Human Resource Management Exam

It refers to a design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talent for accomplishing organizational goals
Which of the following statements is true of the functions of human resource management?
a.
It is a clerical operation in large companies concerned with payroll and employee records.
b.
It refers to a department which looks into the legal ramifications of policies and procedures that affect only the employees in an organization.
c.
It is a function concerned with costs, planning, and the implications of various strategies for organizations.
d.
It refers to a design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talent for accomplishing organizational goals.
to determine the total cost of people required for each unit of output
A useful way to measure the productivity of a workforce is:
a.
to determine the total cost of people required for each unit of output.
b.
to determine the total cost of people required for an output of 100 units.
c.
to determine the total cost of people required to complete a day’s worth of work.
d.
to determine the total cost of people required to complete a year’s worth of work.
By dividing the average cost of workers by their average levels of output
How is unit labor cost computed?
a.
By dividing the total cost of workers by the total level of output
b.
By dividing the total level of output by the total cost of workers
c.
By dividing the average level of output by the average cost of workers
d.
By dividing the average cost of workers by their average levels of output
Organizational Restructuring
_____, a method to increase employee productivity, involves eliminating layers of management and changing reporting relationships, as well as cutting staff through downsizing, layoffs, and early retirement buyout programs.
a.
Organizational restructuring
b.
Redesigning work
c.
Aligning human resource activity
d.
Outsourcing
Redesigning Work
_____, a method to increase employee productivity, involves having fewer employees who perform multiple job tasks.
a.
Organizational restructuring
b.
Aligning HR activity
c.
Outsourcing
d.
Redesigning work
Aligning Human Resource Activity
_____, a method to increase employee productivity, includes ensuring that staffing, training and development, performance management, and compensation are not working to offset productivity.
a.
Outsourcing
b.
Redesigning work
c.
Aligning human resource activity
d.
Organizational restructuring
Aiding in mergers and acquisitions
Which of the following is a part of the process of restructuring an organization?
a.
Aiding in mergers and acquisitions
b.
Reshaping jobs because of technology changes
c.
Attracting and retaining employees
d.
Using domestic vendors instead of employees
Reshaping jobs because of technology changes
Which of the following is a part of the process of redesigning work?
a.
Reshaping jobs because of technology changes
b.
Revising organizational structures
c.
Training, developing, and evaluating employees
d.
Outsourcing operations internationally
Training, developing, and evaluating employees
Which of the following is a part of the process of aligning human resource activities?
a.
Changing workloads and combining jobs
b.
Revising organizational structure
c.
Using domestic vendors instead of employees
d.
Training, developing, and evaluating employees
Using domestic vendors instead of employees
Which of the following is a part of the process of outsourcing analyses?
a.
Revising organizational structure
b.
Using domestic vendors instead of employees
c.
Changing workloads and combining jobs
d.
Attracting and retaining employees
It tells people how to behave in an organization
Which of the following is true of organizational culture?
a.
It increases the diversity of an organization.
b.
It decreases the diversity of an organization.
c.
It tells people how to behave in an organization.
d.
It does not take a very long time to evolve.
Human Resource Policies
Which of the following is a part of the human resource function of employee and labor relations?
a.
Human resource policies
b.
Health and wellness
c.
Human resource effectiveness
d.
Affirmative action
Human Resource Retention
Which of the following is a part of the strategy and planning function of human resource management?
a.
Diversity
b.
Human resource retention
c.
Job analysis
d.
Compensation
Recruiting
Which of the following is a part of the staffing function of human resource management?
a.
Recruiting
b.
Training
c.
Orientation
d.
Career planning
It focuses on record keeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation
Which of the following is true of the administrative role of human resource departments?
a.
It involves managing most human resource activities in keeping with strategies and operations that have been identified by management.
b.
It involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.
c.
It involves identifying possible strategies to attract and retain talent with a focus on organizational growth.
d.
It focuses on record keeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.
It involves managing most human resource activities in keeping with the strategies that have been identified by management
Which of the following is true of the operational role of human resource departments?
a.
It involves focusing on clerical administration and recordkeeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.
b.
It involves identifying possible strategies to attract and retain talent with a focus on organizational growth.
c.
It involves managing most human resource activities in keeping with the strategies that have been identified by management.
d.
It involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.
Administrative Role
Which of the following has traditionally been the dominant role for human resources?
a.
Operational role
b.
Employee advocate role
c.
Administrative role
d.
Strategic role
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
Sara, a human resource manager at Comp Inc., is moving from an administrative role in the human resource department to an operational role. Which of the following is best describes Sara’s change of role?
a.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
b.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
c.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
d.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
Bob, a human resources executive at Axis Inc., is moving from an operational role in the human resources department to a strategic role. Which of the following best describes Bob’s change of role?
a.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
b.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
d.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
David, a human resources manager at RedWall Inc., is moving from an administrative role in the human resource department to a strategic role. Which of the following best describes David’s change of role?
a.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to processing legal paperwork
b.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
d.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to processing legal paperwork
Mike, a human resources executive at Oyster Studios, is moving from an operational role in the human resources department to an administrative role. Which of the following best describes Mike’s change of role?
a.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
b.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
d.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to processing legal paperwork
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
Donna, a human resources manager at Loch Inc., is moving from a strategic role in the human resources department to an operational role. Which of the following best describes Donna’s change of role?
a.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
b.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
d.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to processing legal paperwork
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
Sunny, a human resources executive at FlyHi Inc., is moving from a strategic role in the human resources department to an administrative role. Which of the following best describes Sunny’s change of role?
a.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
b.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
c.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
d.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
Expatriate
A(n) _____ is a citizen of one country working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in the first country.
a.
host-country national
b.
expatriate
c.
third-country national
d.
independent contractor
Host-Country National
A(n) _____ is a citizen of one country who is working in that country and employed by an organization headquartered in a second country.
a.
expatriate
b.
independent contractor
c.
host-country national
d.
third-country national
Third-Country National
A(n) _____ is a citizen of one country who is working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in a third country.
a.
expatriate
b.
second-country national
c.
host-country national
d.
third-country national
He is an expatriate
Raul, a U.S. citizen, works in Mexico for an organization headquartered in the United States. Which of the following statements is true of Raul?
a.
He is a host-country national.
b.
He is an independent contractor.
c.
He is a third-country national.
d.
He is an expatriate.
She is an expatriate
Jane, a citizen of the country of Aria, works in the country of Polia for an organization headquartered in Aria. Which of the following best describes Jane?
a.
She is a host-country national.
b.
She is a third-country national.
c.
She is an independent contractor.
d.
She is an expatriate.
He is a host-country national
Peter, a U.S. citizen, works in the United States for an organization headquartered in Mexico. Which of the following best describes Peter?
a.
He is an independent contractor.
b.
He is a third-country national.
c.
He is a host-country national.
d.
He is an expatriate.
He is a host-country national
Smith, a U.S. citizen, works in his country for an organization headquartered in a different country. Which of the following best describes Smith?
a.
He is a third-country national.
b.
He is a host-country national.
c.
He is a third-country national.
d.
He is an independent contractor.
He is a third-country national
Joe, a U.S. citizen, works in Mexico for an organization headquartered in the United Kingdom. Which of the following best describes Joe?
a.
He is an expatriate.
b.
He is a host-country national.
c.
He is an inpatriate.
d.
He is a third-country national.
Emerging market opportunities expose companies to unfamiliar risks that may be difficult to analyze
Which of the following is true of the common challenges for global human resource?
a.
Companies feel that it is easier to be locally flexible as they expand.
b.
Executives always feel that their companies are good at transferring lessons from one country to another.
c.
Sharing the cost of distant centers decreases the expense of local operations.
d.
Emerging market opportunities expose companies to unfamiliar risks that may be difficult to analyze.
Having to replace experience and talent
Which of the following is a disadvantage of an aging workforce in economically developed countries?
a.
Having to provide retirement benefits
b.
Having to decrease the span of control
c.
Having to provide flexible work arrangements
d.
Having to replace experience and talent
Lower Cost
Which of the following is an advantage of using a contingent workforce?
a.
Committed employees
b.
No training needed
c.
Lower cost
d.
Wider span of control
It is a software that did payroll, kept track of employees, and ran reports for human resource managers with support from IT
Which of the following is true about a Human Resource Information System?
a.
It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own reports and make changes without help from IT.
b.
It is a software that runs in a vendor’s data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
c.
It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
d.
It is a software that did payroll, kept track of employees, and ran reports for human resource managers with support from IT.
It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own support and make changes without help from IT
Which of the following is true of PeopleSoft?
a.
It is a software that runs in a vendor’s data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
b.
It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own support and make changes without help from IT.
c.
It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
d.
It is a software that kept track of employees for human resource managers with support from IT.
It is a software that runs in a vendor’s data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service
Which of the following is true of Software-as-a-Service?
a.
It is a software that runs in a vendor’s data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
b.
It is a software that allowed the human resource unit to run its own support and make changes with help from IT.
c.
It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
d.
It is a software that kept track of employees and ran reports for human resource managers with support from IT.
An HRIS was run on support from IT people while PeopleSoft did not require any support from IT
Which of the following is a difference between a Human Resource Information System (HRIS) and PeopleSoft?
a.
PeopleSoft used the Cloud while an HRIS used a vendor’s data center.
b.
PeopleSoft did not allow human resource units to run its own reports whereas an HRIS allowed it.
c.
An HRIS was run on support from IT people while PeopleSoft did not require any support from IT.
d.
An HRIS used the Cloud while PeopleSoft used a vendor’s data center.
SaaS allows self-service, while an HRIS requires support from IT
Which of the following is the difference between a Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) and Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)?
a.
An HRIS uses a vendor’s data center, while SaaS uses the Cloud.
b.
An HRIS uses the Cloud, while SaaS uses a vendor’s data center.
c.
SaaS requires support from IT, while an HRIS allows self-service.
d.
SaaS allows self-service, while an HRIS requires support from IT.
Customer Lists
In the context of social media, the disclosure of which of the following is most likely to be considered a risk by employers?
a.
Policy changes
b.
Customer lists
c.
Competitive service details
d.
Operational changes
It has recommended that global multinational firms establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development
Which of the following is a recommendation of the Organization for Economic Cooperation?
a.
It has recommended that global multinational firms give equal employment opportunities to all segments of the society.
b.
It has recommended that all countries should encourage and facilitate global trade and open their financial markets to globalization.
c.
It has recommended that global multinational firms establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development.
d.
It has recommended and encouraged free trade policies like the North American Free Trade Agreement between Canada, Mexico, and the United States.
It was passed in 2002 by Congress to make certain that publicly traded companies follow accounting controls that could reduce the likelihood of illegal behavior
Which of the following is true of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
a.
It was passed in 2000 by Congress to encourage free trade between Canada, Mexico, and the United States.
b.
It was passed in 2002 by Congress to make certain that publicly traded companies follow accounting controls that could reduce the likelihood of illegal behavior.
c.
It was passed in 2006 by Congress to ensure stricter adherence of guidelines in the hiring practices of immigrant workers in the American workforce.
d.
It was passed in 2004 by Congress to encourage foreign direct investments by providing tax subsidies to increase the rate of return for investments.
Executive Compensation
In the context of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the biggest concerns are linked to:
a.
immigrant workers.
b.
executive compensation.
c.
employee productivity.
d.
workplace safety.
Ability to lead changes
Josh, a human resource executive, works with AmPro Inc. Recently, he moved from a generalized role in the HR department to a senior role. Which of the following skills does Josh have to build to succeed in his new role?
a.
Administrative capabilities
b.
Operational knowledge
c.
Ability to lead changes
d.
Legal capabilities
Human Resource Generalist
A person who is responsible for performing a variety of human resource activities is known as a _____.
a.
human resource specialist
b.
human resource planner
c.
human resource strategist
d.
human resource generalist
WorldatWork Association
Which of the following is a specialized human resource organization?
a.
WorldatWork Association
b.
Organization for Economic Cooperation
c.
Ethics Resource Center
d.
U.S. Small Business Association
Both the roles played by Josh are generalist roles
Josh, a human resource manager, used to handle employee recruitment and compensation for his organization. After a promotion, he was responsible for handling employee recruitment, compensation, and benefits. Which of the following is true of Josh?
a.
Both the roles played by Josh are generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles played by Josh are specialist roles.
c.
Josh moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
d.
Josh moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
Suzi moved from a generalist role to a specialist role
Suzie, a human resource executive, works with ZedNet Inc. She was responsible for employee recruitment and compensation. After a promotion, she was made responsible only for recruitment. Which of the following is true of Suzie?
a.
Both the roles that Suzie played were generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles that Suzie played were specialist roles.
c.
Suzie moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
d.
Suzie moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
Both the roles that Ramone played were specialist roles
Ramone, a human resource manager, works for TelVille Inc. Initially, he was responsible only for recruitment. After a promotion, he was made responsible exclusively for employee benefits. Which of the following is true of Ramone?
a.
Both the roles that Ramone played were generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles that Ramone played were specialist roles.
c.
Ramone moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
d.
Ramone moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
Max moved from a specialist role to a generalist role
Max, a human resource executive, works at Axis Inc. Initially, he was responsible only for recruitment but after his promotion was responsible for recruitment, compensation, and benefits. Which of the following best describes Max?
a.
Both the roles played by Max were generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles played by Max were specialist roles.
c.
Max moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
d.
Max moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
Organizational Mission
Which of the following is typically the first step in the strategic planning process for organizations?
a.
Organizational mission
b.
SWOT analysis
c.
Formulating organizational strategy
d.
Establishing goals and objectives
Evaluating and Reassessing strategy
Which of the following is typically the last step in the strategic planning process for organizations?
a.
Formulating supporting functional strategies
b.
Evaluating and reassessing strategy
c.
Establishing goals and objectives
d.
Stating the organizational mission
Establish goals and objectives
Ken, a brand manager at Media Labs LLC., is formulating a strategic plan for his organization. He has identified the organizational mission and formulated a SWOT analysis of the business. Which of the following is most likely to be Ken’s next step in the strategic planning process?
a.
Evaluate and reassess strategy
b.
Implement strategy
c.
Establish goals and objectives
d.
Formulate supporting functional strategies
Formulating Supporting Functional Strategies
Kurt, a manager at LionShare LLC., is responsible for the strategic planning process in his organization. He is currently at the stage of implementing the strategy. Which of the following stages of strategic planning would have Kurt engaged in just before he moved on to implementation?
a.
Stating the organizational mission
b.
Conducting a SWOT analysis
c.
Establishing goals and objectives
d.
Formulating supporting functional strategies
An organization that has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its home country
Which of the following best defines multinational corporations?
a.
An organization that has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its home country
b.
An organization that imports goods from other countries to its home country
c.
An organization that exports goods from its home country to other countries
d.
An organization that has facilities and other assets only in its home country
Managers from headquarters staff key positions
Which of the following is best classified as an ethnocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?
a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals in the region of the subsidiary.
Host-country nationals staff key positions
Which of the following is best classified as a polycentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?
a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals in the region of the subsidiary.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality
Which of the following is best classified as a geocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?
a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals in the region of the subsidiary.
Key positions are filled by individuals from the same geographic area as the subsidiary
Which of the following is best classified as a regiocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?
a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals from the same geographic area as the subsidiary.
Review organization’s environmental analysis/strategic plans
Which of the following is typically the first step in the HR planning process?
a.
Review organization’s environmental analysis/strategic plans
b.
Develop HR staffing plans and actions
c.
Compile HR planning forecasts
d.
Assess external and internal workforce
Develop HR staffing plans and actions
Which of the following is typically the last step in the HR planning process?
a.
Review organization’s environmental analysis/strategic plans
b.
Develop HR staffing plans and actions
c.
Compile HR planning forecasts
d.
Assess external and internal workforce
Assess external and internal workforce
Mark, an HR manager, is responsible for the HR planning process in his organization. He has reviewed the organization’s strategic plans. Which of the following is most likely to be Mark’s next step in the planning process?
a.
Develop HR staffing plans and actions
b.
Compile HR planning forecasts
c.
Implement HR staffing plans and actions
d.
Assess external and internal workforce
Competitive Forces
Which of the following is a factor of the external environment in an organization?
a.
Leadership bench strength
b.
Organizational culture
c.
Quality of talent
d.
Competitive forces
Quality of Talent
Which of the following is a factor of the internal environment in an organization?
a.
Quality of talent
b.
Economic forces
c.
Political forces
d.
Competitive forces
Succession Planning
The term _____ refers to the process of identifying a plan for the orderly replacement of key employees.
a.
attrition
b.
succession planning
c.
due diligence
d.
benchmarking
Estimates
Which of the following is a judgmental method of HR forecasting?
a.
Simulation models
b.
Estimates
c.
Staffing ratios
d.
Productivity ratios
Staffing Ratios
Which of the following is a mathematical method of HR forecasting?
a.
The rule of thumb
b.
Estimates
c.
Staffing ratios
d.
Nominal groups
Statistical Regression Analysis
_____ is a mathematical HR forecasting method that involves making a comparison of past relationships among various factors.
a.
Statistical regression analysis
b.
Productivity ratio
c.
Staffing ratio
d.
Delphi technique
Rule of Thumb
_____ refers to the judgmental method of HR forecasting that relies on general guidelines applied to a specific situation within the organization.
a.
Statistical regression analysis
b.
Rule of thumb
c.
Delphi technique
d.
Simulation model
Nominal Group
A(n) _____ refers to the judgmental method of HR forecasting that requires experts to meet face to face.
a.
simulation model
b.
estimate
c.
nominal group
d.
regression analysis
Current Staffing Levels – Projected outflows this year + Projected inflows this year
Internal Supply for next year = _____.
a.
Current staffing level + Projected outflows this year + Projected inflows this year
b.
Current staffing level – Projected outflows this year – Projected inflows this year
c.
Current staffing level + Projected outflows this year – Projected inflows this year
d.
Current staffing level – Projected outflows this year + Projected inflows this year
Internal Transfers
Which of the following is a source of inflow in the current staffing level?
a.
Internal transfers
b.
Turnover
c.
Demotions
d.
Retirements
Promotions
Which of the following is a source of outflow in the current staffing level?
a.
External hires
b.
Promotions
c.
Recalls
d.
Internal transfers
Freezing Hiring
Which of the following is an effective method of managing a talent surplus?
a.
Outsourcing to a third party
b.
Using contingent workers
c.
Freezing hiring
d.
Increase employee work hours through overtime
Outsourcing to a third party
Which of the following is an effective method for managing a talent shortage?
a.
Reducing employee work hours
b.
Encouraging attrition
c.
Implementing voluntary separation programs
d.
Outsourcing to a third party
Displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for themselves, and up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums themselves.
Which of the following is true of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act?
a.
Displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for themselves, and up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums themselves.
b.
Displaced workers can use the Medicare program sponsored by the government for up to 18 months after the termination of their employment.
c.
Displaced workers can use the Medicare program sponsored by the federal government for up to 36 months after the termination of their employment.
d.
Displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 12 months for themselves, and up to 24 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums themselves.
The act requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations
Which of the following is true of the Older Workers Benefit Protection Act?
a.
The act requires employers to disclose the ethnicity and gender of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations.
b.
The act requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations.
c.
