Kines 266 Final CH 18,19,21,22

In a sternoclavicular sprain, the clavicle is generally displaced in what direction?
A) Downward and posteriorly
B) Downward and anteriorly
C) Upward and anteriorly
D) Upward and posteriorly
C
Which of the following is the mechanism for an acromioclavicular sprain?
A) External rotation of the shoulder
B) A fall on an outstretched hand
C) A blow from behind the shoulder
D) All of the above are mechanisms
B
The empty can test is used to determine injury to what muscle?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Deltoid
C) Infraspinatus
D) Long head of the biceps brachii
A
Which of the following is the reason that impingement injuries occur?
A) A single traumatic event resulting in instability
B) Inflammation of the deltoid tendon
C) Reduction of the space through which the supraspinatus muscle can pass
D) Continual use of the arm below 90 degrees of elevation
C
Which of the following muscles is not a part of the rotator cuff?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Subscapularis
C) Infraspinatus
D) Deltoid
D
The acromion process is part of which bone?
A) Scapula
B) Spine
C) Humerus
D) Clavicle
A
Prevention of shoulder injuries can be accomplished by all of the following except for which statement?
A) Strengthening
B) Correct throwing technique
C) Development of extreme flexibility
D) Learning how to fall
C
Which of the following conditions is NOT considered chronic
A) bicipital tenosynovitis
B) acromioclavicular sprain
C) subacromial bursitis
D) impingement syndrome
B
What direction does the shoulder most commonly dislocate?
A) Inferiorly
B) Medially
C) Anteriorly
D) Posteriorly
C
What direction is an athlete’s arm in when an anterior glenohumeral dislocation occurs?
A) A neutral position with the arm at the side, thumb pointing forward
B) Internally rotated with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees
C) Slight abduction and internal rotation
D) Slight abduction and external rotation
D
Which of the following is the most important and most commonly injured bursa of the shoulder joint?
A) Subbicipital bursa
B) Subclavicular bursa
C) Subcoracoid bursa
D) Subacromial bursa
D
Which of the following muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?
A) Wrist extensors and supinators
B) Wrist flexors and supinators
C) Wrist flexors and pronators
D) Wrist extensors and pronators
A
Which of the following best describes the volar plate?
A) Ligamentous structure on the lateral aspect of the interphalangeal joints
B) Thickened capsule on the palmar surface of the interphalangeal joints
C) Ligamentous structure on the medial aspect of the interphalangeal joints
D) Thickened capsule on the dorsal surface of the interphalangeal joints
B
A deformity caused by a rupture of the extensor tendon over the distal phalanx is called what condition?
A) Jersey finger
B) Gamekeeper’s finger
C) Mallet finger
D) Boutonniere deformity
C
When removing a foreign object from the eye, which is the proper protocol
A) Rubbing the eye until it is dislodged
B) Pull the top lid over the bottom lid
C) Stare at a bright light so that your eye starts to water to flush the object out
D) Pull the bottom lid over the top lid
B
A wrist ganglion will most frequently appear on what aspect of the wrist?
A) On the dorsal surface of the wrist
B) On the palmer side of the wrist
C) At the ligamentous point on the wrist
D) Over the navicular bone
A
The common term for epistaxis is
A) Dislocated jaw
B) Nosebleed
C) Basilar skull fracture
D) Cauliflower ear
B
Severe point tenderness in the anatomical “snuffbox” may indicate a fracture of which bone?
A) Hamate
B) Scaphoid
C) Lunate
D) Trapezoid
B
Management of an avulsed tooth includes all the following except which of the following?
A) Scrubbing the tooth with a sterile gauze pad to get the dirt off
B) Referring immediately to a dentist
C) Placing the tooth in saline solution if unable to re-implant
D) Attempting re-implantation of the tooth in the socket
A
Which facial fracture does NOT cause double vision
A) Blowout fracture
B) Zygomatic fracture
C) Nasal fracture
D) All of the above can cause double vision
C
When trauma has occurred to the ear, tearing of the overlying tissue from the cartilaginous plate may result in fluid accumulation. This problem would be referred to as which of the following?
A) Epistaxis
B) Hyphema
C) Retinal detachment
D) Hematoma auris
D
Which of the following describes the inability of an athlete to remember events after the injury has occurred?
A) Retrograde amnesia
B) Anterograde amnesia
C) Tinnitus
D) Unconsciousness
B
Which of the following can occur if an athlete who sustained a previous concussion is returned to play prior to resolution of symptoms and then receives another head injury?
A) Second-impact syndrome
B) Cerebral hyperemia
C) Migraine headaches
D) Postconcussion syndrome
A
When an athlete is unconscious, head and neck injuries are always assumed.
A) False
B) True
B
What is type of injury has been sustained when the head is struck and the brain continues to move in the fluid, contusing the opposite side of impact?
A) Contrecoup injury
B) Coup injury
C) Whiplash injury
D) Mild head injury
D
Which of the following is the single most important consideration in preventing a head injury?
A) Correct tackling technique
B) Wearing a helmet
C) Warning labels on helmets
D) Wearing a mouthpiece
B
Special tests to evaluate an individual for a concussion include all of the following EXCEPT
A) MRI
B) Sport concussion recognition tool
C) SCAT 3
D) BESS test
E) ImPACT
A
An athlete can return to participation following a concussion except when which of the following occur?
A) They are normal neurologically
B) They have clearance from the physician
C) They have a slight headache
D) They have normal motor function
C