two years, in order to track its progress. What kind of data are the restaurant chain collecting?
A. Panel data
B. Internal secondary
data
C. Focus group data
D. External secondary data
E. Scanner data
A. Panel data
Which of the following is an unstructured question?
A. “What are the most important characteristics for choosing a brand of shampoo?”
B. “Howsatisfiedwereyouwithyourlastshampoopurchase:veryunsatisfied,unsatisfied, neutral, satisfied, or very satisfied?”
C. “Were you happy with the quality of the shampoo you purchased (Yes/No)?”
D. “On a scale from 1 to 5 (with 1 being very unimportant and 5 being very important), how
important is fragrance when choosing a shampoo?”
E. “How many brands of shampoo have you purchased in the past year:0,1,2,3,4,5,or more than 5?”
A. “What are the most important characteristics for choosing a brand of shampoo?”
Which of the following provides the information needed to confirm insights and help managers to pursue appropriate courses of action?
A. Quantitative research
B. Qualitative research
C. Observation research
D. In depth interviews
E. Socialmedia monitoring
A. Quantitative research
If a fast food restaurant collected photographs of its regular customers so that it could use facial detection software in order to identify visitors captured by security cameras, this would be an example of using
A. external secondary data.
B. biometric
data.
C. social media monitoring.
D. illegal surveillance methods.
E. sentiment mining.
B. biometric
data.
What is neuromarketing?
A. The analysis of consumer comments on social media in order to understand consumers’ thoughts and opinions.
B. The use of psychological principles to design marketing research studies.
C. The use of EEG scanners to study consumers’ brain waves.
D. The use of neural networks to perform data mining and develop marketing insights.
E. Theuseofindepthinterviewstomapdetailednetworksofinformationstorageinthebrain.
C. The use of EEG scanners to study consumers’ brain waves.
McDonald’s recently introduced a “Favorites Under 400 Calorie Menu,” as part of an attempt to reverse the perception that McDonald’s sells only unhealthy food. Suppose that McDonald’s, as a followup, collects and analyzes social media posts from Facebook, Twitter, and similar sites, hoping to understand whether or not consumer perceptions are improving. This would be an example of
A. quantitative research.
B. an online focus
group.
C. sentiment mining.
D. neuromarketing .
E. an experiment.
C. sentiment mining.
How might a book publisher use blogs in its marketing research efforts?
A. As a place to report marketing research results to top management.
B. As a source of reviews of its latest releases.
C. As a location for holding online focus groups about its books.
D. As a location for conducting online experiments about book purchasing patterns.
E. As a substitute for large scale surveys about future book topics.
B. As a source of reviews of its latest releases.
What is a disadvantage of online focus groups, compared to offline focus groups?
A. They are more expensive.
B. They attract a more limited group of participants.
C. They generally take longer to conduct.
D. They usually do not permit insights based on body language.
E. They produce insights that are rarely taken seriously.
D. They usually do not permit insights based on body language.
A product is __________ that can be offered through a voluntary marketing exchange.
A. the combination of a firm’s marketing mix
B. the brand associations
C. the category depth
D. a tangible item
E. anything of value to consumers
E. anything of value to consumers
In retailing, effective packaging sends this message:
A. More packaging means more product.
B. Buy me!
C. I have more features than the competition.
D. I am cheaper than the competition.
E. There is nothing toxic inside.
B. Buy me!
The complete set of all products offered by a firm is called its
A. product line.
B. product categories.
C. product mix
D. product breadth.
E. product line depth.
C. product mix
A __________ is a group of associated items that consumers tend to use together or think of as part of a group of similar products.
A. product line
B. productmix
C. product mix breadth
D. line extension
E. brand extension
A. product line
For a major university, undergraduate studies, graduate studies, and professional programs would be __________ within the university’s product mix.
A. brand associations
B. family brands
C. co brands
D. product lines
E. privatelabel brands
D. product lines
A __________ is a name, symbol, design, or term that identifies a seller’s good or service as distinct from those of other sellers.
A. SK U
B. product line
C. supply
chain
D. commodity
E. brand
E. brand
It is almost impossible to watch a sporting event on television without seeing Nike’s “swoosh” check mark, which is Nike’s
A. name .
B. symbol.
C. design.
D. term .
E. theme.
B. symbol.
A firm’s product mix breadth is its
A. number of items per product line.
B. depth divided by profitability.
C. number of categories that are mutually exclusive.
D. number of product lines.
E. brand equity multiplied by its capacity utilization.
D. number of product lines.
__________ is the number of items within a product line.
A. Brand equity
B. Product line breadth
C. Product line depth
D. Product mix
depth
E. Product mix breadth
C. Product line depth
Zappos is a successful online shoe company. One of the difficulties in running a shoe company is the need to have significant __________, a large number of items in each product line.