The act requires employers to disclose ages of only the terminated employees in layoff situations.
d.
The act requires employers to disclose ages of only the retained employees in layoff situations.
It requires private or commercial organizations that employ 100 or more full-time workers who have worked more than six months in the previous year to give a 60-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 50 people.
Which of the following is true of the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act?
a.
It requires private or commercial organizations that employ 20 or more full-time workers who have worked more than a year with the organization to give a 30-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 10 people.
b.
It requires private and commercial organizations that employ 50 or more full-time employees who have worked more than three months in the previous year to give a 45-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 30 people.
c.
It requires private or commercial organizations that employ 100 or more full-time workers who have worked more than six months in the previous year to give a 60-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 50 people.
d.
It requires private or commercial organizations that employ more than 50 or more full-time workers who have worked more than a year with the organization to give a 30-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 20 people.
Incurring heavy fines
Which of the following is a consequence that employers face when they violate the WARN Act?
a.
Delisting from the stock exchange
b.
Revocation of trade licenses
c.
Imposition of trade embargo
d.
Incurring heavy fines
Conducting due diligence
Which of the following is an HR activity that should be performed before engaging in mergers and acquisitions?
a.
Conducting due diligence
b.
Retaining key talent
c.
Optimizing workforce
d.
Recognizing cultural differences
Retaining key talent
Which of the following is an HR activity that should be conducted during integration in mergers and acquisitions?
a.
Assessing risks
b.
Retaining key talent
c.
Identifying possible conflicts
d.
Conducting due diligence
Identifying and establishing new culture
Which of the following is an HR activity to be performed post integration in mergers and acquisitions?
a.
Assessing risks
b.
Retaining key talent
c.
Identifying and establishing new culture
d.
Conducting due diligence
before making the deal
During mergers and acquisitions, risk must be assessed _____.
a.
post integration
b.
after making the deal
c.
before making the deal
d.
during integration
Post Integration
During mergers and acquisitions, the workforce must be optimized _____.
a.
post integration
b.
pre integration
c.
before making the deal
d.
during integration
The ability to produce a specific desired effort or result that can be measured
Which of the following best defines the term ‘effectiveness’?
a.
The degree to which operations are done in an economical manner
b.
The ability to produce a specific desired effort or result that can be measured
c.
The degree to which operations are done in the least possible time
d.
The ability to produce a specific desired effort or result that cannot be measured
HR staff and expenses
HR-to-employee ratio is classified as a(n) _____ metric of Human Resource.
a.
training
b.
development
c.
HR staff and expenses
d.
compensation
staffing
Cost per hire is classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.
a.
development
b.
training
c.
compensation
d.
staffing
Compensation
Annual wages and pay increases are classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.
a.
compensation
b.
training
c.
development
d.
staffing
Retention and Quality
Average tenure of employees is classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.
a.
compensation
b.
training
c.
retention and quality
d.
development
Development
Positions filled internally are classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.
a.
compensation
b.
training
c.
retention and quality
d.
development
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
Which of the following best defines HR analytics?
a.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
b.
An assumption-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
c.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of qualitative tools and models
d.
An assumption-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of qualitative tools and models
Internal Business Processes
In the balanced scorecard framework, operational effectiveness is classified under _____.
a.
financial measures
b.
internal business processes
c.
customer relations
d.
learning and growth activities
Customer Satisfaction
In the balanced scorecard framework, which of the following factors would considered most important to ensure that the organization is meeting customer expectations?
a.
profit and loss
b.
institutional knowledge
c.
customer satisfaction
d.
utilization of capital
Learning and Growth Activities
In the balanced scorecard framework, employee capabilities are classified under _____.
a.
financial measures
b.
internal business processes
c.
customer relations
d.
learning and growth activities
Financial Measures
In the balanced scorecard framework, utilization of capital is classified under _____.
a.
financial measures
b.
internal business processes
c.
customer relations
d.
learning and growth activities
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
Which of the following is the function of compliance audits?
a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing specific HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
Which of the following is the function of benefit programs audit?
a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing specific HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations
Which of the following is the function of I-9 audit?
a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing specific HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations
Reviewing particular HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
Which of the following is the function of specific program audit?
a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing particular HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
Education
Which of the following is a legally permissible criterion in making hiring and other employment decisions?
a.
Education
b.
Gender
c.
Age
d.
Religion
Religion
Which of the following is an illegal criterion for rejecting job applicants?
a.
Education
b.
Work experience
c.
Skill sets
d.
Religion
“Young store executives needed”
Which of the following advertisements for recruitment is most likely to be considered illegal?
a.
“Experienced writers required”
b.
“Enthusiastic radio jockeys needed”
c.
“Wanted: Professors with educational background in economics”
d.
“Young store executives needed”
Status-blind employment decisions
Equal employment opportunity is a broad-reaching concept that essentially requires employers to make:
a.
status-blind employment decisions.
b.
nepotistic employment decisions.
c.
egocentric employment decisions.
d.
dictatorial employment decisions.
Increase the number of women and minorities in the workforce
Affirmative action means that an employer takes proactive measures to:
a.
encourage the glass ceiling effect.
b.
reduce status-blind employment decisions.
c.
increase the number of women and minorities in the workforce.
d.
decrease instances of whistleblowing in the workplace.
It has broad enforcement power and oversees compliance with many employment-related laws
Which of the following is true of the U.S. Department of Labor?
a.
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission is a part of the Department of Labor.
b.
It can enforce employment laws for employers in public workplaces but private workplaces are beyond its jurisdiction.
c.
The employment requirements set out by Executive Orders for federal contractors and subcontractors is beyond the scope of the Department of Labor.
d.
It has broad enforcement power and oversees compliance with many employment-related laws.
Disparate Treatment
_____ occurs when members of a group are treated differently from others.
a.
Disparate treatment
b.
Consociationalism
c.
Isonomy
d.
Diversity
Disparate Impact
_____ occurs when an employment practice that does not appear to be discriminatory has a disproportionately adverse effect on individuals with a particular characteristic.
a.
Disparate treatment
b.
Disparate impact
c.
Isonomy
d.
Consociationalism
Business Necessity
A _____ is a practice required for safe and efficient organizational operations.
a.
disparate treatment
b.
burden of proof
c.
business necessity
d.
business emergency
Business Necessity
Preventing workers from injuring themselves at the workplace is a _____.
a.
nonretaliatory practice
b.
burden of proof
c.
business necessity
d.
business emergency
It often results in a disparate impact of minority applicants
Which of the following is a criticism of the use of criminal background checks and credit reports in the selection process?
a.
It often results in a disparate impact of minority applicants.
b.
It leads to an increase in the number of status-blind employment decisions.
c.
It is merely an indicator of the past and not a predictor of the future.
d.
It reduces instances of glass ceiling.
It provides a legitimate reason why an employer can exclude persons on otherwise
illegal bases of consideration.
Which of the following best describes a bona fide occupational qualification?
a.
It is a template that an HR department uses in selecting, training, and orienting prospective employees.
b.
It provides a detailed description of routine work responsibilities for all the employees in an organization.
c.
It provides an exhaustive list of the desired traits and characteristics expected from prospective employees.
d.
It provides a legitimate reason why an employer can exclude persons on otherwise
illegal bases of consideration.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against individuals who file discrimination charges
Which of the following is true of retaliation in workplaces?
a.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against individuals who file
discrimination charges.
b.
Employees are prohibited from retaliating against organizations that practice discrimination.
c.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against employees on ethical grounds.
d.
Employees are restricted from retaliating against employers who encourage instances of glass ceiling.
Segregating employees on the basis of their ethnicity
Which of the following scenarios is considered illegal according to the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
a.
Segregating employees on the basis of their educational qualification
b.
Segregating employees on the basis of their ethnicity
c.
Segregating employees on the basis of their work experience
d.
Segregating employees on the basis of their skill sets
Segregating employees on the basis of their gender
Which of the following scenarios is considered illegal according to the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
a.
Segregating employees on the basis of their educational qualification
b.
Segregating employees on the basis of their gender
c.
Segregating employees on the basis of their work experience
d.
Segregating employees on the basis of their skill sets
State and local governments with more than 15 employees
Which of the following organizations must comply with rules and regulations that specific government agencies have established to administer the Equal Employment Opportunity
Act of 1972?
a.
Nongovernmental organizations with a minimum of 10 employees
b.
State and local governments with more than 15 employees
c.
Private organizations with a minimum of 10 employees
d.
Labor unions with 5 or more members
It requires that employers show that an employment practice is job related for a position
Which of the following is true of the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
a.
It requires that employers show that there are instances of glass ceiling in their organizations.
b.
It requires employers to discourage the occurence of affirmative actions in the work place.
c.
It requires that employers show that an employment practice is job related for a position.
d.
It requires employers to avoid making status-blind employment decisions.
They require federal contractors to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
Which of the following is true of executive orders 11246, 11375, and 11478?
a.
They require all educational institutions to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
b.
They require labor unions to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
c.
They require state governments to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
d.
They require federal contractors to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
To have the company’s workforce demographics reflect as closely as possible the demographics in the labor market
Which of the following is the objective of the affirmative action program?
a.
To have the company’s workforce demographics reflect as closely as possible the demographics in the labor market
b.
To encourage organizations where minorities from the local community represent a significantly lesser proportion of the workforce
c.
To stop companies from making status-blind employment decisions
d.
To encourage organizations where instances of glass ceiling are common
Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
The affirmative action program is reviewed by the _____.
a.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
b.
Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
c.
Committee on Oversight and Government Reform
d.
Department of Justice
Racial Discrimination
The original purpose of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 was to address _____ in the United States.
a.
gender discrimination
b.
age discrimination
c.
racial discrimination
d.
disability discrimination
Pregnancy Discrimination Act
The _____ requires that employers treat maternity leave the same as other personal or medical leaves.
a.
Pregnancy Discrimination Act
b.
Family and Medical Leave Act
c.
Fair Labor Standards Act
d.
National Labor Relations Act
It requires that qualified individuals be given up to 12 weeks of unpaid family leave
Which of the following is true of the Family and Medical Leave Act?
a.
It does not cover cases of adoption.
b.
It applies only to women.
c.
It requires that qualified individuals be given up to 12 weeks of unpaid family leave.
d.
It requires that qualified individuals be given up to 20 weeks of unpaid family leave.
Family and Medical Leave Act
The _____ requires that qualified individuals be given up to 12 weeks of unpaid family leave and also requires that those taking family leave be allowed to return to jobs.
a.
Pregnancy Discrimination Act
b.
Family and Medical Leave Act
c.
Fair Labor Standards Act
d.
National Labor Relations Act
It requires employers to give similar wage rates for similar work without regard to gender.
Which of the following statements is true about the Equal Pay Act of 1963?
a.
It states that differences in pay between men and women in the same jobs are permitted if they belong to different ethnic groups.
b.
It requires that men and women in the same jobs, inspite of difference in seniority are given equal pay.
c.
It states that the existence of pay differences between the different jobs held by women and men issufficient to prove that illegal discrimination has occurred.
d.
It requires employers to give similar wage rates for similar work without regard to gender.
Difference in performance
Under which of the following circumstances is a difference in pay between men and women permitted by the Equal Pay Act of 1963?
a.
Difference in performance
b.
Difference in life stage
c.
Difference in ethnicity
d.
Difference in religious beliefs
Difference in Seniority
Under which of the following circumstances is a difference in pay between men and women permitted by the Equal Pay Act of 1963?
a.
Difference in seniority
b.
Difference in marital status
c.
Difference in ethnicity
d.
Difference in religious beliefs
Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act
The _____ eliminates the statute of limitations for employees who file pay discrimination claims under the Equal Pay Act.
a.
Taft-Hartley Act
b.
Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act
c.
Clayton Antitrust Act
d.
Railway Labor Act
The continuing gap between the earnings of women and men
Which of the following is a major reason for the development of the pay equity idea?
a.
The uneven representation of ethnic minorities in the workforce
b.
The increasing number of racial discrimination lawsuits
c.
The continuing gap between the earnings of women and men
d.
The increasing number of women in the workforce
Benchmark against local and national markets
Which of the following is a step that employers can take to reduce pay inequities?
a.
Benchmark against local and national markets
b.
Base pay on the longevity of the employee’s association with the company
c.
Exclude benefits and other items from the total pay package
d.
Base pay on the age of the employee
It refers to the discriminatory practices that have prevented women and other minority status employees from advancing to executive-level jobs.
Which of the following is true of glass ceiling?
a.
It refers to the discriminatory practices that have prevented women and other minority status employees from successfully obtaining jobs.
b.
It refers to the preferential treatment that women and minorities receive within an organization.
c.
It refers to the preferential treatment that women and minorities receive within an organization when they advance to executive-level jobs.
d.
It refers to the discriminatory practices that have prevented women and other minority status employees from advancing to executive-level jobs.
Establishing formal mentoring programs for minority groups
One of the most common means used to control instances of glassceiling in an organization is:
a.
avoiding status-blind employment decisions.
b.
establishing formal mentoring programs for minority groups.
c.
avoiding affirmative action.
d.
preventing employees from opting for alternative work arrangements.
Birth
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and Federal Court cases have ruled that sex discrimination under title VII applies to a person’s gender at the time of _____.
a.
birth
b.
discrimination
c.
employment
d.
litigation
It is the practice of allowing relatives to work for the same employer
Which of the following best describes nepotism?
a.
It is the practice of prohibiting relatives from working for the same employer.
b.
It is the practice of allowing relatives to work for the same employer.
c.
It is the practice of allowing friends to work for the same employer.
d.
It is the practice of prohibiting friends from working for the same employer.
A supervisor giving a pay hike to an employee who performed sexual favors
Which of the following best exemplifies quid pro quo type of sexual harassment?
a.
A supervisor commenting on the appearance of an employee
b.
A supervisor telling jokes to an employee that are sexual in nature
c.
A supervisor giving a pay hike to an employee who performed sexual favors
d.
A supervisor allowing revealing photos of self to be displayed in a public domain
A company always bears liability for quid pro quo harassment as supervisors are agents of the company
Which of the following statements is true of quid pro quo harassment?
a.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she tells jokes that are suggestive or sexual in nature.
b.
For proving charges of quid pro quo harassment, a plaintiff only needs to prove that the working condition at a workplace is hostile.
c.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment only if the victim refuses to grant the sexual favors.
d.
A company always bears liability for quid pro quo harassment as supervisors are agents of the company.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she promotes an employee in return of sexual favors.
Which of the following statements is true of quid pro quo harassment?
a.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she tells jokes that are suggestive or sexual in nature.
b.
For proving charges of quid pro quo harassment, a plaintiff only needs to prove that the working condition at a workplace is hostile.
c.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she promotes an employee in return of sexual favors.
d.
A company cannot be heald liable for an employee’s actions in cases of quid pro quo harassment.
Federal Contractors
The Rehabilitation Act passed in 1973 applied only to _____.
a.
federal contractors
b.
state governments
c.
labor unions
d.
nonprofit organizations
Rehabilitation Act
The _____ passed in 1973 required that federal contractors take affirmative action to employ disabled workers.
a.
Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Taft-Hartley Act
State Government Employees
Which of the following is not covered under the Americans with Disabilities Act?
a.
Employees of private organizations
b.
Employment agencies
c.
State government employees
d.
Labor unions
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
The Americans with Disabilities Act is enforced by the _____.
a.
Department of Labor
b.
National Labor Relations Board
c.
Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
d.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
The ADA does not protect current users of illegal drugs and substances
Which of the following statements is true of the Americans with Disabilities Act?
a.
The ADA does not protect current users of illegal drugs and substances
b.
The ADA does not protect recovering addicts
c.
Impairments such as autism and bipolar disorder are not covered as disabilities
d.
Impairments such as cancer and HIV are not covered as disabilities
Providing special equipment to assist with their task
Which of the following is typically a practice of reasonable accommodation by employers toward disabled employees?
a.
Establishing glassceiling to aid the employees
b.
Providing special equipment to assist with their task
c.
Practicing nepotism to ensure that employees have a healthy work environment
d.
Providing current users of illegal drugs with better compensation
Americans with Disabilities Act
The _____ prohibits the use of preemployment medical exams, except for drug tests, until a job has been conditionally offered.
a.
Civil Rights Act
b.
Family and Medical Leave Act
c.
Americans with Disabilities Act
d.
Taft-Hartley Act
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
The _____ prohibits discrimination in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against all individuals of age 40 or older working for employers having 20 or more workers.
a.
Older Workers Benefit Protections Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
According to the _____ workers over the age of 40 are entitled to receive complete accurate information on the available benefits, a list of all workers impacted in a reduction, and several weeks to decide whether or not to accept severance benefits in exchange for a waiver to sue the employer.
a.
Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
b.
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Rehabilitation Act
Employees’ workloads and pay levels are reduced
Which of the following is true of phased retirement?
a.
Employees’ workloads and pay levels are increased.
b.
Employees’ workloads and pay levels are reduced.
c.
Employees’ workloads are reduced and pay levels are increased.
d.
Employees’ workloads are increased and pay levels are reduced.
Immigration Reform and Control Act
The _____ requires employers to verify the employment status of all employees, while not discriminating because of national origin or ethnic background.
a.
Civil Rights Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Immigration Reform and Control Act
d.
Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act
According to the _____ employees are required to notify their employers of military service obligations.
a.
Civil Rights Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act
d.
Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act
Uniformed military personnel are provided up to five years of active duty service leave during which the employer must hold their job.
Which of the following is true of the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act?
a.
Uniformed military personnel are provided up to five years of active duty service leave during which the employer must hold their job.
b.
Uniformed military personnel are provided up to seven years of active duty service leave during which the employer must hold their job.
c.
The employer must compensate the military personnel during the time of active service for a period of five years.
d.
The employer must compensate the military personnel during the time of active service for a period of seven years.
It is the percentage of the population working or seeking work
Which of the following is true of the labor force participation rate?
a.
It is the percentage of the population working or seeking work.
b.
It is the percentage of the population that is eligible to work legally.
c.
It is the percentage of the population that is constantly changing jobs.
d.
It is the percentage of the population with graduate degrees.
Workers of ages 25-54
Which of the following groups of workers are classified as prime-work-age workers?
a.
Workers of ages 20-40
b.
Workers of ages 25-54
c.
Workers of ages 20-60
d.
Workers of ages 22-58
National Work Readiness Credential
The _____ is a certification that is based on a written test of a potential employee’s business math skills, oral language skills, and situational judgment.
a.
Federal Work Readiness Credential
b.
Federal Career Readiness Certificate
c.
National Work Readiness Credential
d.
National Career Readiness Certificate
National Career Readiness Certificate
The _____ is based on American college testing (ACT) work keys system, and gives scores for “reading for information, locating information, and applied math.”
a.
Federal Work Readiness Credential
b.
Federal Career Readiness Certificate
c.
National Work Readiness Credential
d.
National Career Readiness Certificate
less than 35
The Bureau of Labor Statistics classifies people working _____ hours per week as part-time employees.
a.
at least 45
b.
at least 35
c.
between 35 and 45
d.
less than 35
Work is effort directed toward accomplishing results
Which of the following is true of work?
a.
Work is effort directed toward accomplishing results.
b.
A job needs to be divided into types of work so that it can be coordinated in some logical way.
c.