A. brand equity
B. product line breadth
C. product line depth
D. product mix depth
E. product mix breadth
C. product line depth
Marketers with successful brands sometimes hesitate to expand their brands because
A. FederalTradeCommissionregulationslimitthenumberofproductsthatcanbemarketed under an individual brand name.
B. it is costly to maintain many product lines, and might weaken the firm’s reputation.
C. it is often difficult to get additional marketing communications coverage for the brand.
D. manufacturing divisions usually control brand expansion and are often in conflict with the marketing division.
E. the current economy can only support a limited number of product options.
B. it is costly to maintain many product lines, and might weaken the firm’s reputation.
Which of the following scenarios is NOT a reason a firm would eliminate an item within a product line?
A. The firm decided to refocus marketing efforts elsewhere.
B. The firm must respond to evolving markets.
C. The product undermined its own brand.
D. The product being eliminated is
unprofitable.
E. The firm has decided to capture new markets.
E. The firm has decided to capture new markets
For many years, General Electric had a corporate strategy of being among the top three firms in any market in which it operated; if it could not achieve a top three position, it would exit the market. This strategy often resulted in the company __________ when certain product lines failed to meet this expectation.
A. increasing product line depth
B. decreasing product line depth
C. decreasing product mix breadth
D. increasing product mix breadth
E. introducing brand extensions
C. decreasing product mix breadth
The decision to delete a product is never taken lightly because, generally, manufacturers have
A. offered the product line to
other firms for purchase.
B. made substantial investments in brand development and manufacturing.
C. promised consumers they will maintain the product.
D. used brand repositioning to improve results.
E. federal standards that must be met when taking products off the market.
B. made substantial investments in brand development and manufacturing.
A university that has separate graduate and undergraduate admission offices recognizes that these are distinct
A. brandassociations.
B. product/service
lines.
C. product mixes.
D. brands.
E. augmented services.
B. product/service
lines.
One important purpose of a brand is to
A. sell advertising space.
B. minimize product line depth needed to be effective.
C. increase consumer recognition and awareness of product offerings.
D. protect product packaging.
E. meet government regulations.
C. increase consumer recognition and awareness of product offerings.
Marketers spend billions of dollars annually attempting to build effective brands. The basic benefit of a brand is that it
A. creates a basis for effective packaging.
B. provides a way for a firm to differentiate its product offerings from competitors.
C. offers consumers promotional parity.
D. allows manufacturers to ignore promotional expenditures.
E. reduces the need for product line depth.
B. provides a way for a firm to differentiate its product offerings from competitors.
For a brand name to be effective, it needs to be
A. easy for consumers to recognize and remember.
B. a catchy,tongue twisting phrase.
C. a visual image containing human characters.
D. generic, so it can be applied to as many products as possible.
E. associated with a sports or movie superstar.
A. easy for consumers to recognize and remember.
One key feature of the value of a brand is that
A. it often protects the firm from competition and price competition.
B. it no longer needs to be supported by advertising and promotion.
C. if it becomes a generic name, the brand is worth even more.
D. it cannot be successfully imitated by a retailer’s own brand.
E. competitors will typically abandon a sectoral together rather than compete.
A. it often protects the firm from competition and price competition.
When consumers associate a brand with a certain level of quality and familiar attributes allowing consumers to make quick decisions, the brand
A. establishes novelty.
B. is the only one the consumer will consider.
C. reduces delivery costs.
D. facilitates purchasing.
E. creates brand dilution.
D. facilitates purchasing.
Parents of young children have been known to drive out of their way so their kids will not see McDonald’s Golden Arches and plead with their parents to stop. For McDonalds, the Golden Arches reduce marketing costs because people (including young children)
A. have memorized the McDonald’s menu.
B. prefer yellow to other colors.
C. know what the Golden Arches brand symbol means.
D. recognize increases in product line depth.
E. are sensitive to brand repositioning.
C. know what the Golden Arches brand symbol means.
Firms with well known brands can spend relatively less on marketing costs than firms with little known brands because
A. brands protect corporate copyrights.
B. consumer loyalty can be bought for less now compared to the past.
C. brand equity can only be obtained by means of product line depth.
D. people already know what the brand means.
E. well known brands are less likely to introduce brand extensions.
D. people already know what the brand means.
Brands are assets that can be legally protected through
A. copyrights and trademarks.
B. financial reporting.
C. brand extensions.
D. generic branding.
E. corporate branding strategies.
A. copyrights and trademarks.
A __________ is one where there is a contractual arrangement between firms allowing one to use its brand name for a fee.