Ideally, the work to be done in any organization should be significantly less than the amount of work that the organization needs to have done.
d.
Work is the output that comes from the accomplishment of tasks.
A job is a grouping of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that constitutes the total work assignment for an employee.
Which of the following is true of a job?
a.
A job is the output that comes from the accomplishment of tasks.
b.
A job is a grouping of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that constitutes the total work assignment for an employee.
c.
Even if the tasks, duties, and responsibilities change over time, a job should not change.
d.
A job needs to be divided into types of work so that it can be coordinated in some logical way.
Workflow analysis
_____ is the study of the way work moves through an organization.
a.
Job process
b.
Workflow analysis
c.
Work process
d.
Transfer of responsibility
Job Design
_____ refers to organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities, and other elements into a productive unit of work.
a.
Job planning
b.
Job analysis
c.
Job design
d.
Job redesign
Job Redesign
_____ refers to taking an existing job and changing it to improve it.
a.
Job planning
b.
Job analysis
c.
Job design
d.
Job redesign
Managers
_____ play a significant role in job design because often they are the people who establish jobs and their design components.
a.
Managers
b.
Employees
c.
Human resource personnel
d.
Business consultants
Managers can influence or control job characteristics, but usually not the basic characteristics of people
Which of the following is true of managers’ influence and control of characteristics in an organization?
a.
Managers can influence or control both job characteristics and the basic characteristics of people.
b.
Managers can influence or control job characteristics, but usually not the basic characteristics of people.
c.
Managers can influence or control the basic characteristics of people, but usually not the job characteristics.
d.
Managers can neither influence and control job characteristics, nor can they control the basic characteristics of people.
Job Enlargement
_____ involves broadening the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks to be performed.
a.
Job rotation
b.
Job retention
c.
Job enlargement
d.
Job enrichment
Job Enrichment
_____ is increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing, controlling, or evaluating the job.
a.
Job rotation
b.
Job retention
c.
Job enlargement
d.
Job enrichment
Job Rotation
_____ is the process of shifting a person from job to job.
a.
Job rotation
b.
Job retention
c.
Job enlargement
d.
Job enrichment
Skill Variety
_____is the extent to which the work requires several activities for successful completion.
a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
Task Identity
_____ is the extent to which the job includes a “whole” identifiable unit of work that is carried out from start to finish and that results in a visible outcome.
a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
Task Significance
_____ is the impact the job has on other people.
a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
Autonomy
_____ is the extent of individual freedom and discretion in the work and its scheduling.
a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
Special-Purpose Team
A _____ is formed to address specific problems, improve work processes, and enhance the overall quality of products and services.
a.
global team
b.
special-purpose team
c.
self-directed team
d.
virtual team
Self-Directed team
A _____ is composed of individuals who are assigned a cluster of tasks, duties, and responsibilities to be accomplished.
a.
vertical team
b.
special-purpose team
c.
self-directed team
d.
global team
Virtual Team
A _____ is composed of individuals who are separated geographically but linked by communications technology.
a.
vertical team
b.
special-purpose team
c.
self-directed team
d.
virtual team
Employees working for ten hours, four days a week
Which of the following situations is an example of a compressed workweek?
a.
Employees working for ten hours, four days a week
b.
Employees working for eight hours, five days a week
c.
Employees working for seven hours, six days a week
d.
Employees working for eight hours, seven days a week
40
Part-time jobs are used when less than _____ hours per week are required to do a job.
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70
To coordinate job analysis
Which of the following is typically the responsibility of the HR in job analysis?
a.
To provide information to outside experts
b.
To coordinate job analysis
c.
To help complete job analysis information
d.
To request new analyses as jobs change
To help complete job analysis information
Which of the following is typically the responsibility of managers in job analysis?
a.
To periodically review job descriptions and specifications
b.
To coordinate job analysis
c.
To help complete job analysis information
d.
To write job descriptions and specifications
Task
A _____ is a distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.
a. duty
b. responsibility
c. job
d. task
Duty
A(n) _____ is a larger work segment composed of several tasks that are performed by an individual.
a.
duty
b.
obligation
c.
job
d.
responsibility
Planning the job analysis
Which of the following is typically the first stage in the job analysis process?
a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Planning the job analysis
c.
Conducting the job analysis
d.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
Which of the following is typically the last stage in the job analysis process?
a.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
b.
Conducting the job analysis
c.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
d.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
Preparing for and introducing the job analysis
Identifying jobs and methodologies is a subtask of _____.
a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
planning the job analysis
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
Conducting the Job Analysis
Gathering job analysis data is a subtask of _____.
a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
planning the job analysis
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
Developing Job Descriptions
Reviewing drafts with managers and employees is a subtask of _____.
a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
planning the job analysis
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
Maintaining and Updating Job Descriptions
Periodically reviewing all jobs is a subtask of _____.
a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
maintaining and updating job descriptions
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
Conducting Job Analysis
Jack, who works with BluClu LLC, is responsible for performing the job analysis in his organization. He has introduced and communicated the job analysis process to all his managers. Which of the following will typically be Jack’s next step?
a.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
b.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
c.
Planning the job analysis
d.
Conducting the job analysis
Maintaining and Updating job descriptions and job specifications
Jill, who works with SunFun LLC, is responsible for handling the job analysis in her organization. She has developed job descriptions and job specifications. Which of the following will typically be Jill’s next step?
a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
c.
Planning the job analysis
d.
Conducting the job analysis
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
Max, who works with HiFi LLC, is responsible for managing job analysis in his organization. He is currently planning the job analysis. Which of the following should typically be Max’s next step?
a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Conducting the job analysis
c.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
d.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
Dave, who works with GoPhone LLC, is responsible for managing job analysis in his organization. He is currently gathering and reviewing data. Which of the following should typically be Dave’s next step?
a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Conducting the job analysis
c.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
d.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions
Work Sampling
The _____ method allows a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical observation and recording of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all actions.
a.
work sampling
b.
employee diary/log
c.
Position Analysis Questionnaire
d.
Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
Position Analysis Questionnaire
Which of the following specialized instruments incorporates checklists?
a.
Work sampling
b.
Employee diary/log
c.
Position Analysis Questionnaire
d.
Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
Which of the following is comprised of more than 200 statements and examines a variety of dimensions, including decision making and supervising?
a.
Work sampling
b.
Employee diary/log
c.
Position Analysis Questionnaire
d.
Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
Americans with Disabilities Act
The _____ requires that organizations identify the essential job functions, which are the fundamental duties of a job.
a.
Americans with Disabilities Act
b.
Civil Rights Act
c.
Fair Labor Standards Act
d.
Disabilities Discrimination Act
Job Description
A _____ identifies the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
a.
job analysis
b.
job description
c.
job specification
d.
job review
Job Specifications
_____ list the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) an individual needs to perform a job satisfactorily.
a.
Job analyses
b.
Job descriptions
c.
Job specifications
d.
Job reviews
Identification
Which of the following is typically the first part of the job description?
a.
Essential job functions and duties
b.
Job specifications
c.
Identification
d.
General summary
Identification
Job code and pay grade are components of job description noted under _____.
a.
job specifications
b.
essential job functions
c.
general summary
d.
identification
General Summary
Which of the following components of job description is a concise statement of the general responsibilities and components that make the job different from others?
a.
Job specifications
b.
Essential job functions
c.
General summary
d.
Identification
Essential Job Functions
Which of the following parts of the typical job description lists the necessary roles and duties, generally in order of importance, and contains clear, precise statements on the major tasks, duties, and responsibilities performed?
a.
Job specifications
b.
Essential job functions
c.
General summary
d.
Identification
Job Specifications
A prospective candidate’s educational details is noted under the _____ component of job description.
a.
job specifications
b.
essential job functions
c.
general summary
d.
identification
Disclaimers and Approval
Which of the following is typically the last part of the job description?
a.
Essential job functions and duties
b.
Job specifications
c.
Identification
d.
Disclaimers and approval
Motivation
_____ is a goal-directed drive, and is defined as the desire within a person causing that person to act.
a.
Attention
b.
Motivation
c.
Calibre
d.
Aptitude
Abraham Maslow
Which of the following theorists developed the need theory?
a.
Frederick Herzberg
b.
Lyman Porter
c.
Abraham Maslow
d.
Carl Jung
Physiological Needs
According to Maslow’s need theory, which of the following needs will a person strive to fulfill first?
a.
Physiological needs
b.
Safety and security needs
c.
Actualization needs
d.
Belonging and love needs
Self-Actualization
According to Maslow’s need theory, the highest human need is the need for:
a.
self-esteem.
b.
safety.
c.
self-actualization.
d.
love.
Safety and Security Needs
At Lumina Corporation, benefits for employees include an employer-sponsored insurance coverage. The medical expenses of employees are covered entirely by the company in case of any accidents. In this case, which of the following needs in Maslow’s hierarchy is the management in Lumina Corporation trying to fulfill?
a.
Physiological needs
b.
Safety and security needs
c.
Actualization needs
d.
Belonging and love needs
Belonging Needs
According to Maslow, once a person has fulfilled his or her safety needs, he would immediately proceed to fulfill his:
a.
physiological needs.
b.
belonging needs.
c.
actualization needs.
d.
esteem needs.
Motivation/Hygiene Theory
Frederick Herzberg proposed the:
a.
need theory.
b.
expectancy theory.
c.
equity theory.
d.
motivation/hygiene theory.
Salary
Which of the following is considered to be a hygiene factor by the motivator/hygiene theory?
a.
Achievement
b.
Recognition
c.
Responsibility
d.
Salary
Recognition
Which of the following is considered to be a motivator by the motivator/hygiene theory?
a.
Interpersonal relationships
b.
Recognition
c.
Working conditions
d.
Supervision
Advancement
Which of the following is considered to be a motivator by the motivator/hygiene theory?
a.
Company policy
b.
Administration
c.
Advancement
d.
Salary
Esteem Needs
Which of the following needs of employees do motivators, described by the two-factor theory, primarily try to fulfill?
a.
Physiological needs
b.
Belonging needs
c.
Safety needs
d.
Esteem needs
Working Condition
According to Herzberg’s motivation/hygiene theory _____ is a hygiene factor.
a.
Advancement
b.
Recognition
c.
Responsibility
d.
Working condition
Equity
_____ is defined as the perceived fairness of what a person does compared with what the person receives.
a.
Equity
b.
Motivation
c.
Need
d.
Expectation
Educational Level
Which of the following is considered to be an input by the equity theory?
a.
Educational level
b.
Pay
c.
Awards
d.
Recognition
Prestige
Which of the following is considered to be an outcome by the equity theory?
a.
Age
b.
Prestige
c.
Experience
d.
Productivity
Psychological Contract
A(n) _____ refers to the unwritten expectations that both employees and employers have about the nature of their work relationships.
a.
employment contract
b.
psychological contract
c.
non-compete agreement
d.
effort-performance linkage
Fair Treatment
Which of the following is an intangible item in a psychological contract?
a.
Wages
b.
Benefits
c.
Attendance
d.
Fair treatment
Loyalty
Which of the following is an intangible item in a psychological contract?
a.
Salary
b.
Benefits
c.
Attendance
d.
Loyalty
Wages
Which of the following is a tangible item in a psychological contract?
a.
Loyalty
b.
Nondiscriminatory treatment
c.
Job security
d.
Wages
An attitude survey
Which of the following is used by employers to address the issue of job satisfaction among employees?
a.
The halo affect
b.
The Hawthorne effect
c.
A whistle-blower survey
d.
An attitude survey
Replacement for absent worker
Which of the following is a direct cost of absenteeism?
a.
Replacement for absent worker
b.
Lower productivity
c.
Replacement training
d.
Slower work pace
He is giving cash to employees for meeting attendance standards
In which of the following cases is an employer applying the principles of positive reinforcement to curb absenteeism.
a.
He is conducting a company-wide session on the leave policy of the company.
b.
He is issuing a written warning to an employee for taking a lot of uninformed leaves of absence.
c.
He is giving cash to employees for meeting attendance standards.
d.
He is offering supportive guidance and personal counseling for employees who do not meet the attendance standards of the company.
1
CLASS, a newly-opened real estate agency, has twenty employees on its payroll. In June 2012, Jane and Selin, each took three days of leave of absence from work. What was the absenteeism rate of the company in June 2012?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 1
d. 2
13%
Luminia Inc. has about five absences per 100 employees each day. Every day, it loses about 13% of its time due to absenteeism. The average percent of time lost per absent employee in the company is 34% every month. In this case, the inactivity rate of the company is _____.
a. 5%
b. 13%
c. 34%
d. 20%
Severity Rate
The average time lost per absent employee during a specified period of time is known as the:
a.
inactivity rate.
b.
incidence rate.
c.
severity rate.
d.
compensation rate.
Incidence Rate
The number of absences per 100 employees each day is known as the:
a.
inactivity rate.
b.
incidence rate.
c.
severity rate.
d.
compensation rate.
The turnover of poor performers is considered functional
Which of the following statements is true about turnover?
a.
It is illegal for an employer to continue to hire new employees while laying off other employees.
b.
When key individuals leave the firm, the turnover is often functional because they no longer act as a brake on the introduction of new technology and new work processes.
c.
The turnover of poor performers is considered functional.
d.
Organizations have little control over involuntary turnover.
Pauline was asked to leave the company due to poor performance on a project that incurred huge losses for her firm.
Which of the following cases exemplifies involuntary turnover?
a.
Jane worked hard on a project for four months, but when the project got shelved, she felt demotivated and quit the company.
b.
Lisa loved her job, but quit when she noticed that a lot of employees were being laid off.
c.
Mary announced her retirement a day after her 40th birthday.
d.
Pauline was asked to leave the company due to poor performance on a project that incurred huge losses for her firm.
Gerald gets passed over for promotion twice despite being good at his job, and hence he decides to leave the organization.
Which of the following exemplifies voluntary turnover?
a.
Jake a student intern at CL Corp. leaves the organization after his internship period is over.
b.
Paul, an employee of NML Corp. for five years, was fired owing to noncompliance with company policies.
c.
Karen is asked to resign by her manager due to her deteriorating performance.
d.
Gerald gets passed over for promotion twice despite being good at his job, and hence he decides to leave the organization.
Voluntary
A software firm plans to reduce the number of talented designers in its workforce who leave their jobs. In this case, the firm seeks to focus on _____ turnover among the designers.
a.
uncontrollable
b.
positive
c.
functional
d.
voluntary
Involuntary Turnover
Mark was terminated by his company because of his poor client relations skills that resulted in a major client leaving the firm for a competitor. This is an example of:
a.
involuntary turnover.
b.
positive turnover.
c.
uncontrollable turnover.
d.
dysfunctional turnover.
Functional
Alice, an efficient waitress at a moderately-priced family restaurant, consistently gets the lowest tips from customers. She announces that she is quitting to take another job at a newly-opened casino. This best exemplifies a(n) _____ turnover.
a.
functional
b.
controllable
c.
involuntary
d.
positive
New employees while laying off others
Churn refers to the practice of hiring:
a.
new employees while laying off others.
b.
only those employees who have more than five years of prior experience in a similar industry.
c.
through realistic job previews.
d.
employees on a short-term contract basis.
Churn
WesternBioLabs Inc. is in the process of laying off 10% of its shipping and receiving employees. At the same time, it is hiring new hourly staff for night shifts. Which of the following terms best describes this process?
a.
Churn
b.
Licensing
c.
Takeover
d.
Franchising
20%
50 employees of Glow Corp. quit the company in 2012. 35 of them quit on their own, while the rest were asked to leave by the company due to poor performance on the job and high absenteeism. The total number of employees in the corporation was 270 in January, 2012. The mid-year employee count was 250, and the number became 220 at the end of the year. The turnover rate at Glow Corp. in 2012 was _____.
a. 50%
b. 35%
c. 25%
d. 20%
4%
Lumina Corporation began operations in 2011 with 4900 employees. During the first half of that year, the company did not see any attrition. Profits were high, and the training and orientation programs were efficient. New hiring continued at a healthy pace and by mid-year, the employee strength of the company was 5000. However, in the second half of that year, 200 employees were laid off, and no new hiring took place. The turnover rate at Lumina Corporation in 2011 was _____.
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 4%
d. 2%
50%
At Piaffe Products 15 employees had quit and an additional 10 were fired for poor performance in the year during 2010. The mid-year employee count was 50 for that year. Piaffe’s turnover rate for the year 2010 was _____.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Vacancy Costs
Jane quit Cover Corp. without completing a high-priority project that she was handling. Due to her unavailability, the four remaining members of her team had to work overtime and they demanded adequate compensation to justify their extra hours of work. In this case, the amount subsequently paid to them best exemplifies:
a.
separation costs.
b.
vacancy costs.
c.
replacement costs.
d.
training costs.
Employee Referral Fees
Which of the following is a replacement cost that is caused by turnover in a company?
a.
Cost of training materials
b.
Employee referral fees
c.
Overtime paid to existing employees
d.
Time spent in an exit interview
missed project deadlines
Carlos, the HR director of a large paper manufacturing company, is studying the financial costs of turnover of plant personnel at all levels. The easily calculable costs are sobering, but Carlos is also concerned about the hidden costs of turnover that generally include:
a.
missed project deadlines.
b.
co-worker coaching and salaries.
c.
the cost of pre-employment medical tests.
d.
the overtime paid to employees covering the separated employees’ jobs.
If Arden cannot offer higher wages, it needs to make sure that its current employees are satisfied with the intangible aspects of their jobs in order to retain them.
Arden Insurance’s claims processing facility has been a major employer in the town of Arbor for over 20 years, drawing mainly on workers with minimal skills and education. A large telemarketing firm is about to set up its business at Arden and it is planning to employ low-skilled workers. Which of the following statements is true in this case?
a.
As Arden and the marketing firm belong to different industries, the impact on Arden’s workforce will be minimal since workers rarely switch between industries.
b.
The trained workforce will not leave even if the telemarketing firm offers higher pay than Arden.
c.
If Arden cannot offer higher wages, it needs to make sure that its current employees are satisfied with the intangible aspects of their jobs in order to retain them.
d.
Workers in small towns tend to be loyal to their employers and hence, Arden’s current employees are likely to stay with Arden.
When pay is competitive, other job factors have more impact on turnover and need to be considered and improved.
In the current year, many talented teachers have submitted their resignation notices in Sunnydale High School. The president of the school management board is in a fix at this attrition even when the school pays competitive wages to its teachers. In this case, which of the following is the best recommendation for the president to follow?
a.
Money is the main reason people stay in a job, so the school needs to consider how to raise salaries even higher.
b.
When pay is competitive, other job factors have more impact on turnover and need to be considered and improved.
c.
In service sector jobs, people are motivated more by the psychological aspects of the work than by tangible rewards.
d.
Teachers usually leave their jobs due to involuntary turnover, so pay is not a big factor in their retention.
Verbal praise from one’s supervisor
_____ is an intangible reward for performance.
a.
Promotion to a new position
b.
Verbal praise from one’s supervisor
c.
A performance bonus
d.
An opportunity for training
10% to 15%
If the compensation for a job is within _____ of the market rate, it is considered to be competitive pay.
a. 10% to 15%
b. 5% to 20%
c. 5% to 8%
d. 8% to 10%
Exit
In a(n) _____ interview, individuals are asked to identify their reasons for leaving an organization.
a.
situational
b.
feedback
c.
appraisal
d.
exit
hold group meetings with employees to convey the positive and negative survey results and get suggestions for improvements.
A financial services firm conducted an attitude survey. It was found that although employees were generally satisfied with their pay, they were dissatisfied with the organization’s management style, promotion practices, and training programs. To manage these concerns, it is recommended that the director of HR:
a.
work toward finding the employees who had given the negative feedback and increase their salaries.
b.
announce the positive results of the survey, while beginning to work in private on solutions to the problems revealed in the survey.
c.
hold group meetings with employees to convey the positive and negative survey results and get suggestions for improvements.
d.
communicate the positive survey results, and argue against the negative results.
Retention Rate
_____ is defined as the percentage of employees at the beginning of a period who remain at the end.
a.
Retention rate
b.
Turnover rate
c.
Absenteeism ratio
d.
Productivity rate
Measurement and Assessment
Which of the following is the first step in the process of managing retention?
a.
Measurement and assessment
b.
Management intervention
c.
Evaluation and follow up
d.
Tracking of intervention results
those who stay for a year are more likely to extend their employment
It is important to focus more on getting employees in their first year to stay because:
a.
those who stay for a year are more likely to extend their employment.
b.
first-year employees are the most productive in an organization.
c.
first-year employees are more knowledgeable than older employees.
d.
first-year employees are more committed to organizational goals than older employees.
By providing managers and supervisors with information for improving company efforts to reduce employee turnover
How does an exit interview help in employee retention efforts?
a.
By providing managers and supervisors with information for improving company efforts to reduce employee turnover.
b.
By providing managers and supervisors with information to increase involuntary turnover
c.
By providing managers and supervisors with information to control involuntary turnover
d.
By providing managers and supervisors with information to increase the incidence rate of the company
Recruiting
The process of generating a pool of qualified applicants for organizational jobs is called:
a.
requisitioning.
b.
pre-screening.
c.
recruiting.
d.
summoning.
A selection process is not necessary in the given scenario
Bryan is the recruiting specialist for an online retailing company in Missouri. He used all types of recruiting techniques available to him to fill nineteen job openings. Using these techniques, exactly nineteen applicants with the minimum qualifications were found and al the candidates accepted the job offer. Which of the following is true about this scenario?
a.
The yield ratio will be 50%.
b.
A selection process is not necessary in the given scenario.
c.
The acceptance rate in this scenario is 60%.
d.
The labor market in this area can be described as “loose.”
Advancements in American worker productivity
Which of the following would be an advantage for U.S. organizations that do not want to outsource their work overseas?
a.
Advancements in American worker productivity
b.
Rapidly rising labor costs in countries like India and China
c.
Restrictive U.S. requirements for work permits
d.
Large tax penalties that U.S. firms must pay if they outsource jobs
Labor force population
The _____ includes all individuals available for selection, if all possible recruitment strategies are used.
a.
labor force population
b.
external labor market
c.
recruitment pool
d.
applicant population
Applicant population
Priam Designs Inc. is recruiting fashion designers through LinkedIn. This recruiting mode typically provides direct access to the _____.
a.
applicant pool
b.
entire pool of eligible candidates
c.
entire labor market
d.
applicant population
Applicant population
Stacy, the HR manager of a bank, restricts her recruiting efforts for the post of loan officer to placing advertisements on the Web site of the American Banking Association. This will allow Stacy to determine the _____ for the job of loan officer.
a.
applicant population
b.
labor force population
c.
applicant pool
d.
entire labor market
Applicant
The _____ pool consists of all persons who are actually evaluated for selection.
a.
applicant
b.
selection
c.
labor
d.
talent
Face-to-face interviews with finalists
Linda is the director of HR at Colette Value Inc., a large tax-preparation firm. The firm faces a dearth of tax preparers every year when the tax season approaches. Every December, Linda outsources a bulk of the recruiting process to an employment agency to recruit temporary employees before the tax season begins. However, she wants to do so without excessively limiting her final hiring decisions. Which of the following processes of recruitment should Linda carry out first hand?
a.
Advertising for recruitment over the Internet
b.
Preliminary screening of résumés
c.
Designing the employment advertisements
d.
Face-to-face interviews with finalists
intensive
Karl Graphics is conducting a vigorous recruiting campaign aimed at hiring 12 new employees within two weeks. This best exemplifies _____ recruiting.
a.
continuous
b.
emergency
c.
intensive
d.
crisis
Professional Employer Organization
A(n) ____ typically takes over the staff of a small business and writes the paychecks, pays the taxes, prepares and implements HR policies, and keeps all the required records for a fee.
a.
employment agency
b.
payroll vendor
c.
professional employer organization
d.
third-party employer
Employers can save money on benefits
One advantage of leasing companies for employees is that:
a.
employers can save money on benefits.
b.
employers can hire permanent employees.
c.
it reduces total payroll costs for the employers.
d.
it exempts employers following the OSHA regulations.
They are supplied by contract to employers with jobs
Which of the following statements is true about employees of employee leasing companies?
a.
They have employment contracts and are not at-will employees.
b.
They increase the costs on benefits and HR administration on the part of the employer.
c.
They are supplied by contract to employers with jobs.
d.
They can be regarded as self-employed for IRS purposes.
A young college-educated Danish woman without an H1 visa
Which of the following candidates have the highest probability of being rejected by a U.S. organization that practices sound HR practices and recruits nontraditional diverse workers?
a.
A middle-aged white male who is currently living in a halfway house for former drug addicts
b.
A 60-year-old woman living in an old age home.
c.
A 19-year-old man with an IQ of 92
d.
A young college-educated Danish woman without an H1 visa
The temporary agency contract requires Oliver & Co. to pay a placement fee if Patricia is hired as a regular employee.
Patricia, an outstanding performer, was placed at Oliver & Co. by a temporary service firm for two months. Patricia’s manager approaches Oliver & Co.’s HR Director with the request that she wants her as a regular employee. Given this scenario, which of the following statements is true?
a.
The temporary agency contract requires Oliver & Co. to pay a placement fee if Patricia is hired as a regular employee.
b.
The employers will not be liable for Patricia’s safety under OSHA regulations.
c.
Patricia will be less expensive as a regular employee than as a temporary employee because temporary employees typically receive a 40% wage premium to offset the lack of benefits.
d.
Oliver & Co. is ethically bound not to hire temporary employees provided by an agency for regular employment.
A tax preparation company that mostly handles individual clients and has few business clients.
In which of the following situations would the use of temporary workers be most appropriate?
a.
A company that has a low rate of turnover among its regular employees.
b.
An employer who has received a long-term contract from the Federal government for oceanic research.
c.
A tax preparation company that mostly handles individual clients and has few business clients.
d.
A start-up company with a competitive strategy of continuing expert customer service.
Independent Contractor
Angela is a self-employed graphic artist. She is usually hired by companies for special projects that lasts from a week to six months. Angela can be best described as a(n):
a.
independent contractor.
b.
undocumented worker.
c.
regular employee.
d.
full-time employee.
Affirmative Action Plans include hiring goals for protected classes that the employer must try to meet with its recruiting efforts.
Which of the following statements is true about recruiting diversity?
a.
An organization that advertises job openings for individuals with “Christian values” employees would be considered impartial.
b.
Affirmative Action Plans include hiring goals for protected classes that the employer must try to meet with its recruiting efforts.
c.
“Journeyman lineman” is a permissible term for employment advertisements.
d.
Employers demonstrate exclusive recruiting by having diverse individuals represented in company materials.
the employer has a policy of complying with equal employment regulations
If an employer lists the designation EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in its employment advertisements, it indicates that
a.
the employer will hire only minorities and disabled persons.
b.
the company has been found liable in a discrimination lawsuit.
c.
the employer has a policy of complying with equal employment regulations.
d.
the company encourages disparity in its workforce.
Begin advertising for job openings on the local Spanish radio station
Paul is the director of recruitment at Times Clockworks. After running a thorough study of their employees’ backgrounds, Paul finds that Times Clockworks has disparate impact in the proportion of Hispanic employees compared to the proportion of Hispanics in its labor market. Which of the following steps should Paul take to solve the problem most efficiently?
a.
Lower the job specifications for Hispanic applicants
b.
Begin advertising for job openings on the local Spanish radio station
c.
Continue its current recruiting practices because only organizations with Affirmative Action Plans are required to meet EEO guidelines
d.
Freeze the hiring process until qualified Hispanics apply for the position
If a disparate impact exists between an employer’s workforce and the relevant labor markets, then the employer is required by law to expand its external recruiting efforts.
Which of the following statements is true about good recruiting efforts?
a.
If a disparate impact exists between an employer’s workforce and the relevant labor markets, then the employer is required by law to expand its external recruiting efforts.
b.
Advertising job openings for “exercise boys” for a race track would be considered legal terminology.
c.
A salon that advertises job openings for “young and enthusiastic” employees would be considered impartial.
d.
Wording about specific designations such as EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in employment advertisements would be considered illegal.
It would be discriminatory for a race track to advertise job openings for “exercise boys.”
Which of the following statements is true of good recruiting efforts?
a.
If a disparate impact exists between an employer’s workforce and the relevant labor markets, then the employer is required by law to expand its internal recruiting efforts.
b.
If a company has few Somali employees in a community with a large Somali presence, a good recruiting strategy is to have company employees who are not from Somali to help with recruiting.
c.
It would be discriminatory for a race track to advertise job openings for “exercise boys.”
d.
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) guidelines state that indirect references implying gender or age are permitted.
Plan to do more extensive external recruiting for technical and engineering positions
Edison Inc., an electrical utility company, is moving from using only traditional sources of electricity to promoting the use of solar and wind power. It is one of the first utilities in the country to move heavily to solar and wind-generated electricity. Which of the following steps should the HR director take in order to cope with these new technologies at Edison Inc.?
a.
Avoid including specific designations such as EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in the job advertisements
b.
Highlight terms such as “young and enthusiastic” and ” journeyman lineman” in their official Web sites
c.
Focus on training and development to generate internal candidates for all the new positions at the utility
d.
Plan to do more extensive external recruiting for technical and engineering positions
It uses workers who are traditional employees
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of regular staffing?
a.
It uses workers who are traditional employees.
b.
It uses independent contractors.
c.
Companies can utilize the “try before you buy” approach.
d.
Companies can avoid litigation associated with the termination of workers.
has a good job and is not actively looking to change jobs
A passive job seeker is one who:
a.
seeks a job merely because it is a requirement of receiving unemployment compensation.
b.
conducts a haphazard and unplanned job search.
c.
has a good job and is not actively looking to change jobs.
d.
is an employed individual who is not satisfied with his or her current job.
Job boards enable job seekers to submit résumés to many employers simultaneously.
Which of the following statements is true of job boards?
a.
Job boards enable job seekers to submit résumés to many employers simultaneously.
b.
Much of the information provided by companies on job boards is intended to mislead competitors.
c.
Applicants hired from job boards always have worse average performance levels than applicants hired via social networking media.
d.
Job boards fail to offer access to numerous candidates.
on the Web site of the oncology nurse practitioner professional organization.
John’s Medical is recruiting for the post of an oncology nurse practitioner. It would be most effective for John’s Medical to advertise:
a.
on a microblogging site like Twitter.
b.
online recruitment videos on a general job board such as Monster.com or CareerTV.
c.
on the Web site of the oncology nurse practitioner professional organization.
d.
on a social networking site such as Facebook.
It requires the filing of applicant EEO reports
Which of the following is a feature of Internet recruiting?
a.
It requires the filing of applicant EEO reports.
b.
It requires the entire selection process to be conducted virtually.
c.
It makes global recruiting easier, but makes local recruiting complicated.
d.
It cannot be used to target specific audiences.
If a recruiter checks an applicant’s Facebook account, learns that the applicant is Jewish, and then rejects the applicant, the company can be charged with an EEO discrimination complaint.
Which of the following statements is true of Internet recruiting?
a.
Twitter is rarely used by recruiters because of the 140-word limit.
b.
The broad reach of Internet recruiting has significantly reduced the amount of discrimination against job seekers from racial/ethnic groups because it enlarges the applicant population exponentially over traditional recruiting methods.
c.
If a recruiter checks an applicant’s Facebook account, learns that the applicant is Jewish, and then rejects the applicant, the company can be charged with an EEO discrimination complaint.
d.
An advantage of Internet recruiting is that it streamlines EEO data gathering because everyone who accesses a job Web site is considered an applicant for legal purposes.
the time taken for communication between the applicants and the employer.
The major saving in time generated by Internet recruiting compared with traditional recruiting is:
a.
the time taken for conducting face-to-face interviews.
b.
the time taken for communication between the applicants and the employer.
c.
the time taken by new recruits to settle in a job.
d.
the time taken by HR staff members for handling blogs, tweets, and email with applicants versus snail mail, faxes and phone calls.
individuals from lower socioeconomic groups mostly have limited access to the Internet.
Exclusive use of the Internet for recruiting can reduce the diversity of an employer’s applicant population because:
a.
it will only attract the attention of retirees who are interested in seeking new employment opportunities.
b.
individuals from lower socioeconomic groups mostly have limited access to the Internet.
c.
the use of terminology such as “young and enthusiastic” is restricted.
d.
it excludes retirees who are interested in seeking new employment opportunities.
The company’s job posting software
Which of the following would be the least important topic of training for a recruiter who will conduct interviews in a university campus?
a.
EEO regulations
b.
Details of the jobs and job specifications
c.
The company’s desired image and “brand”
d.
The company’s job posting software
it has the potential to generate larger applicant pools
When compared to internal recruitment, an advantage of external recruiting is that:
a.
its selection process is more rigorous.
b.
it takes lesser time and resources.
c.
recruited employees often require more orientation efforts.
d.
it has the potential to generate larger applicant pools.
A salon shifts from Boston to New York and employs a new cashier through internet recruitment.
Which of the following is an example of external sources of recruitment?
a.
A veterinarian selects one of her interns as her assistant
b.
Jolene recommends her colleague to fill an open position as a sales representative at the company where Jolene works as a technician
c.
An assistant librarian is shortlisted for the post of head librarian in the same library
d.
A salon shifts from Boston to New York and employs a new cashier through internet recruitment.
Use different contact names, e-mail addresses, or phone number codes in each ad.
Which of the following is the best way in which recruiters can easily and accurately track responses to advertisements in various media?
a.
Use only a few selected media.
b.
Ask applicants where they learned of the position.
c.
Ask applicants which media they found most effective.
d.
Use different contact names, e-mail addresses, or phone number codes in each ad.
performance level of the hired applicants generated by the ad.
The best criterion to analyze the effectiveness of an advertisement for applicants is to measure the:
a.
cost of the ad per applicant.
b.
total number of applicants generated by the ad.
c.
number of applicants generated by the ad who were hired.
d.
performance level of the hired applicants generated by the ad.
A contingency firm
Peter Cullen & Associates uses a private employment agency to locate engineering staff. The company pays a fee to the employment agency every time it hires a candidate provided by the employment agency. In this this scenario, Peter Cullen & Associates is using the services of:
a.
a contingency firm.
b.
a retainer firm.
c.
a fee-for-service firm.
d.
a labor union.
Retainer
There are two kinds of executive search firms; _____ firms charge a fee regardless of the success of the search.
a.
contract
b.
commission
c.
contingency
d.
retainer
Contingency
There are two kinds of executive search firms; _____ firms typically charge a fee only when a candidate is hired.
a.
contract
b.
consulting
c.
contingency
d.
retainer
Apprenticeship Programs
In the building trade, unions can best benefit employers by providing:
a.
apprenticeship programs.
b.
providing interesting “employment games” online.
c.
pre-screening for job seekers.
d.
providing competitive wage scales for jobs.
rapid hiring of large numbers of people
Job fairs are primarily useful for:
a.
rapid hiring of large numbers of people.
b.
maintaining a continuous presence in a local labor market.
c.
passive recruiting.
d.
keeping out unemployable applicants.
Vocational colleges and technical schools often have cooperative programs with employers that funnel quality students into regular jobs.
Which of the following is a feature of school and college recruiting?
a.
Vocational colleges and technical schools often have cooperative programs with employers that funnel quality students into regular jobs.
b.
College recruiting is one of the least expensive recruitment methods.
c.
Companies who target minority students before they graduate are likely to be violating EEO laws.
d.
School and college recruiting is a type of internal recruitment.
It has the potential to lead to EEO violations if the current workforce is not diverse.
Which of the following is true of internal recruitment?
a.
Friends and family of current workers tend to be less qualified than external hires, especially if bonuses are offered to the referring employees.
b.
It has the potential to lead to EEO violations if the current workforce is not diverse.
c.
Family connections moderate the normal political maneuvering that occurs in firms.
d.
This process fails to motivate current employees to perform better.
It can aid succession planning, future promotions, and career development
Which of the following is true of internal recruitment?
a.
Inbreeding of employees typically result in a more diverse workforce
b.
It can aid succession planning, future promotions, and career development.
c.
Family connections moderate the normal political maneuvering that occurs in firms.
d.
This process fails to motivate current employees to perform better.
Recruiting costs are comparatively
Which of the following is an advantage of internal recruitment?
a.
Inbreeding of employees typically results in a more diverse workforce.
b.
It ensures that there are no instances of infighting.
c.
Recruiting costs are comparatively lower.
d.
It eliminates the need of development programs when transferring employees into supervisory jobs.
It gives existing employees the first chance at job openings before external candidates are considered.
Which of the following is a feature of job posting and bidding?
a.
It gives existing employees the first chance at job openings before external candidates are considered.
b.
Job posting reduces the threat of organizational “in breeding,” because the posting crosses divisional and departmental boundaries in the search for new talent.
c.
Job postings significantly hinder an employee’s chances of promotion within an organization.
d.
In the case of internal recruitment, job posting is not a reliable source.
target the most time-efficient recruiting sources
Calculating the average time from contact to hire allows a firm to most accurately:
a.
calculate the cost per hire.
b.
estimate the efficiency of recruiters.
c.
calculate the “float time” in the recruiting process.
d.
target the most time-efficient recruiting sources.
Yield Ratio
A _____ is a comparison of the number of applicants at one stage of the recruiting process to the number at the next stage.
a.
progression rate
b.
yield ratio
c.
hit rate
d.
success base rate
the selection rate
The percentage hired from a given group of candidates is termed:
a.
the selection rate.
b.
the success base rate.
c.
the yield ratio.
d.
the acceptance rate.
the acceptance rate
The percent of applicants hired divided by the total number of applicants offered jobs is termed as:
a.
the selection rate.
b.
the success base rate.
c.
the acceptance rate.
d.
the fill rate.
Whether recruiters can “close the deal” with top candidates
What can a recruiter learn from calculating the acceptance rate?
a.
Whether recruiters can “close the deal” with top candidates
b.
The proportion of candidates who are of acceptable quality
c.
The cost effectiveness of the organization’s internal mobility
d.
The competitiveness of the organization’s salary structure
Selection
The process of choosing individuals with correct qualifications to fill jobs in an organization is called _____.
a.
recruitment
b.
selection
c.
job matching
d.
attrition
Placement
The purpose of selection is _____, fitting a person to the right job.
a.
placement
b.
orientation
c.
recruitment
d.
staffing
Matching Process
More than anything else, placement of human resources should be seen as a(n):
a.
public relations activity.
b.
operating management responsibility.
c.
matching process.
d.
marketing tool.