A. franchisebrand
B. jointventure
brand
C. shared brand
D. common use brand
E. licensed brand
E. licensed brand
The value of a brand is often calculated by assessing the
A. difference between brand equity and brand liability.
B. corporate profitability divided by the monthly brand earnings.
C. earning potential of the brand over the next 12 months.
D. effect of brand dilution if it occurred.
E. average product line depth.
C. earning potential of the brand over the next 12 months.
__________ is the set of assets and liabilities linked to a brand that add to or subtract from the value provided by the product or service.
A. Brand positioning
B. Brand licensing
C. Brand association
D. Brand equity
E. Brand solvency
D. Brand equity
Many former Enron professionals who had nothing to do with the corporate scandal have found that listing employment with Enron hurt their chances of being hired elsewhere. For these people, the Enron name has
A. no brand associations.
B. unspent brand loyalty.
C. private label impact.
D. brand dilution.
E. negative brand equity.
E. negative brand equity.
Firms spend millions of dollars annually to build brand equity, recognizing brand equity contributes to
A. product mix breadth.
B. corporate stake holder relations.
C. profitability.
D. brand liability.
E. perceived brand personality.
C. profitability.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four criteria used for determining how “good” a brand is?
A. brand awareness
B. brand loyalty
C. brand
associations
D. brand conceptualization
E. brand perceived value
D. brand conceptualization
If many consumers in the marketplace are familiar with a brand and what it stands for and have an opinion about the brand, the brand has considerable
A. awareness .
B. equity.
C. extension.
D. integration.
E. co branding .
A. awareness .
Whether they like them or not, most U.S. automobile customers are familiar with and have an opinion about American made cars. This familiarity makes it easier for consumers to
A. meet their self actualization needs.
B. make purchase
decisions.
C. consider repositioning their opinions.
D. pursue generic alternatives.
E. negotiate discounts.
B. make purchase
decisions.
Sometimes brand names become synonymous with a product itself. If that happens, the firm
A. has achieved brand nirvana.
B. could lose its trademark.
C. should try co branding in order to avoid brand dilution.
D. should consider a new packaging strategy.
E. easily eliminates all competition.
B. could lose its trademark.
In the case of Band Aid adhesive bandages, the brand name has
A. successfully employed private label branding.
B. distinctive brand substitutability.
C. grown through private label
branding.
D. become synonymous with the product itself.
E. avoided brand extensions.
D. become synonymous with the product itself.
Salina is working to create greater brand awareness for her company’s new line of personal digital assistants. To increase brand awareness, the LEAST important information that should be included in promotions is
A. the brand name.
B. the logo.
C. the packaging.
D. the
slogan.
E. the product history.
E. the product history.
Why would a firm spend over $2 million for a 30 second ad on television during the Super Bowl?
A. Because of the annual competition for the most creative Super Bowl ad.
B. Because the Super Bowl offers an opportunity to create significant brand awareness.
C. Because the Super Bowl is a significant opportunity to be associated with global marketing. D. Because Super Bowl ads generate brand loyalty.
E. There is no good reason to spend over $2 million for a Super Bowl ad.
B. Because the Super Bowl offers an opportunity to create significant brand awareness.
Relatively few consumers like to go to the dentist. Dental insurance plans that pay for regular checkups increase the __________ of dental care by reducing the cost to the consumer.
A. perceived value
B. brand awareness
C. brand loyalty
D. generic
positioning
E. brand extension
A. perceived value
In a competitive market, perceived value is determined by consumers mostly
A. by quantitative analysis of brand personalities.
B. in relationship to the value of competitors’ offerings.
C. by weighing primary versus secondary benefits.
D. through investment in product tracking
systems.