Mistakes in evaluating the person’s KSAs
Lack of fit between a person and a job is most likely to result from:
a.
mistakes in evaluating the person’s KSAs.
b.
improper employee training.
c.
negligence of exit interviews.
d.
a lack of a positive company “brand” that attracts qualified applicants.
a poor person/job fit
Mark is unhappy with his new job as a first line supervisor at a call center. Mark finds the job boring and longs for the end of his shift every day. He wants to apply for another job either within or outside the organization. This is an example of:
a.
a realistic job preview.
b.
burnout.
c.
negligent hiring.
d.
a poor person/job fit.
person/organization fit
Voltra Inc. is planning to fill a number of openings for entry-level professionals. The selection process is quite extensive and includes several levels of individual interviews, panel interviews, psychological tests, and general ability tests. Much of the interview time is spent on the applicant’s philosophy of life and work. Voltra is highly concerned about:
a.
defining who is an applicant.
b.
complying with EEO and ADA requirements.
c.
person/organization fit.
d.
matching the person to the job.
poor person/organization fit
Jill graduated with an MBA during a severe economic recession. She accepted a job as a trainer for a major national bank. Jill was one of the top candidates when she was hired by the bank. Three months into her job, she feels that the individual bank customers are not valued, and that the bank engages in misleading advertising. This is an example of:
a.
poor person/organization fit.
b.
a realistic job preview.
c.
negligent hiring.
d.
a snap judgment.
Selection Criteria
Ability, intelligence, and conscientiousness are all examples of:
a.
elements of job performance.
b.
selection criteria.
c.
predictors of selection criteria.
d.
soft skills.
Predictors
Measurable or visible indicators of selection criteria are called:
a.
reliable estimators.
b.
predictors.
c.
realistic job previews.
d.
validators.
Predictor of selection criteria
Mary, the recruiter for Aurora Borealis Lighting Inc., decides to hire an individual who has the ability to learn on the job. They estimate it will be two years before the new hire will be fully productive. Consequently, they are looking to hire a person who will be with the company for at least four or five years. Mary suggests that they only hire applicants who have been with their previous employers for at least two years, and who have not changed their jobs too frequently. Mary’s suggestion is an example of a:
a.
KSA.
b.
soft skill.
c.
realistic job preview.
d.
predictor of selection criteria.
the correlation between a predictor and job performance
In selection, validity refers to:
a.
the strength of the correlation between a test score and a predictor.
b.
the consistency with which the predictor actually tests the desired construct.
c.
the applicant achieving approximately the same score in a test-retest situation.
d.
the correlation between a predictor and job performance.
Concurrent validity studies use the employer’s existing employees to test whether certain predictors are tied to performance levels.
Which of the following is a feature about validity?
a.
The EEOC prefers concurrent validity over predictive validity studies of predictors.
b.
Concurrent validity studies take much longer than do predictive studies of predictors.
c.
Concurrent validity studies use the employer’s existing employees to test whether certain predictors are tied to performance levels.
d.
Both concurrent and predictive validity tests can be accurately run with as few as 15 employees.
Predictive Validity Test
For the last five years, the HR manager at Fresh Foods has been asking all applicants to appear for a test. The HR manager now intends to study the correlation between the test scores of those employees that were hired and their performance appraisals and promotion records, and whether they have stayed with the firm or have left. The HR manager is conducting a:
a.
content validity test.
b.
concurrent validity test.
c.
face-validity test.
d.
predictive validity test.
Reliability
The _____ of a test is the extent to which a predictor repeatedly produces the same results over time.
a.
reliability
b.
test validity
c.
consistency
d.
predictability
Multiple Hurdles
In the _____ approach for combining predictors, a minimum cutoff score is set on each predictor, and to be considered, each minimum level must be “passed.”
a.
universal predictor
b.
compensatory
c.
multiple hurdles
d.
matching
the multiple hurdles approach of combining predictors
For the position of firefighter in Redville, the physical requirements are rigorous and the selection process involves many ability tests. Mark has a hearing impairment. This impairment alone caused him to be disqualified, even though Mark passed all the other physical tests and pencil-and-paper tests that were conducted earlier. This is an example of:
a.
the compensatory approach to selection.
b.
poor person/organization fit.
c.
discrimination under the ADA.
d.
the multiple hurdles approach of combining predictors.
A higher score on one predictor offsets a lower score on another
How does the compensatory approach combine predictors?
a.
A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor
b.
A higher score on one predictor offsets a lower score on another
c.
The highest predictor scores for all test takers is used to set an average cutoff
d.
Multiple hurdles are set to compensate for the different predictors
Middle-Management
HR professionals are least likely to make the final hiring decisions when _____ positions are filled.
a.
clerical
b.
contract
c.
entry-level
d.
middle-management
Realistic Job Preview
The purpose of a _____ is to give applicants an accurate idea of the positive and negative aspects of a job so that they can more accurately evaluate the employment situation.
a.
job specification
b.
realistic job preview
c.
truth-in-hiring approach
d.
job analysis
To determine if applicants meet the minimum qualifications for job openings
What is the main purpose of preemployment screening?
a.
To provide a realistic job preview and discourage potential applicants who would be dissatisfied with the job
b.
To identify applicants with arrest records and convictions
c.
To determine if applicants meet the minimum qualifications for job openings
d.
To obtain information for EEO and affirmative action reports
Preemployment screening process
A new Gulf Coast casino plans to hire over 1,000 employees for its new resort. The casino’s HR department requires applicants to complete an online questionnaire which is later analyzed using computer software and only those applicants who have previously worked in hotels and casinos are considered eligible for the next step in the hiring process. This is an example of a:
a.
compensatory approach to selection.
b.
realistic job preview.
c.
preemployment screening process.
d.
multiple hurdles approach to selection.
It acts as a basic employee record for applicants who are eventually hired.
Which of the following is a fundamental purpose of an application form?
a.
It forms the basis for an organization’s EEO/affirmative action plans.
b.
It can be used as a defense in an ADA discrimination case.
c.
It is a record of an employer’s desire to hire someone for an open position.
d.
It acts as a basic employee record for applicants who are eventually hired.
Employment-at-will
_____ means that the employer or applicant has the right to terminate employment at any time with or without notice or cause (where applicable by state law).
a.
Employment-at-will
b.
Right-to-work
c.
Free agency
d.
Contingency employment
for three years
Greta is the new HR manager at a small company. The previous HR manager had kept every scrap of paper that crossed his desk during the last ten years but Greta is determined to clear out the unnecessary documents. Greta knows she should keep all applications and hiring-related documents and records _____ before they can be discarded.
a.
for one year
b.
for three years
c.
for five years
d.
for seven years
Who should we contact in case of emergency?
Roger, a new HR manager at Charlemagne Tools Inc., examines the application form that the company has been using for the last two years. According to the guidelines set by the EEOC and various court decisions, which of the following is an illegal question in the application form?
a.
Have you ever been convicted of a felony?
b.
Can you perform the duties of the job with accommodation?
c.
What is your driver’s license number?
d.
Who should we contact in case of emergency?
determine whether a job applicant is a U.S. citizen, registered alien, or illegal alien, within 72 hours of hiring.
In verifying the identities and credentials of job applicants, employers must use the revised form I-9 for each employee hired and must:
a.
permit annual audits of HR records by ICE agents.
b.
send copies of all documents submitted by employees to the Immigration and Naturalization Service within 48 hours of hiring.
c.
determine whether a job applicant is a U.S. citizen, registered alien, or illegal alien, within 72 hours of hiring.
d.
contact the Department of Homeland Security within 24 hours if an illegal alien applies for a job with a government contractor in the transportation sector.
Cognitive ability tests
Kevin, a recent college graduate, applied for a job with a firm which provides security to high-profile individuals. During the selection process, he was given a test for visual memory. Tests such as these are classified as:
a.
psychomotor ability tests.
b.
cognitive ability tests.
c.
illegal tests that discriminate against the disabled.
d.
work sample tests.
Psychomotor tests
_____ measure dexterity, hand-eye coordination, and arm-hand steadiness.
a.
Physical ability tests
b.
Work sample tests
c.
Aptitude tests
d.
Psychomotor tests
A step test for endurance
Amanda has applied for a job and has taken a number of selection tests. She has not been given a conditional job offer. Which of the following tests can she refuse to take because it will be considered illegal under the ADA?
a.
A step test for endurance
b.
An English fluency test
c.
A test to demonstrate her ability to use photo editing software
d.
An honesty test
Work sample
An “in-basket” test is an example of a _____ test.
a.
psychological
b.
psychomotor
c.
work sample
d.
physical ability
Assessment Center
A(n) _____ is a selection and development device composed of a series of evaluative exercises and tests in which candidates are evaluated by a panel of trained raters.
a.
situational judgment test
b.
assessment center
c.
panel interview
d.
work simulation
Selection Interview
The purpose of a(n) _____ is to obtain additional information on a candidate and to clarify information gathered throughout the selection process.
a.
personality test
b.
application form
c.
selection interview
d.
polygraph
Low inter-rater reliability
Kent and Julie are both recruiters for Sunspree Corp. When both of them interview the same applicant, they often find that they have different opinions about the applicant’s potential as a future high performer for Sunspree. Kent and Julie demonstrate:
a.
low inter-rater reliability.
b.
high inter-rater reliability.
c.
high intra-rater reliability.
d.
low intra-rater reliability.
A set of standardized questions are asked of all job applicants
Which of the following is true of all structured interviews?
a.
All candidates meet with the same interviewer.
b.
A set of standardized questions are asked of all job applicants.
c.
Each candidate appears before a panel of interviewers.
d.
Questions are designed to address all of the Big Five personality traits.
Consistency in evaluation of candidates
The great advantage of structured selection interviews over unstructured interviews is their:
a.
naturalness and ability to set the candidate at ease.
b.
effectiveness at organizational branding.
c.
consistency in evaluation of candidates.
d.
improvisational approach to gathering information about candidates.
Structured
The _____ interview is more reliable and valid than the others types of interviews.
a.
sequential
b.
nondirective
c.
stress
d.
structured
Biographical
Gerard, a job applicant, was asked to appear for an interview by an organization. Gerard spent the first 15 minutes of the job interview relating details about his education and work experience to the interviewer. This is a _____ interview.
a.
behavioral
b.
competency
c.
biographical
d.
non-directive
Behavioral Interview
Patrick, a job applicant, was asked by his interviewer, “In your previous job, how did you handle employees who were poor performers?” Based on this information, what type of interview did Patrick attend?
a.
Behavioral interview
b.
Biographical interview
c.
Nondirective interview
d.
Situational interview
Situational
In her interview for a position as a bartender at a luxury hotel bar, Megan was asked “What would you do if one of the customers started slurring her words and began making off-color jokes that other customers in the bar could hear?” Such types of questions are typically asked in _____ interviews.
a.
behavioral
b.
nondirective
c.
situational
d.
stress
Situational interview
The selection process for hiring the assistant to the mayor of a large city includes giving the finalists three hypothetical crisis scenarios. One deals with a terrorist threat at a sporting event, another deals with a plane crash at the airport, and the third deals with a major earthquake. Each candidate must describe her/his approach to handling the crisis, which will be recorded and evaluated by a panel. This is an example of a:
a.
competency interview.
b.
behavioral interview.
c.
stress interview.
d.
situational interview.
Stress
Gisela has just finished her interview with the managing editor of a large city newspaper. She is shaken and upset because the editor talked about her educational background in an insulting tone. He also pressured her to answer confusing questions without allowing her time to collect her thoughts. Given this scenario, Gisela most likely attended a _____ interview.
a.
behavioral
b.
nondirective
c.
biographical
d.
stress
Nondirective Interview
Which of the following types of selection interviews is unstructured?
a.
Behavioral interview
b.
Situational interview
c.
Competency interview
d.
Nondirective interview
Nondirective
Anthony was interviewing an applicant to be a volunteer docent (instructor and tour guide) for a large art museum. During the course of the interview, the applicant began to discuss her interest in introducing young children to great works of art. Anthony followed up with several questions about how young children react to art, why she felt early exposure to art was important, and how she would design situations for children to experience art. Anthony was conducting a _____ interview.
a.
behavioral
b.
nondirective
c.
stress
d.
structured
Panel
The position for City Manager of Scenic River attracted many applicants. As part of the selection process, the applicants each appeared one-by-one before the entire Scenic River Board of Aldermen for an interview. This is an example of a _____ interview.
a.
panel
b.
mass
c.
biographical
d.
situational
Team Interviews
The interior decorators, designers, and architects of WorldKraft Design work together in self-managing work groups. This structure is key to the organization’s culture, and it is important that new hires fit in with the work group to which they are assigned. In this case, it would be wise to use:
a.
multiple-hurdle interviews.
b.
stress interviews.
c.
biographical interviews.
d.
team interviews.
Snap Judgment
The problem of _____ occurs when interviewers make a decision on the job suitability of applicants within the first few minutes of the interview and spend the balance of the interview looking for evidence to support it.
a.
cultural noise
b.
snap judgment
c.
stereotyping
d.
negative emphasis
Halo effect
Which of the following occurs when an interviewer allows a positive characteristic about a job applicant to overshadow other evidence?
a.
Halo effect
b.
Cultural noise
c.
Similarity bias
d.
Snap judgment
Similarity Bias
Which of the following occurs when interviewers favor or select people whom they believe to be like themselves on the basis of a variety of personal factors?
a.
Halo effect
b.
Cultural noise
c.
Similarity bias
d.
First impression error
to protect the organization against charges of negligent hiring
The main legal reason for performing a thorough background check of all applicants is:
a.
to comply with the Immigration and Naturalization Act.
b.
to avoid résumé fraud.
c.
to prevent discrimination against protected classes.
d.
to protect the organization against charges of negligent hiring.
negligent hiring
A school district hired a school bus driver without conducting a multi-state criminal background check; a background check was conducted only in the state in which the school was located. Subsequently, the school bus driver was convicted of kidnapping one of the children who traveled in his bus. The prosecution in the case revealed that the driver had been convicted ten years ago for a similar case in another state. The school district is guilty of:
a.
information falsification.
b.
stereotyping.
c.
compensatory hiring.
d.
negligent hiring.
negligent retention
Angus has been a bus driver for a tour bus company for the last 15 years and has an excellent driving record. Last year, Angus was on medical leave for 8 weeks due to a back injury which has left him in chronic pain. If Angus has an accident while driving one of the tour buses because of the effects of his prescription pain medication and if passengers are injured, the company might be liable for:
a.
failure to conduct a thorough background check on Angus.
b.
negligent hiring.
c.
criminal negligence.
d.
negligent retention.
A company may require applicants to take a drug test even before a conditional job offer has been made.
Which of the following statements is true about medical examinations and inquiries?
a.
A company may require applicants to take a drug test even before a conditional job offer has been made.
b.
A preemployment health checklist can be required of applicants before a job offer is made, but physical medical exams cannot be requested until a job has been conditionally offered.
c.
A drug test is considered a medical exam and cannot be administered unless a conditional job offer has been made.
d.
Companies may ask questions about an applicant’s current medical condition but not about past medical problems, even after a conditional job offer has been made.
ask Morgan to submit to a second type of drug test at another laboratory.
Morgan, the best candidate for the position of director of marketing, has tested positive for the presence of illegal drugs in a hair sample. Given this scenario, the HR manager should:
a.
notify Morgan that he was denied the job because of a positive drug test.
b.
inform Morgan that someone else has been hired.
c.
hire Morgan and inform him of the company’s Employee Assistance program.
d.
ask Morgan to submit to a second type of drug test at another laboratory.
She did not get a signed consent form from the applicant releasing the former supervisor from liability.
Carrie phoned an applicant’s former supervisor for a reference. The supervisor refuses to give any information about the former employee. What mistake may Carrie have made?
a.
She did not get a signed consent form from the applicant releasing the former supervisor from liability.
b.
She limited her request for information to dates of employment, positions held, and the applicant’s previous job title rather than asking for particular examples of good or poor performance.
c.
She contacted the supervisor by phone rather than in writing or via email, thus opening the supervisor to a charge of slander by the applicant.
d.
Former supervisors rarely provide useful information, so it is not an effective use of Carrie’s time to pursue this contact.
to report applicant demographic data to the EEOC
What is the main purpose of an applicant flow form?
a.
To report applicant demographic data to the EEOC
b.
To document that the employer asked each applicant to voluntarily provide demographic data
c.
To use the protected class status of individuals to make hiring decisions
d.
To collect EEO data that the applicant is required by law to provide
Training
_____ provides employees with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs.
a.
Pre-screening
b.
Recruiting
c.
Networking
d.
Training
Required and Regular
Henry, a trainer at a chemical company, schedules a training on handling hazardous materials for the new batch of employees in the production unit of the company. The training complies with OSHA regulations and was already provided to the other employees of the company. This best exemplifies _____ training.
a.
interpersonal
b.
required and regular
c.
emergency
d.
problem-solving
Job/technical training
A fitness center is planning to invest in a specialized exercise equipment. This equipment is highly effective, but the club members could be injured if the equipment is not used correctly. The fitness center is sends its exercise instructors to a certified training program to learn how to use these machines correctly. This is best classified as:
a.
career training.
b.
job/technical training.
c.
problem-solving training.
d.
developmental training.
development is broader in scope, focusing on individuals gaining new capabilities useful for both present and future jobs.
Development is distinguished from training, in that:
a.
development is broader in scope, focusing on individuals gaining new capabilities useful for both present and future jobs.
b.
EEO laws and regulations apply primarily to training, not development.
c.
training is usually provided internally whereas development takes place in external learning environments.
d.
development provides people with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use on their present jobs.
If part-time employees are required to take work-related training during their free time, they must be compensated for the time spent in training.
Which of the following statements is true of training?
a.
It is illegal to ask part-time employees to take work-related training after work.
b.
If part-time employees are required to take work-related training during their free time, they must be compensated for the time spent in training.
c.
If a part-time employee takes a college course that applies directly to his/her current job and will increase his/her performance, the employer is required to pay the employee’s tuition.
d.
An employer is required to pay part-time employees only for training they take at a work location or training facility, and not for the training through Web-based classes.
Rapid technological innovation
Organizations must continually train their current employees because of:
a.
the need to increase the rate of attrition.
b.
rapid technological innovation.
c.
the lack of competition from businesses in low labor cost countries.
d.
low involuntary turnover rates of U.S. employees.
knowledge
Organizations in many industries create value by using the organization’s intellectual capital. This is called _____ management.
a.
intellectual
b.
knowledge
c.
intelligence
d.
creativity
For U.S. employers, the challenge related to training a globally competitive workforce has increased because of the decline in specialized skilled and technical workers.
Which of the following statements is true of global competitiveness?
a.
Globally, there is a decline in the supply of specialized skilled and technical workers signaling a worldwide crisis in education.
b.
For U.S. employers, the challenge related to training a globally competitive workforce has increased because of the decline in specialized skilled and technical workers.
c.
Despite its shortcomings, the U.S. educational system is generating an increasing supply of specialized skilled and technical workers.
d.
Companies that send their employees abroad should focus more on skills and technical capabilities training rather than wasting their time in preparing them for the host country’s culture.
level of sensitivity to cultural issues
The “emotional” component of intercultural competence is the person’s:
a.
level of sensitivity to cultural issues.
b.
ability to connect with foreigners on an emotional level.
c.
ability to handle the emotional stress of an overseas assignment.
d.
ability to take on the emotional characteristics of the culture to which he/she is assigned.
knowledge about a foreign culture
The “cognitive” component of intercultural competence is the person’s:
a.
level of sensitivity to cultural issues.
b.
ability to connect with foreigners on an emotional level.
c.
ability to handle the emotional stress of an overseas assignment.
d.
knowledge about a foreign culture.
Cognitive
EarthShapers Inc., a manufacturer of heavy construction equipments based in U.S.A., maintains large sales and support operations overseas. Before sending new employees to its operations in Japan, it requires the employees to take courses in Japanese history and culture so that they can adjust more easily to living in Japan. This training focuses on the _____ component of international competence training.
a.
cognitive
b.
conceptual
c.
emotional
d.
behavioral
Orientation
The planned introduction of new employees to their jobs, coworkers, and the organization is referred to as _____.
a.
orientation
b.
organizational entry
c.
socialization
d.
indoctrination
Needs Assessment
In the _____ phase of the training process, organizational and employee performance issues are considered to determine if training can help.
a.
needs assessment
b.
implementation
c.
evaluation
d.
design
Organizational
Attitude survey data are typically used in _____ analysis of training needs.
a.
individual
b.
organizational
c.
task
d.
job
Organizational
The loan review department at a major regional bank has an exceptionally high turnover of both administrative assistants and analysts. Several analysts have quit within six months of taking the job. In this scenario, a(n) _____ analysis would most accurately reveal if there is a need for training in this department that would reduce the level of turnover.
a.
job/task
b.
organizational
c.
individual
d.
productivity
use performance appraisal data
The most common approach for making individual analysis is to:
a.
analyze organizational outcomes.
b.
predict future organizational needs.
c.
use performance appraisal data.
d.
review the jobs involved.
Conducting a “gap analysis”
Once training requirements have been identified using needs analyses, training objectives and priorities can be established by:
a.
conducting orientation programs.
b.
conducting exit interviews.
c.
conducting a “SWOT analysis.”
d.
conducting a “gap analysis.”
a person’s belief that he/she can successfully learn the training program content.
In the context of training, self-efficacy refers to:
a.
a person’s desire to learn training content.
b.
a trainer’s belief that the learners possess the basic skills required to learn new tasks.
c.
the perceived ability of the instructor to transfer the knowledge to the student.
d.
a person’s belief that he/she can successfully learn the training program content.
Jeanne’s low sense of self-efficacy regarding the use of computer technology
Jeanne is 54 years old. She had worked as a medical research librarian for ten years before quitting in her late forties. She wants to re-enter the workforce. However, she is worried about applying for an open position at the library she was previosly working at because of the major changes in information technology that have taken place in library management. She also feels intimidated by computers. The HR director of the library feels Jeanne is highly qualified for the position in question. Given this scenario, what would be the main barrier to her learning the job tasks?
a.
The fact that Jeanne may not have the ability to learn the library’s computer system even with training
b.
The fact that Jeanne won’t see the benefits of learning the library’s computer system
c.
Jeane’s low motivation levels as she wants to get into a new career
d.
Jeanne’s low sense of self-efficacy regarding the use of computer technology
job-related tasks and duties are performed by trainees during training.
Active practice occurs when:
a.
job-related tasks and duties are performed by trainees during training.
b.
off-the-job training is provided to new employees at a job.
c.
trainees are shown how to actively multitask.
d.
e-learning tools are used to deliver training.
active practice
At Plantsman’s Eden nursery, new workers are trained in proper techniques for planting rooted cuttings. As part of the training, each of the workers are given ten seedlings to plant. Their planting techniques are then checked by the trainer. This best exemplifies:
a.
active practice.
b.
behavior modeling.
c.
cross training.
d.
conference training.
spaced practice
A group of oil refinery supervisors from the U.S. attend a class on Spanish language every Thursday afternoon. Their main purpose is to use Spanish to communicate with their contractors whose primary language is Spanish. This best illustrates _____.
a.
spaced practice
b.
massed practice
c.
immediate confirmation strategy
d.
reinforcement strategy
massed
Cole, the director of training for a manufacturer of heavy equipments, is designing a training program for new sales representatives. The sales representatives need to be able to memorize and recall the exact details from the company catalog regarding types of equipment, their functions, their appropriate and inappropriate uses, pricing, and financing packages. Cole’s training program would be most effective if he designed it based on _____ practice.
a.
computer-based
b.
spaced
c.
massed
d.
passive
behavioral modeling
The fire fighters of Lake Hogan Fire Department train constantly to keep their skills honed so that they can respond quickly to sudden changes in an emergency situation. This best exemplifies:
a.
behavioral modeling.
b.
overlearning.
c.
reinforcement and immediate confirmation.
d.
spaced practice.
behavioral modeling
The most elementary way in which people learn is _____, which involves copying someone else’s behavior.
a.
behavioral modification
b.
behavioral modeling
c.
cognitive practice
d.
positive reinforcement
the law of effect
Molly, a customer service representative for an insurance company, was rude to one of her customers. The customer immediately contacted Molly’s supervisor and lodged a complaint. Molly’s supervisor then reprimanded Molly and recorded the incident in her file. Molly has made a conscious effort ever since not to repeat the same mistake. This best exemplifies:
a.
the law of effect.
b.
delayed reinforcement.
c.
transfer of training.
d.
behavioral modeling.
immediate confirmation
Soltura Products Inc. has a training program for customer service representatives that tests trainees on their knowledge of company products. Every time a trainee answers a question, he/she learns whether the answer is right or wrong. This is called:
a.
behavior modeling.
b.
massed practice.
c.
immediate confirmation.
d.
active practice.
the training mirrors the job context as much as possible
One way to aid transfer of training to job situations is to ensure that:
a.
the trainers have high levels of self-efficacy.
b.
the trainees are not troubled with follow-up exercises.
c.
the trainers focus primarily on informal training.
d.
the training mirrors the job context as much as possible.
on-the-job training
The most common method of delivering training at all levels in an organization is:
a.
on-the-job training.
b.
cross training.
c.
web-based training.
d.
informal training.
it can disrupt regular work in an organization
Which of the following is true about on-the-job training (OJT)?
a.
It can disrupt regular work in an organization.
b.
It is the least flexible of all the available employee training methods.
c.
It is more expensive than classroom training.
d.
It is typically outsourced to external firms.
It is flexible and relevant to what employees do
Which of the following is true about on-the-job training (OJT)?
a.
It is less disruptive to the work flow than other types of employee training methods.
b.
It is flexible and relevant to what employees do.
c.
It is more expensive than classroom training.
d.
It is typically outsourced to external firms.
Incorrect information from the supervisor can be transferred to the trainees.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the on-the-job training (OJT)?
a.
Incorrect information from the supervisor can be transferred to the trainees.
b.
It is the least flexible of all the available modes of employee training.
c.
It is more expensive than classroom training.
d.
External firms are typically used for training purposes.
on-the-job training
Dr. Smith, a veterinarian, has hired Carlos as an assistant. On Carlos’s first day at work, Dr. Smith shows him the technique of holding a cat for vaccinations. First, Dr. Smith describes the technique, and then he practically shows the process of vaccination. Later he asks Carlos to hold the cat and corrects his mistakes. This is an example of:
a.
cross-training.
b.
virtual training.
c.
simulation training.
d.
on-the-job training.
employee development
For employers, one of the advantages of cross training employees is:
a.
narrowed job jurisdictions.
b.
increased employee productivity without pay raises or bonuses.
c.
better union relations.
d.
employee development.
flexibility in assigning work
For the employer, the two major advantages of cross training employees are employee development and:
a.
narrowed job jurisdictions.
b.
increased employee productivity without pay raises or bonuses.
c.
better union relations.
d.
flexibility in assigning work.
people are trained to do more than one job
Cross training occurs when:
a.
people are trained to do more than one job.
b.
the training takes place outside the employing organization.
c.
e-learning is used as the primary mode for delivering the content of a training.
d.
the training occurs through interactions and feedback among employees.
it threatens job jurisdiction
Unions view cross training unfavorably primarily because:
a.
it threatens job jurisdiction.
b.
it adds supervisory roles to part-time employees’ duties.
c.
it reduces effective wages per hour.
d.
it increases worker productivity, and thus threatens job security.
A community college program in solar panel installation partnering with solar panel installation companies providing internships
Which of the following best exemplifies cooperative training?
a.
A medical school that uses simulations where the students can perform operations without harming real patients
b.
An e-learning program on corporate leadership in which the trainee interacts with the trainer and other trainees via a blog
c.
On-the-job training in an IT firm wherein a supervisor works closely and continuously with subordinates
d.
A community college program in solar panel installation partnering with solar panel installation companies providing internships
combine funds from employers and employees to be used for the employee’s education.
Lifelong Learning Accounts:
a.
are similar to medical flexible spending accounts which are nontransferable when employees hop jobs.
b.
are government-sponsored job training programs.
c.
combine funds from employers and employees to be used for the employee’s education.
d.
are typically owned by the employers and not the employees.
E-learning provides easy access to more employees than does conventional training.
Which of the following statements is true about e-learning?
a.
Financial service companies were among the last to use Internet training.
b.
E-learning is not flexible enough to be used for off-the job training.
c.
E-learning provides easy access to more employees than does conventional training.
d.
E-learning is relatively more expensive per trainee than conventional training methods.
distance learning
Andrew is enrolled in a university course on project management. His class meets at the local community college and the instructors present their lectures from universities in other cities using two-way television. This best exemplifies:
a.
simulation training.
b.
distance learning.
c.
cross training.
d.
cooperative education.
Simulation
An artificial surgical environment in which a surgeon could practice a new type of operation without harming a human being or sacrificing a laboratory animal would be called:
a.
simulation.
b.
blended learning.
c.
cross training.
d.
self-guided training.
Blended Learning
Combining short, fast-paced, interactive computer-based lessons and teleconferencing with traditional classroom instruction and simulation is called:
a.
job shadowing.
b.
outsourcing.
c.
blended learning.
d.
cross training.
Reaction-level
In her evaluation sheet, Theresa, a trainer in a company, gets very high ratings in the areas of class enjoyability and trainee willingness to take the program again. This evaluation best exemplifies a _____ measure.
a.
reaction-level
b.
learning-level
c.
behavior-level
d.
cognitive-level
learning-level
To qualify as a tax-preparer for a seasonal job at a tax-preparation chain, Martin must answer written questions on tax terminology covered in the e-learning course provided by the company. This evaluation best exemplifies a _____ measure.
a.
results-level
b.
learning-level
c.
reaction-level
d.
behavior-level
Behavior-level
At GetHelp Inc., after customer service representatives complete training, their phone calls are monitored to determine if the they are applying the lessons about gathering pertinent information from callers. This evaluation best exemplifies a _____ measure.
a.
reaction-level
b.
learning-level
c.
results-level
d.
behavior-level
a return-on-investment analysis
Joshua, the director of training, must demonstrate to the top management the amount of financial benefits the company has realized from the expenditures on the mechanics training program. Joshua needs to prepare:
a.
a return-on-investment analysis.
b.
a net gain calculation.
c.
an actual versus proposed budget comparison.
d.
a results evaluation.
Benchmarking
When using _____ to evaluate training, HR professionals in an organization, typically gather data on training and compare them to data on training at other organizations of similar size in their industry.
a.
the results approach
b.
benchmarking
c.
cost/benefit analysis
d.
return on investment analysis approach
a pre/post-measure
The best way to determine if a change in performance resulted from training or from other factors is to use a control group combined with:
a.
a pre-/post-measure.
b.
a method of measuring trainee skill levels before the training takes place.
c.
a process of comparing training results with results from similar training programs in other companies.
d.
a return-on-investments calculation.
knowing if the training was responsible for any changes in performance.
A problem with the pre-/post-measure of evaluating training is:
a.
the difficulty of constructing a good test.
b.
the difficulty of knowing whether employees were randomly assigned to the control group.
c.
being unable to act quickly during organizational emergencies.
d.
knowing if the training was responsible for any changes in performance.
the firm has a succession plan in place for all holders of critical jobs.
If talent management is effective in a firm, it is most likely that:
a.
the voluntary turnover among the high potential employees will be essentially zero.
b.
the organization will not have to use the external labor market except in emergencies.
c.
the cost of labor in the firm will be lower than its direct competitors.
d.
the firm has a succession plan in place for all holders of critical jobs.
define the positions that are critical to the organization’s strategy.
The first step in the succession planning process is to:
a.
decide whether to “make” or to “buy” talent.
b.
identify key employees and their anticipated retirement dates.
c.
define the positions that are critical to the organization’s strategy.
d.
assess the capabilities of current employees.
Sarbanes-Oxley Act
The _____ provisions have added more demands that boards do CEO succession planning.
a.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
b.
Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c.
Employee Retirement Income Security Act
d.
Congressional Accountability Act
improves employee retention and performance motivation.
When an organization ties formal succession plans to career paths for employees, it:
a.
discourages the practice of making status-blind employment decisions.
b.
runs the risk that the chosen successors will feel they have a legal or moral right to the job when it becomes available.
c.
discourages employees who have not been selected to succeed key managers which reduces overall morale.
d.
improves employee retention and performance motivation.
include mid-level and lower-level managers and key nonmanagement employees.
Long-term succession planning in an organization should go beyond just high-level executives and:
a.
focus on high-turnover jobs in the organization.
b.
include mid-level and lower-level managers and key nonmanagement employees.
c.
involve every job in the organization’s core functions.
d.
target jobs for which it is most difficult to find qualified external candidates.
Allowing the CEO to direct the planning process
Which of the following is a common mistake made by organizations during succession planning?
a.
Including the boards of directors, along with the HR in the process of CEO succession
b.
Focussing on the other employees apart from the top management
c.
Allowing the CEO to direct the planning process
d.
Looking externally as well as internally for succession candidates
Career
A(n) _____ is a sequence of work-related positions a person occupies throughout life.
a.
career
b.
job ladder
c.
profession
d.
occupation
the result of organization-centered career planning.
Carmelo, the editor of a business department of a national news magazine, went through a sequence of jobs in the company before he achieved this position. He joined as a staff reporter, then got promoted to technology reporter, then to editor of the business department, and then to deputy managing editor before achieving his current position. This is:
a.
an example of a non-traditional career path.
b.
the result of organization-centered career planning.
c.
a demonstration of the cyclical nature of careers.
d.
a series of career transitions.
organization-centered career planning
The HR department at Total Utilities is planning an internal career day which will feature workshops on various careers at Total Utilities, opportunities for work in the overseas locations of Total Utilities, and presentations by HR staff on training and development opportunities available at Total Utilities. This is an example of:
a.
individual-based career development.
b.
organization-centered career planning.
c.
career mapping.
d.
training and development outsourcing.
should tap both the internal and external labor pool.
Web sites that list careers in an organization:
a.
are most appropriate for recruiting internal applicants.
b.
encourage unqualified internal applicants to apply for jobs.
c.
should tap both the internal and external labor pool.
d.
limit the quality of applicants because a large numbers of job seekers do not have access to computers.
an employee’s personal characteristics and his/her life and work goals.
Individual-centered career planning primarily focuses on:
a.
the logical progression of people through jobs in an organization.
b.
an organization’s long-term staffing needs.
c.
succession planning for key positions.
d.
an employee’s personal characteristics and his/her life and work goals.
Self-assessment tests
_____ are tools to help people identify their interests, what they do well, what they like, and their strengths and weaknesses.
a.
SWOT analyses
b.
Neuropsychological tests
c.
Career goal settings
d.
Self-assessment tests
Ambrose’s self-image is not congruent with his parent’s image of him.
Ambrose is discussing his college major with his best friend. Ambrose says that his parents want him to be a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) just like them when he graduates. However, Ambrose says, “I just don’t see myself as an accountant!” Which of the following can be concluded from the information given in this scenario?
a.
Ambrose’s self-image is not congruent with his parent’s image of him.
b.
Ambrose belongs to a personality type that is not likely to go for a practical job.
c.
Ambrose’s choice is conflicting with that of his peers.
d.
Ambrose’s interest is clashing with his self-image.
to identify interests and acquire capabilities.
Gerald is confused as to why his 28-year-old daughter is changing jobs for the third time since she graduated from college. His daughter tells him that she has learned everything she could from her current job and that it is time to move on. Gerald’s daughter is in the stage of her career where most people’s needs and concerns are:
a.
to identify interests and acquire capabilities.
b.
to focus on making as high a salary as possible because this affects their earning potential for the rest of their lives.
c.
to achieve personal integrity and incorporate their values into their work life.
d.
to establish their political power base within their organization.
Modern careers are cyclical in that individuals will have periods of stability interrupted by periods of transition.
Which of the following statements is true about career planning?
a.
Modern careers are cyclical in that individuals will have periods of stability interrupted by periods of transition.
b.
A person’s early career is marked by stability as he/she learns new skills, but a person’s later career tends to be turbulent as he/she moves from organization to organization.
c.
The democratic traditions of the U.S. result in the fact that the socioeconomic status of one’s family has no impact on one’s career choices.
d.
Interest inventories are important because interests are stable over a person’s lifetime.
A cycle of stability and instability
Carla is 52 years of age. She has been laid off twice in her life, once when her employer downsized and once when her organization was acquired by a rival company. She has now hit a career plateau after five years with her current employer. Carla is rather frustrated; each time she has changed employers, she has adapted and acquired more skills and expanded her knowledge base. Which of the following patterns best describes Carla’s career progression?
a.
A linear progression interrupted by transitions
b.
A cycle of stability and instability
c.
A series of successive plateaus
d.
Typical stagnation of the late career stage
In the future, Margaret should be considered for lateral moves.
Margaret is a 54-year-old manager in the client support services department of a heavy equipment manufacturer. She has been with the company throughout her career and has had a steady rise in the hierarchy through promotions. She has performed well in numerous training and development programs. Margaret currently meets performance expectations. In the judgment of Margaret’s superiors, she has “topped out” and will not be qualified for further advancement. Which of the following statements is most appropriate for Margaret’s situation?
a.
In the future, Margaret should be considered for lateral moves.
b.
Margaret should receive stretch assignments to bring out her latent potential.
c.
Since Margaret has no potential to advance, she should be encouraged to take phased retirement.
d.
Margaret should receive coaching and perhaps be moved to another organization.
encourage employees to learn new skills that increase their marketability.
As a development technique, the best lateral transfers:
a.
facilitate upward career progress in the organization.
b.
encourage employees to learn new skills that increase their marketability.
c.
encourage the redundant employee to leave the company voluntarily without being terminated.
d.
provide a monetary incentive for taking on new work.
An employee who defines career success in terms of upward mobility would view a career plateau as a sign of failure.
Which of the following is true of career plateaus?
a.
Plateaued employees are poor candidates for training and development because they have reached the highest level for which they are suitable in their organizations.
b.
Career plateaus are a sign that valuable resources are not being used appropriately.
c.
Career plateaus are more likely to occur in a person’s early career rather than in one’s later career.
d.
An employee who defines career success in terms of upward mobility would view a career plateau as a sign of failure.