E. through brand association and brand licensing.
B. in relationship to the value of competitors’ offerings.
Nora is deciding whether to purchase brand name sneakers or a store brand. She has purchased other shoes with the same brand name in the past but was only marginally satisfied. In this situation, Nora is likely to purchase the store brand sneakers because they offer
A. more brand awareness.
B. higher degrees of brand loyalty.
C. greater perceived value.
D. a better brand image.
E. more product line depth.
C. greater perceived value.
Matt was passionate about Abercrombie & Fitch. It was the only place he’d buy his clothes. If anyone asked him about clothes, he would talk for what seemed like hours about why he only shopped there. From a strictly marketing perspective, this word of mouth is part of
A. social insistence.
B. brand loyalty.
C. self actualization.
D. motivation.
E. brand extension.
B. brand loyalty.
Jenna always buys Stacy’s brand pita bread chips. She does not even consider alternatives. Jenna is a __________ customer.
A. price sensitive
B. brand persuasion oriented
C. brand association oriented
D. brand extension oriented
E. brand loyal
E. brand loyal
Laura prefers Sony products and will only purchase alternatives when there are no Sony products available. Laura’s brand loyalty means she is
A. relatively insensitive to price.
B. un informed about the product category.
C. product category committed.
D. a brand equity investor.
E. a savvy consumer.
A. relatively insensitive to price.
For marketers, one of the benefits of having achieved brand loyalty is
A. recognition through industry awards.
B. lower marketing costs associated with reaching loyal customers.
C. increased price sensitivity among loyal customers.
D. greater concern about competitors’ actions.
E. few worries about copy right infringement.
B. lower marketing costs associated with reaching loyal customers.
Lionel Smith Ltd. is a traditional men’s clothing store. Every fall the owner sends an embossed invitation (much like a wedding invitation) to his regular customers, inviting them to a private reception showing the new fall line of clothes. For Lionel Smith Ltd., one of the benefits of having established a loyal customer base is
A. recognition through industry awards.
B. lower marketing costs associated with reaching loyal customers.
C. he can be less concerned about competitors’ actions.
D. increased price sensitivity among loyal customers.
E. less need for concern about product quality.
C. he can be less concerned about competitors’ actions.
One of the major tools used by marketers to meet the needs of loyal customers is
A. SKU .
B. PDQ.
C. IMF.
D. CRM .
E. GATT.
D. CRM .
Frequent buyer/user award programs are used to
A. increase price sensitivity.
B. decrease co branding costs.
C. lower licensing fees.
D. expand product line depth.
E. maintain contact with loyal customers.
E. maintain contact with loyal customers.
A personal digital assistant programmed with key customers’ birthdates, wine preferences, and food allergies is a(n) __________ tool.
A. SK U
B. PDQ
C. IMF
D. CR M
E. GATT
D. CR M
Brands can be owned by
A. manufacturers only.
B. any firm in the supply chain.
C. retailers only.
D. wholesalers and retailers only.
E. only private label generic retailers.
B. any firm in the supply chain.
Another name for a manufacturer’s brand is a(n) __________ brand.
A. systematic
B. extended
C. national
D. premium
E. private label
C. national
Which of the following is the best example of a family brand?
A. Cadillac,GMC,and Chevrolet
B. Tostitos Multigrain Scoops and Tostitos Chunky Salsa
C. Kellogg’s Special K and Famous Amos Chocolate Chip Cookies
D. Lifesavers Soda, Coca Cola, and Diet Coke
E. KFC/TacoBellFastFoods
B. Tostitos Multigrain Scoops and Tostitos Chunky Salsa
The basic reason manufacturers spend time and money building their own brands is to
A. create brand awareness.
B. build brand equity.
C. offset the power of private label manufacturers.
D. create positioning possibilities for their generic product lines.
E. to maximize product line depth.
B. build brand equity.
Procter & Gamble is a huge national brand manufacturer. By having leading brands like Tide and Crest, P&G
A. can monopolize store brands.
B. has greater opportunity to dictate retail pricing.
C. has greater control over marketing strategy.
D. can increase brand dilution.
E. can eliminate any local competition.
C. has greater control over marketing strategy.
Brands that are owned by ___________ are called private label brands.
A. manufacturer s
B. wholesaler s
C. supply chain specialists
D. retailer s
E. manufacturer’s reps
D. retailer s
________ is another term for private label brands.
A. Store brands
B. Off brands
C. Manufacturer brands
D. National brands
E. Experiential brands
A. Store brands
Private label brands are developed and managed by
A. manufacturers.
B. wholesalers .
C. supply chain specialists.
D. manufacturer’s
reps.
E. retailers .
E. retailers .
Private label brands like Gap and Victoria’s Secret have increased in importance along with the increased power of ___________ in the supply chain.