When an employee cannot advance upward within an organization
When is a career plateau most likely to occur?
a.
When an employee starts gaining new skills
b.
When an employee employs the strategy of job sequencing
c.
When an employee becomes unmotivated and quits
d.
When an employee cannot advance upward within an organization
a career transition
Josh is 32 years old. He worked for a financial organization for seven years after graduating with a bachelor’s degree. He received three promotions during that period. Recently, he was fired by his employers and is now working part-time as a bartender while training as an X-ray technician. Josh is experiencing:
a.
a career plateau.
b.
a Protean career.
c.
career sequencing.
d.
a career transition.
they affect morale if they become negative
Plateaued employees may be a problem for an organization because:
a.
plateaued employees are typically poor performers who did not get promoted.
b.
their presence discourages younger, ambitious employees.
c.
they tend to have higher compensation than is justified by their contribution to the organization.
d.
they affect morale if they become negative.
Entry Shock
Paul has completed two months at his first job. He is dissatisfied with his unsupportive supervisor, the lack of specific feedback, and the logistical aspects of solving problems. This best exemplifies a(n) _____.
a.
entry shock
b.
feedback on reality
c.
cyclical career
d.
premature career plateau
Dual career ladders
In order to reward talented technical people who do not want to move into management, many companies have established:
a.
corporate universities for technical development.
b.
portable career paths.
c.
dual career ladders.
d.
job rotation programs.
Policies that encourage sequencing are needed in order to recruit women with children into the full-time workforce.
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
Now that women are in the workforce in nearly the same proportion as men, the differences between men’s and women’s careers are expected to disappear by 2015.
b.
Policies that encourage sequencing are needed in order to recruit women with children into the full-time workforce.
c.
Glass ceiling allows women to efficiently strike a balance between their personal lives and careers.
d.
Job sequencing has proven to be a successful career tactic for women wishing to combine work and family, since its impacts on career advancement are nonexistent.
It has resulted in very few corporate office positions being held by women as compared to men.
Which of the following statements is true about glass ceiling?
a.
It was pronounced among the Baby Boom generation, but is no longer a major factor in women’s careers.
b.
It allows women to strike a balance between their personal lives and their careers.
c.
It is not an issue that can be addressed by HR policy because it results from the reality of women’s family responsibilities early in their careers.
d.
It has resulted in very few corporate office positions being held by women as compared to men.
Implementing a dual-career ladder for nurses
The high rate of turnover of nursing staff is a major concern at Briar Mountain Regional Medical Center. Many experienced nurses resist moving into management, but exit interviews indicate that many of the best nurses leave Briar Mountain because they feel they cannot advance in the organization. Which of the following steps would be most efficient in reducing the turnover of nursing staff?
a.
Hiring nurses who are later in their careers, where advancement is less of a concern to them
b.
Offering to pay tuition for nurses who wish to enroll in MBA programs so they are more qualified to take managerial positions
c.
Implementing a dual-career ladder for nurses
d.
Providing retention bonuses and significant pay raises tied to seniority
Glass Ceiling
In general, women’s career advancement is negatively affected by:
a.
global development.
b.
glass ceiling.
c.
repatriation.
d.
dual-career ladders.
It is the pattern where an individual steps off the career track or plateaus to accommodate the demands of raising children.
Which of the following statements is true of job sequencing?
a.
It is the primary cause of career plateaus.
b.
It is the pattern where an individual steps off the career track or plateaus to accommodate the demands of raising children.
c.
It allows engineering and technical professionals a chance to advance without moving into management.
d.
It is a form of job rotation where employees move from one major organizational function to another.
Giving Andrew an inducement of a job equivalent to his current one so that he and Marcie will consider the relocation
Marcie and Andrew are married. They are both professional employees at the City Zoological Park. Marcie is an exotic-animal veterinarian specializing in big cats, while Andrew is a designer of animal exhibits. The HR Director of a zoo in a different city wants to hire Marcie as chief of veterinary medicine for the zoo. Given this scenario, which of the following steps should be taken?
a.
Ensuring that the glass ceiling situations are encouraged in the organization to make Marcie’s transition smooth
b.
Giving Andrew an inducement of a job equivalent to his current one so that he and Marcie will consider the relocation
c.
Creating a dual career ladder in order to give Marcie more incentive to take the job
d.
Meeting with Andrew and discussing the concept of career sequencing in order to explain how moving with Marcie will not affect his future career progression
Repatriation
_____ involves the planning, training, and reassignment involved with returning global employees to their home countries.
a.
Lateral transfer
b.
Reorientation
c.
Debriefing
d.
Repatriation
Capabilities learned in development may not apply to the employee’s current job.
Which of the following statements is true of training and development?
a.
Training is for hourly employees; development is for managers and professionals.
b.
Training focuses on the long-run performance of an employee.
c.
Development is typically assessed with a cost-benefit analysis.
d.
Capabilities learned in development may not apply to the employee’s current job.
The employee is likely to acquire abilities to handle a variety of assignments that might not be required for his or her current position.
What impact does development have on an individual’s career?
a.
The employee is likely to acquire abilities to handle a variety of assignments that might not be required for his or her current position.
b.
The employee’s career goals will be subordinated to the organization’s goals.
c.
The individual’s marketability at other organizations will be reduced due to employer-specific specialization.
d.
The employee’s ability to learn specific behaviors is likely to be compromised.
Managers may use them as a way to avoid difficult promotion decisions.
Which of the following is typically a concern about the use of assessment centers?
a.
A clever participant can cheat in the tests and get an undeserved high management potential rating.
b.
They tend to discriminate against minority individuals.
c.
They are expensive considering that most psychological traits such as leadership and initiative can be accurately assessed by paper and pencil techniques.
d.
Managers may use them as a way to avoid difficult promotion decisions.
Establish an assessment center which allows employees to nominate themselves.
Nelson, the HR Director of a large organization, is concerned about the lack of a deep internal pool of talent for middle and upper management jobs. He feels there may be employees with high management potential in lower level jobs who have not been identified and selected for development. Which of the following steps should Nelson take in order to most accurately identify the employees with high potential?
a.
Ask managers to nominate their subordinates who have the most management potential.
b.
Review the performance appraisals for employees in the upper management.
c.
Ask all the employees in the middle management to take extensive psychological tests.
d.
Establish an assessment center which allows employees to nominate themselves.
to rotate them through lateral transfers.
When opportunities for promotion are scarce, a good way to keep employees motivated and develop their talents within the organization is:
a.
to send them to a corporate university.
b.
to encourage practices of glass ceiling.
c.
to give them a sabbatical or leave of absence.
d.
to rotate them through lateral transfers.
they allow employees to work with outstanding managers.
Assistant positions are useful as a management tool mostly because:
a.
they allow employees to understand the political processes and personalities in an organization.
b.
they allow employees to work with outstanding managers.
c.
they eliminates instances of glass ceiling.
d.
they reduce the entry shock of newly-hired college graduates.
Employees have fewer opportunities to participate than in other types of instruction.
Which of the following is true of lecture-style classroom instruction?
a.
The technique is generally ineffective regardless of the instructor’s capabilities.
b.
Employees typically resist classroom instruction.
c.
Employees have fewer opportunities to participate than in other types of instruction.
d.
Its effectiveness is independent of the size of the group.
can create a sense of teamwork via the shared risks and challenges.
Wilderness excursions as a development tool:
a.
are the enjoyable segment of indoor training.
b.
can create a sense of teamwork via the shared risks and challenges.
c.
act as an outdoor version of an assessment center.
d.
are losing popularity because of the risk of reducing an employee’s self-confidence.
The nature of the learning experience is outside the organization’s control.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of paid sabbaticals?
a.
It has a negative impact on the employees’ morale.
b.
Employees tend to refuse sabbaticals because they fear it is a way for their managers to prove they are unimportant.
c.
The nature of the learning experience is outside the organization’s control.
d.
Employees often use sabbaticals to look for other jobs.
On a sabbatical leave
Clarence is the Assistant Vice President of quality control for a medical equipment manufacturing firm. However, Clarence is currently teaching science in a high school in Haiti. At the end of the school semester, Clarence will resume his job duties with his employer. Clarence is:
a.
in phased retirement.
b.
an executive educator.
c.
rotating through a non-core function.
d.
on a sabbatical leave.
Learning portal
A centralized Web site for news, information, course listings, business games, simulations, and other training materials is called a(n):
a.
learning portal.
b.
interactive training and development program.
c.
online corporate university.
d.
simulation training program.
it takes time to develop senior-level managers in-house.
Senior managers and executives are often hired from outside a firm because:
a.
it takes time to develop senior-level managers in-house.
b.
promoting from middle management ranks causes extreme political jockeying.
c.
the organization cannot control managers’ experiences, so it cannot develop the managers it needs.
d.
in order for useful learning to occur, managers must have positive and challenging experiences, and these are absent in-house.
Poor teamwork with subordinates and peers
What is the most common reason managers fail after being promoted to management?
a.
Lack of confidence
b.
Poor time management
c.
Poor teamwork with subordinates and peers
d.
Inability to balance work and family demands
imitating the behavior of their own managers.
Managers learn by behavior modeling, which involves:
a.
reinforcement of the desirable behaviors spontaneously exhibited.
b.
imitating the behavior of their own managers.
c.
developing a personal model of ideal managerial behavior.
d.
pairing junior managers with senior managers in assistant positions.
a leadership coach
Davidson is the manager of the IT department of his company. He has appointed a consultant for helping him improve his interpersonal skills. The consultant is also working with Davidson to devise collaborative decision-making strategies that are efficient and effective. Davidson’s consultant is best described as:
a.
a management mentor.
b.
a leadership coach.
c.
an executive role model.
d.
an arbitrator.
Management mentoring
_____ is a relationship in which experienced managers in a company aid individuals in the earlier stages of their careers.
a.
Sponsorship
b.
Management coaching
c.
Management mentoring
d.
Modeling
The proportion of racial and ethnic minorities holding senior management positions is low.
Which of the following has been identified as a problem with mentoring?
a.
Women executives are reluctant to serve as mentors either to other women or to men because they themselves received little help.
b.
The proportion of racial and ethnic minorities holding senior management positions is low.
c.
The relationship between mentor and protégé is frequently marked by a “break-up” when the protege advances in the hierarchy.
d.
The most successful managers are too busy to be effective mentors, so junior managers are often mentored by less-talented senior managers.
friendship with
For the less-experienced manager, the last stage in a successful mentoring relationship is _____ the mentor.
a.
disengagement from
b.
reversal of roles with
c.
friendship with
d.
replacement of
encapsulated development
Kelly spent four days at a training program centered on the use of improved hygiene procedures to reduce infections in long-term care facilities. Six months later, Kelly has not been able to implement these methods due to resistance from the nursing staff and the lack of interest of the medical director. The HR term for Kelly’s experience is:
a.
translation failure.
b.
nontransference of training.
c.
encapsulated development.
d.
cultural inertia.
Performance Management
_____ is a series of activities designed to ensure that the organization gets the performance it needs from its employees.
a.
Performance management
b.
Performance appraisal
c.
Performance planning
d.
Performance improvement
Performance appraisal is the process of determining how well employees do their jobs relative to a standard and communicating that information to them.
Which of the following is true of performance appraisal?
a.
Performance management is a part of performance appraisal.
b.
Performance appraisal is the process of determining how well employees do their jobs relative to a standard and communicating that information to them.
c.
Performance appraisal is the same as performance management.
d.
Performance appraisal refers to the entire series of activities designed to ensure that the organization gets the performance it needs from its employees.
Employee rewards vary little from person to person and are not much based on individual performance differences.
Which of the following statements is true of organizations that practice the entitlement approach?
a.
Employee rewards vary little from person to person and are based on individual performance differences.
b.
Employee rewards vary significantly from person to person and are not much based on individual performance differences.
c.
Employee rewards vary little from person to person and are not much based on individual performance differences.
d.
Employee rewards vary significantly from person to person and are based on individual performance differences.
Performance evaluations link results to employee compensation and development.
Which of the following is true of organizations that practice a performance-driven approach?
a.
Employee rewards vary significantly from person to person and are not based on individual performance.
b.
Performance appraisal activities are seen as being primarily a “bureaucratic exercise.”
c.
Employee rewards vary little from person to person and are not based on individual performance.
d.
Performance evaluations link results to employee compensation and development.
Firms with performance-focused cultures have more positive performance than those with a maintenance-orientation culture.
Which of the following statements is true of developing a performance-focused culture throughout the organization?
a.
Firms with performance-focused cultures have more positive performance than those with a maintenance-orientation culture.
b.
In firms with a performance-focused culture, performance appraisal activities are seen as having few ties to performance and are primarily regarded as a “bureaucratic exercise.”
c.
Firms with performance-focused cultures do not usually provide training to managers and employees.
d.
In firms with a performance-focused culture, adequate performance and stability dominate the firm.
Dispositions
Which of the following is trait-based information?
a.
Verbal persuasion
b.
Dispositions
c.
Units produced
d.
Customer satisfaction
Timeliness of Response
Which of the following is behavior-based information?
a.
Improved quality
b.
Effective communication
c.
Timeliness of response
d.
Cost reduction
Sales Volume
Which of the following is an example of results-based information?
a.
Teamwork
b.
Initiative
c.
Customer satisfaction
d.
Sales volume
The total number of washing machines sold by an employee
Which of the following is an objective measure of performance?
a.
The total number of washing machines sold by an employee
b.
A supervisor’s rating of an employee’s integrity
c.
An employee’s attitude toward the customer
d.
An organization’s perceptions of an employee’s values
A supervisor’s rating of an employee’s integrity
Which of the following is a subjective measure of performance?
a.
The total number of cars sold by an employee
b.
A supervisor’s rating of an employee’s integrity
c.
The number of hours that an employee has worked
d.
The revenue an employee has bought into the organization
Objective measures can be observed and subjective measures require judgment on the part of the evaluator.
Which of the following statements is true of objective and subjective measures of performance appraisals?
a.
Subjective measures can be observed and objective measures require judgment on the part of the evaluator.
b.
Both subjective and objective measures require judgment on the part of the evaluator and cannot be observed.
c.
Objective measures can be observed and subjective measures require judgment on the part of the evaluator.
d.
Both subjective and objective measures can be observed and do not require judgment on the part of an evaluator.
Performance standards should be established before the work is performed.
Which of the following is true of performance standards?
a.
Only numerical performance standards can be established.
b.
Performance standards should be established while the work is being performed.
c.
Only nonnumerical performance standards can be established.
d.
Performance standards should be established before the work is performed.
The rater plays the role of a judge in an administrative role and plays the role of a coach in a developmental role.
Which of the following is true of the administrative and developmental roles of performance appraisals?
a.
The rater plays the role of a judge in an administrative role and plays the role of a coach in a developmental role.
b.
The rater plays the role of a coach in an administrative role and plays the role of a judge in a developmental role.
c.
The rater plays the role of a coach in both—the administrative role and the developmental role of performance appraisals.
d.
The rater plays the role of a judge in both—the administrative role and the developmental role of performance appraisals.
Tracking timely receipt of appraisals
Which of the following is typically a responsibility of the HR department in performance appraisals?
a.
Preparing formal appraisal documents
b.
Tracking timely receipt of appraisals
c.
Identifying development areas
d.
Reviewing appraisals with employees
Identifying development areas
Which of the following is typically a responsibility of managers in performance appraisals?
a.
Reviewing completed appraisals for consistency
b.
Tracking timely receipt of appraisals
c.
Identifying development areas
d.
Designing and maintain appraisal systems
Supervisory rating of subordinates
_____ is the most widely used means of rating employees.
a.
Outsider rating of employees
b.
Self-rating
c.
Peer rating
d.
Supervisory rating of subordinates
Rating of supervisors by subordinates
_____ can help make a manager more responsive toward employees.
a.
Rating of supervisors by subordinates
b.
Self-rating
c.
Peer rating
d.
Rating of subordinates by supervisors
Peer rating
_____ is especially useful when supervisors do not have the opportunity to observe each employee’s performance but other work group members do.
a.
Outsider rating
b.
Self-rating
c.
Peer rating
d.
Employees rating managers
Self-Rating
Employees working in isolation or possessing unique skills may be particularly suited to _____.
a.
outsider rating
b.
self-rating
c.
peer rating
d.
multisource rating
Outsider Rating
A panel of division managers evaluating a supervisor’s potential for advancement in the organization is known as _____.
a.
outsider rating
b.
self-rating
c.
peer rating
d.
multisource rating
360-degree rating
_____ recognizes that for many jobs, employee performance is multidimensional and crosses departmental, organizational, and even national boundaries.
a.
Outsider rating
b.
Self-rating
c.
Peer rating
d.
360-degree rating
Category scaling methods
The simplest methods for appraising performance are _____, which require a manager to mark an employee’s level of performance on a specific form divided into categories of performance.
a.
graphic rating scales
b.
category scaling methods
c.
comparative methods
d.
narrative methods
Graphic rating scale
The _____ allows the rater to mark an employee’s performance on a continuum indicating low to high levels of a particular characteristic.
a.
graphic rating scale
b.
category scaling method
c.
comparative method
d.
narrative method
Quantity of work
Which of the following belongs to the descriptive category in graphic rating scales?
a.
Decision making
b.
Employee development
c.
Quantity of work
d.
Communication effectiveness
Communication Effectiveness
Which of the following belongs to the behavioral dimensions in graphic rating scales?
a.
Attendance
b.
Dependability
c.
Quantity of work
d.
Communication effectiveness
Graphic Rating Scales
The use of _____ can cause rater error because the form might not accurately reflect the relative importance of certain job characteristics, and some factors might need to be added to the ratings for one employee, while others might need to be dropped.
a.
graphic rating scales
b.
category scaling methods
c.
comparative methods
d.
narrative methods
Comparative Methods
_____ require that managers directly evaluate the performance levels of their employees against one another, and these evaluations can provide useful information for performance management.
a.
Graphic rating scales
b.
Category scaling methods
c.
Comparative methods
d.
Narrative methods
Forced Distribution
Which of the following is a comparative method of performance appraisals?
a.
Behavioral rating scales
b.
Critical incident
c.
Essay
d.
Forced distribution
Ranking
The _____ method lists the individuals being rated from highest to lowest based on their performance levels and relative contributions.
a.
ranking
b.
critical incident
c.
essay
d.
forced distribution
Forced Distribution
_____ is a technique for distributing ratings that are generated with any of the other appraisal methods and comparing the ratings of people in a work group.
a.
Behavioral rating scales
b.
Forced distribution
c.
Essay method
d.
Critical incident
Forced Distribution
If employers do not require a(n) _____, performance appraisal ratings often do not match the normal distribution of a bell-shaped curve.
a.
ranking method
b.
critical incident
c.
forced distribution
d.
essay method
Critical Incident
Which of the following is a narrative method of performance appraisals?
a.
Behavioral rating scales
b.
Critical incident
c.
Ranking
d.
Forced distribution
Critical Incident
In the _____ method, the manager keeps a written record of both highly favorable and unfavorable actions performed by an employee during the entire rating period.
a.
forced distribution
b.
ranking
c.
essay
d.
critical incident
Essay
The _____ method requires a manager to write a short write-up describing each employee’s performance during the rating period.
a.
forced distribution
b.
ranking
c.
essay
d.
critical incident
Job review and agreement
Which of the following is typically the first stage in implementing a guided self-appraisal system using MBO?
a.