A. manufacturer s
B. wholesaler s
C. supply chain specialists
D. retailer s
E. manufacturer’s reps
D. retailer s
Consumers might not realize that Old Spice health and wellness products and Iams pet nutrition products are made by the same company—Procter & Gamble. Old Spice and Iams are known as
A. individual brands.
B. family brands.
C. corporate brands.
D. traditional brands.
E. registered brands.
A. individual brands.
When Procter & Gamble added teeth whitening products under the Crest brand, the firm was engaged in
A. corporate branding.
B. brand extension.
C. brand licensing.
D. brand association.
E. perceived value branding.
B. brand extension.
Brand extension is a popular marketing strategy because
A. it separates out the cost of brand extension from brand intention.
B. it allows the firm to discontinue complementary products.
C. the firm can spend less on creating brand awareness and associations.
D. it avoids the problem of brand dilution.
E. it guarantees success for a new product.
C. the firm can spend less on creating brand awareness and associations.
The potential benefits of brand extension do NOT include
A. allowing the perception of a brand with a quality image to be carried over to the new product.
B. lowering marketing costs.
C. boosting sales of the core brand.
D. spending less on creating brand awareness and associations.
E. diluting brand equity
E. diluting brand equity
One of the categories of products for which brand extension is especially logical is
A. generic goods.
B. generic services.
C. commodities.
D. complementary goods.
E. licensed brands.
D. complementary goods.
Jake developed a toothpaste using only natural ingredients, and he has been quite successful selling the product in health food stores and some grocery stores. He has recently developed a toothbrush using bamboo and natural components. Jake is considering a __________, giving the toothbrush the same brand name as the toothpaste in order to have greater brand awareness.
A. co brand
B. brand extension
C. premium brand
D. joint brand
E. naturalbrand
B. brand extension
Brand dilution occurs when
A. customers see the “fit” between products sharing the same brand name.
B. there are too few products and product categories.
C. new brands compete with existing brands.
D. customer perceptions about the core brand are adversely affected.
E. brand names seem too old-fashioned or familiar.
D. customer perceptions about the core brand are adversely affected.
Marco tried a new fruitflavored beverage and thought it was awful. He was especially disappointed because he had liked the dried fruit snacks marketed under the same brand name. Now he wasn’t sure he even wanted to buy the snacks he had liked before. This highlights a problem in branding known as
A. brand dilution.
B. co mingled brands.
C. undifferentiated brands
D. approximated brands.
E. unlicensed brands.
A. brand dilution.
__________ occurs when the brand extension adversely affects consumer perceptions about the attributes of the core brand.
A. Corporate branding
B. Brand
extraction
C. Brand collusion
D. Brand personality destruction
E. Brand dilution
E. Brand dilution
Toyota, a well established, reputable brand, recently introduced a new line of vehicles under the Scion brand, targeted at young car buyers. Toyota probably used the new brand to
A. lower advertising costs.
B. appeal to a different market segment.
C. reinforce the Toyota brand image.
D. exploit brand loyalty to Toyota.
E. lower product development costs.
B. appeal to a different market segment.
Marketers with luxury brands use brand extension cautiously in order to avoid
A. brand licensing fees.
B. exclusive co branding arrangements.
C. diluting the core brand.
D. private label branding disputes.
E. product line extension limitations.
C. diluting the core brand.
Shell MasterCard, created cooperatively by Shell Oil Company and Master Card, is an example of
A. co branding .
B. brand extraction.
C. brand collusion.
D. a generic brand.
E. brand dilution.
A. co branding .
Efforts to change a brand’s focus to target new markets or change the image of a brand are called
A. co branding .
B. brand extraction.
C. brand collusion.
D. brand repositioning.
E. brand dilution.
D. brand repositioning.
Another name for brand repositioning is
A. strategic brand alteration.
B. change management.
C. rebranding
D. perception tracking.
E. brand scaling.
C. rebranding
Ella had been using an imported brand of shampoo for several years, but she could no longer find it anywhere. As she was considering what kind of shampoo to try, she was surprised to see ads for Procter & Gamble’s Head and Shoulders, which was being promoted as a glamorous health oriented product. She had always thought of Head and Shoulders as an anti dandruff shampoo. The new ads suggest that Head & Shoulders has been
A. rebranded.
B. reformulated.
C. licensed to a premium shampoo manufacturer.
D. extended as a brand.
E. co branded
A. rebranded.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding secondary packaging?
A. It can provide information to consumers not found on the primary packaging.
B. It is important to the retailer in terms of convenience in handling.
C. It can be an important positioning tool to convey the brand image.
D. It can allow for cost efficiencies due to larger order and shipment sizes.
E. It is of little value to the average consumer.
E. It is of little value to the average consumer.
A __________ package is the one a consumer uses. A __________ package is used by retailers to display and sell the product.
A. secondary; primary
B. generic;privatelabel
C. primary;
secondary
D. corporate; manufacturer’s
E. co branded;licensed
C. primary;
secondary
Which of the following is NOT one of the important functions of labels on products and packages?
A. Protecting against damage to the product
B. Providing consumer information to assist in purchasing
C. Identifying the brand and building brand image
D. Promoting the brand or complementary brands
E. Listing ingredients
A. Protecting against damage to the product
What U.S. government agency has primary responsibility in reviewing food and package labels to ensure claims made by the manufacturer about the product are true?
A. FederalTradeCommission
B. FederalCommunications
Commission
C. Consumer Product Safety Administration
D. Food and Drug Administration
E. InterstateCommerceCommission
D. Food and Drug Administration
One of the advantages of selling specialty goods and services is that when consumers want them, they will
A. question the price.
B. consider many
alternatives.
C. search for them.
D. perceive greater performance risk.
E. expect them to be offered conveniently.
C. search for them.
Zappos, an online shoe company, knows shoes are typically a(n) __________ good, with consumers often spending time comparing alternatives. They overcome that aspect of consumers’ search process by offering a free, no questions asked return policy.
A. specialty
B. shopping
C. convenience
D. ritual
E. impulse
B. shopping
Marketers selling milk, bread, and other consumer staples, know most customers do not spend much time searching or comparing alternatives. For most consumers, these are _____________ goods.
A. specialty
B. shopping
C. convenience
D. ritual
E. impulse
C. convenience
Andy likes gourmet popcorn, and will spend time trying to find his favorite brand. His girlfriend, Joanne, loves popcorn but doesn’t care about brands. For Andy, popcorn is a __________ good while for Joanne it is a __________ good.
A. shopping; specialty
B. convenience; shopping
C. convenience; specialty
D. specialty; convenience
E. unique;universal
D. specialty; convenience
Marketers need to think about the product offer on three levels. Which of the following levels includes associated services such as warranties, financing, support and after sale service?
A. augmented product
B. core customer value
C. actual product
D. modified product
E. core product
A. augmented product
Which of the following is NOT part of the “actual product” level of the product offer?
A. product warranty
B. features
C. design
D. quality
E. brand name
A. product warranty
When manufacturers try to understand what customers are looking for, they are thinking about the _______ component of the product offer.
A. core customer value
B. associated
services
C. augmented products
D. product support
E. quality level
A. core customer value
Suppose that Walgreens (a major drug store chain) wants to introduce its own brand of cough medicine that is similar in contents and packaging to a national brand, but at a lower cost. What kind of brand would Walgreens be introducing?
A. private label brand
B. counterfeit brand
C. premium brand
D. national brand
E. manufacturer brand
A. private label brand
When a company launches a new product with an existing brand name this is known as
A. a brand extension.
B. aline extension.
C. a multi brand.
D. anew
brand.
E. co branding
A. a brand extension.
Which of the following brand strategies is being used when the local ice cream shop decides to add a new flavor to its menu?
A. a line extension
B. a brand extension
C. a copycat brand
D. a premium brand
E. a multi brand
A. a line extension
When a restaurant chain, Big Burgers, launches its own brand of frozen meals, this is an example of a
A. brand extension.
B. line extension.
C. licensed brand.
D. copycat brand.
E. premium brand.
A. brand extension.
Which of the following best describes when Johnson & Johnson introduces a travel sized package for its existing baby oil product?
A. line extension
B. brand extension
C. brand dilution
D. rebranding
E. co branding
A. line extension
What aspect of the product is being described when a used car salesperson explains that each car comes with a one year extended warranty and a two-year maintenance plan?
A. associated services
B. actual product
C. product style
D. product position
E. productconcept
A. associated services
Some credit cards provide free liability insurance, funded by the bank issuing the card, when a customer pays for a rental car using the card. This extra insurance is an example of
A. an associated service.
B. the actual product.
C. product style.
D. the product position.
E. the core value.
A. an associated service.
When a salesperson approaches you to sell a cemetery plot, this is considered what type of product?
A. unsought product
B. shopping
product
C. convenience product
D. line extension
E. secondary product
A. unsought product