Continuing performance discussions
b.
Development of performance standards
c.
Setting of objectives
d.
Job review and agreement
Continuing performance discussions
Which of the following is typically the last stage in implementing a guided self-appraisal system using MBO?
a.
Continuing performance discussions
b.
Development of performance standards
c.
Setting of objectives
d.
Job review and agreement
Development of performance standards
Josh, an HR manager at RoxCom LLC, is responsible for implementing a guided self-appraisal system using management by objectives in his organization. He has reviewed the job description and the key activities that constitute the employee’s job. Which of the following is typically the next step for Josh?
a.
Continuing performance discussions
b.
Development of performance standards
c.
Setting of objectives
d.
Implementation of the standards
Setting of Objectives
Zara, an HR manager at Fluxin LLC, is responsible for implementing a guided self-appraisal system using management by objectives in her organization. She has developed specific standards for performance. Which of the following is typically the next step for Zara?
a.
Continuing performance discussions
b.
Implementation of the performance standards
c.
Setting of objectives
d.
Job review and agreement
Continuing performance discussions
Luke, an HR manager at Rexi LLC, is responsible for implementing a guided self-appraisal system using management by objectives in his organization. He has established objectives that are realistically attainable. Which of the following is typically the next step for Luke?
a.
Continuing performance discussions
b.
Development of performance standards
c.
Determining a satisfactory level of performance
d.
Job review and agreement
Recency Effect
The _____ occurs when a rater gives greater weight to the latest events when appraising an individual’s performance.
a.
leniency error
b.
recency effect
c.
primacy effect
d.
central tendency
Primacy effect
The _____ occurs when a rater gives greater weight to information received first when appraising an individual’s performance.
a.
leniency error
b.
recency effect
c.
primacy effect
d.
central tendency
Central Tendency
The _____ occurs when a rater gives all employees an average rating.
a.
leniency error
b.
recency effect
c.
primacy effect
d.
central tendency
Leniency Error
The _____ occurs when ratings of all employees fall at the high end of the scale.
a.
leniency error
b.
recency effect
c.
primacy effect
d.
central tendency
Strictness Error
The _____ occurs when a manager uses only the lower part of the scale to rate employees.
a.
leniency error
b.
recency effect
c.
primacy effect
d.
strictness error
Halo Effect
The _____ occurs when a rater scores an employee high on all job criteria because of performance in one area.
a.
halo effect
b.
horns effect
c.
contrast error
d.
similar-to-me error
Horns Effect
The _____ occurs when a low rating on one characteristic leads to an overall low rating.
a.
halo effect
b.
horns effect
c.
contrast error
d.
similar-to-me error
Contrast Error
The _____ is the tendency to rate people relative to one another rather than against performance standards.
a.
halo effect
b.
horns effect
c.
contrast error
d.
similar-to-me error
Sampling Error
If the rater has seen only a small specimen of the person’s work, an appraisal may be subject to _____.
a.
halo effect
b.
horns effect
c.
contrast error
d.
sampling error
Managers must communicate both praise and constructive criticism.
Which of the following is true of appraisal interviews?
a.
Managers must communicate both praise and constructive criticism.
b.
Managers must communicate only praise and not constructive criticism.
c.
Managers must communicate only constructive criticism and not praise.
d.
Managers must not communicate praise or constructive criticism.
Performance management is less effective
When a key part of performance management, the performance appraisal, is used to punish employees, _____.
a.
performance appraisal is less effective
b.
performance management is less effective
c.
performance appraisal is more effective
d.
performance management is more effective
Base pay
Which of the following is a tangible direct reward?
a.
Base pay
b.
Health care benefits
c.
Paid time off
d.
Challenging work
Health Care Benefits
Which of the following is a tangible indirect reward?
a.
Base pay
b.
Health care benefits
c.
Challenging work
d.
Variable pay
Challenging Work
Which of the following is an intangible reward?
a.
Base pay
b.
Health care benefits
c.
Challenging work
d.
Variable pay
Wages
_____ are payments calculated on the basis of the time worked.
a.
Benefits
b.
Commissions
c.
Salaries
d.
Wages
Employers must pay whichever wage is higher
If a state’s minimum wage is higher than the federal minimum wage, _____.
a.
employers must pay whichever wage is higher
b.
employers must pay whichever wage is lower
c.
employers are free to choose between either of the two
d.
employers must pay the difference as employee benefits
18
The child labor provisions of the FLSA set the minimum age for hazardous occupations at _____ years.
a. 14
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20
one and one half
The FLSA established overtime pay requirements at _____ times the regular pay rate for all hours worked over 40 in a week.
a.
two
b.
two and one-half
c.
one and one-half
d.
three
Equal Pay Act
The _____ prohibits companies from using different wage scales for men and women performing substantially the same jobs.
a.
Fair Employment Act
b.
Employment Non-Discrimination Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Equal Pay Act
Fair Pay Act
The _____ essentially treats each paycheck as a new act of discrimination.
a.
Fair Pay Act
b.
Employment Non-Discrimination Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Equal Pay Act
Internal Revenue Service
Most federal and state entities rely on the criteria for independent contractor status identified by the _____.
a.
National Labor Relations Board
b.
Internal Revenue Service
c.
Department of Labor
d.
U.S. Treasury Department
Garnishment
_____ occurs when a creditor obtains a court order that directs an employer to set aside a portion of an employee’s wages to pay a debt owed to the creditor.
a.
Liquidation
b.
Sequestration
c.
Garnishment
d.
Distraint
Consumer Credit Protection Act
The _____ restricts the right of employers to terminate employees whose pay is subject to a single garnishment order.
a.
Davis-Bacon Act
b.
Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act
c.
McNamara-O’Hara Service Contract Act
d.
Consumer Credit Protection Act
Pay and raises based on length of service
Which of the following is typical of the entitlement philosophy of compensation?
a.
Pay and raises based on length of service
b.
No raises for poor-performing employees
c.
Market-adjusted pay scales
d.
Industry comparisons of total rewards
No raises for poor-performing employees
Which of the following is typical of the performance philosophy of compensation?
a.
Pay and raises based on length of service
b.
No raises for poor-performing employees
c.
Across-the-board raises
d.
Pay scales increased annually
total individual hourly rates of pay for all employees divided by the number of employees
Average hourly rate = _____.
a.
total individual hourly rates of pay for all employees divided by the total output produced
b.
total individual hourly rates of pay for all employees divided by the number of employees
c.
total individual hourly rates of pay for all employees divided by the total number of hours worked
d.
total individual hourly rates of pay for all employees divided by the total output produced in an hour
total annual hours paid for all employees divided by the number of hours a full-time employee is scheduled to work
Number of Full Time Equivalents = _____.
a.
total annual hours paid for all employees divided by the total output of all full-time employees
b.
total output of all full-time employees divided by the total annual hours paid for all employees
c.
total annual hours paid for all employees divided by the number of hours a full-time employee is scheduled to work
d.
number of hours a full-time employee is scheduled to work divided by the total annual hours paid for all employees
total years of service for all employees divided by the number of Full Time Equivalents
Average tenure = _____.
a.
average years of service for all employees divided by the number of full-time equivalents
b.
number of full-time equivalents divided by the average years of service for all employees
c.
number of full-time equivalents divided by the total years of service for all employees
d.
total years of service for all employees divided by the number of Full Time Equivalents
the total of the comparative ratio of all employees divided by the number of employees
Average comparative ratio = _____.
a.
the average of the comparative ratio for each employee divided by the number of employees
b.
the total of the comparative ratio of all employees divided by the number of employees
c.
the number of employees divided by the average of the comparative ratio for each employee
d.
the number of employees divided by the total of the comparative ratio for each employee
total revenue divided by number of Full Time Equivalents
Productivity = _____.
a.
total revenue divided by number of Full Time Equivalents
b.
total revenue divided by total output produced
c.
total output produced divided by number of Full Time Equivalents
d.
total output produced divided by total revenue
the total salary increase of all employees divided by the number of full-time equivalents
Average annual salary increase = _____.
a.
the average salary increase of all employees divided by the number of full-time equivalents
b.
the number of full-time equivalents divided by the total salary increase of all employees
c.
the total salary increase of all employees divided by the number of full-time equivalents
d.
the number of full-time equivalents divided by the average salary increase of all employees
This theory emphasizes the importance of finding valued rewards for the employee.
Which of the following statements is true of the expectancy theory?
a.
This theory emphasizes the importance of finding valued rewards for the employee.
b.
This theory of motivation was first introduced by John Stacey Adams in 1963.
c.
This theory states that individuals judge fairness in compensation by comparing their inputs and outcomes against the inputs and outcomes of referent others.
d.
This theory is applicable only to flat organizations with little or no formal structure.
This theory of motivation was first introduced by John Stacey Adams in 1963.
Which of the following statements is true of the equity theory?
a.
This theory of motivation was first introduced by Victor Vroom at Yale in 1964.
b.
This theory of motivation was first introduced by John Stacey Adams in 1963.
c.
This theory states that an employee’s motivation is based on several linked concepts.
d.
This theory emphasizes the importance of finding valued rewards for the employee.
Loyalty
Which of the following is classified as an input in the equity theory?
a.
Job security
b.
Praise
c.
Loyalty
d.
Recognition
Job Security
Which of the following is classified as an outcome in the equity theory?
a.
Loyalty
b.
Time
c.
Effort
d.
Job security
Difficulty hiring new employees
Which of the following is an indicator of external inequity?
a.
Difficulty hiring new employees
b.
Lack of fairness in how rewards are distributed among employees
c.
Lower attrition levels
d.
Reward system based on favoritism
National Labor Relations Act
Organizational policies that discourage employees from sharing pay information with each other may violate the _____.
a.
Equal Pay Act
b.
National Labor Relations Act
c.
Fair Pay Act
d.
Davis-Bacon Act
The employer pays the employees below market levels.
Which of the following is true of an employer who uses the first-quartile strategy of compensation?
a.
The employer pays the employees above market levels.
b.
The employers determine the pay independent of the market scenario.
c.
The employer pays the employees below market levels.
d.
The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels.
The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels
Which of the following is true of an employer who uses the second-quartile strategy of compensation?
a.
The employer pays the employees above market levels.
b.
The employers determine the pay independent of the market scenario.
c.
The employer pays the employees below market levels.
d.
The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels.
The employer pays the employees above market levels
Which of the following is true an employer who uses the third-quartile strategy of compensation?
a.
The employer pays the employees above market levels.
b.
The employers determine the pay irrespective of the market scenario.
c.
The employer pays the employees below market levels.
d.
The employer pays the employees on par with the market levels.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country where the MNE is headquartered.
Which of the following statements is true of the home-country-based approach?
a.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country where the expatriate is sent from the headquarters.
b.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country where the MNE is headquartered.
c.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country that has the lowest cost of living index.
d.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the third country.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country where the expatriate is sent from the headquarters.
Which of the following statements is true of the host-country-based approach?
a.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country where the expatriate is sent from the headquarters.
b.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country where the MNE is headquartered.
c.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the country that has the lowest cost of living index.
d.
Compensation is adjusted to maintain the expatriate’s standard of living in the third country.
Compensation Philosophy
Which of the following is typically the first step in the compensation administration process?
a.
Job analysis
b.
Job evaluation
c.
Compensation philosophy
d.
External focus
Job Analysis
Which of the following is typically the immediate next step after compensation philosophy in the compensation administration process?
a.
Job analysis
b.
Job evaluation
c.
Internal focus
d.
External focus
Job Evaluation
Which of the following is typically the immediate next step after job analysis in the compensation administration process?
a.
Compensation philosophy
b.
Job evaluation
c.
Internal focus
d.
External focus
It is a simple system that places jobs in order, from highest to lowest, by their value to the organization.
Which of the following is true of the ranking method of job evaluation?
a.
In this method, descriptions of each class of jobs are written and then each job is put into a grade according to the class it best matches.
b.
It is a complex quantitative method that combines the classification and point factor methods.
c.
It looks at compensable factors in a group of similar jobs and assigns weights, or points, to them.
d.
It is a simple system that places jobs in order, from highest to lowest, by their value to the organization.
In this method, descriptions of each group of jobs are written and then each job is put into a grade according to the group it best matches.
Which of the following is true of the classification method of job evaluation?
a.
In this method, descriptions of each group of jobs are written and then each job is put into a grade according to the group it best matches.
b.
It is a complex quantitative method that combines the ranking and point factor methods.
c.
It looks at compensable factors in a group of similar jobs and assigns weights, or points, to them.
d.
It is a simple system that places jobs in order, from highest to lowest, by their value to the organization.
It is time-consuming and difficult to use, which accounts for its limited popularity in organizations.
Which of the following is true of the factor-comparison method of job evaluation?
a.
In this method, descriptions of each group of jobs are written and then each job is put into a grade according to the group it best matches.
b.
It is time-consuming and difficult to use, which accounts for its limited popularity in organizations.
c.
It uses subjective judgments to develop the class descriptions and to place jobs accurately in them.
d.
It is a qualitative method that combines the classification and ranking methods.
It looks at compensable factors in a group of similar jobs and assigns weights to them.
Which of the following is true of the point factor method of job evaluation?
a.
In this method, descriptions of each class of jobs are written and then each job is put into a grade according to the class it best matches.
b.
It is a complex quantitative method that combines the ranking and classification methods.
c.
It looks at compensable factors in a group of similar jobs and assigns weights to them.
d.
It is a simple system that places jobs in order, from highest to lowest, by their value to the organization.
Market Pricing Method
The _____ uses external pay data to identify the relative value of jobs based on what other employers pay for similar jobs.
a.
factor-comparison method
b.
ranking method
c.
point factor method
d.
market pricing method
pay survey
A _____ is a report based on research of compensation rates for workers performing similar jobs in other organizations.
a.
pay survey
b.
pay analysis
c.
pay scale
d.
pay grade
jobs that are found in many other organizations
Benchmark jobs are _____.
a.
all blue-collar jobs that require high skill and application
b.
jobs that are found in many other organizations
c.
all white-collar jobs that require high skill and application
d.
jobs that are not commonly found in many other organizations
Pay grades
_____ are used to group individual jobs having approximately the same job worth.
a.
Pay scales
b.
Pay grades
c.
Pay compressions
d.
Pay expansions
Market Line
A _____ shows the relationship between job value as determined by job evaluation points and job value as determined by pay survey rates.
a.
market grade
b.
market band
c.
market line
d.
market scale
Market Banding
_____ groups jobs into pay grades based on similar market survey amounts.
a.
Market scaling
b.
Market pegging
c.
Market lining
d.
Market banding
They are paid above the range set for a job
Which of the following is true of red-circled employees?
a.
They are paid above the range set for a job.
b.
They are paid below the range set for a job.
c.
They are paid on par with the range set for the job.
d.
Their pay is not determined by the ranges set for a job.
They are paid below the range set for a job
Which of the following is true of green-circled employees?
a.
They are paid above the range set for a job.
b.
They are paid below the range set for a job.
c.
They are paid on par with the range set for the job.
d.
Their pay is not determined by the ranges set for a job.
It is frequently a result of labor market pay levels increasing faster than current employees’ pay adjustments.
Which of the following is true of pay compression?
a.
It is the process by which all employees’ pays decrease significantly in an economic downturn.
b.
It occurs when the employer groups employees with different pay grades together.
c.
It is frequently a result of labor market pay levels increasing faster than current employees’ pay adjustments.
d.
It occurs when pay differences among individuals with different levels of experience and performance become large.
It reflects an employee’s vertical movement in an organization.
Which of the following is true of a pay adjustment matrix?
a.
It reflects an employee’s horizontal movement in an organization.
b.
It is used to determine the compensation benchmark for a particular industry.
c.
It is used to determine the compensation benchmark for a particular organization.
d.
It reflects an employee’s vertical movement in an organization.
the employee’s performance as rated in an appraisal and the employee’s position in the pay range
The two factors that the pay adjustment matrix considers are _____.
a.
the employee’s performance as rated in an appraisal and the employee’s position in the pay range
b.
the employee’s total productivity and the employee’s position in the pay range
c.
the employee’s performance as rated in an appraisal and the total number of hours spent at work
d.
the employee’s total productivity and the total number of hours spent at work
pay level divided by the midpoint of the pay range
Compa-ratio = _____.
a.
total pay divided by the total number of employees
b.
pay level divided by the midpoint of the pay range
c.
total pay divided by the midpoint of the pay range
d.
pay level divided by the total number of employees
Union
A(n) _____ is a formal association of workers that promotes the interests of its members primarily through collective action.
a.
employment contract
b.
union
c.
trade fair
d.
cartel
They typically try to improve working conditions
Which of the following is true of unions in the United States?
a.
They typically try to improve working conditions.
b.
They typically avoid interfering with workplace rules.
c.
They typically try to decrease compensation.
d.
They typically avoid taking decisions through collective action.
dissatisfaction with how they are treated by their employers.
One of the primary reasons for the unionization of employees in the United States is the:
a.
dissatisfaction with how they are treated by their employers.
b.
lack of performance-linked bonuses in organizations.
c.
economic cycles that determine the profitability in an organization.
d.
promotion of unionization by the federal government.
Opportunity to provide feedback to employers
Which of the following is an advantage of union representation in organizations?
a.
High productivity due to increasing compensation
b.
Consistent increase in profitability of organizations
c.
Efficient allocation of organizational resources
d.
Opportunity to provide feedback to employers
Union workers frequently get compensated better in terms of pay than do nonunion workers.
Which of the following statements is true of the wages of employees in the United States?
a.
Union members always receive more benefits than nonunion employees.
b.
The wages paid to union and nonunion members differ in the private sector.
c.
Union wages equaled nonunion wages only after the global recession of 2009.
d.
Union workers frequently get compensated better in terms of pay than do nonunion workers.
Encouraging greater employee feedback and offering better compensation
In an organization, which of the following strategies can be employed to prevent unionization?
a.
Warning those employees who talk to union officials
b.
Providing incentives to dissuade employees from forming unions
c.
Encouraging greater employee feedback and offering better compensation
d.
Monitoring the interactions of employees with union representatives and acting accordingly
Operating Managers
_____ deal with unionized employees in organizations where human resource professionals have limited involvement with labor relations.
a.
Top managements
b.
Board of directors
c.
Operating managers
d.
Labor-law consulting firms
decreased over the years
Union membership, as a percentage of the U.S. civilian workforce, has:
a.
remained constant over the years.
b.
decreased over the years.
c.
mostly remained steady with slight increases during certain time periods.
d.
steadily decreased till the mid-90’s and then increased considerably.
perception by firms that dealing with unions is expensive
The long-term decline in the U.S. union membership has been attributed to the:
a.
shift in jobs from service industries to manufacturing industries.
b.
perception by firms that dealing with unions is expensive.
c.
increase in blue-collar jobs in manufacturing.
d.
increase in economic prosperity.
Unions have passed most of the important issues that affect workers into law and are no longer considered necessary.
Why are unions considered to be victims of their own successes?
a.
Unions have managed to earn several benefits for workers but this has resulted in
a general perception by firms that dealing with unions is expensive.
b.
Workers are strongly intimidated by union activities despite the efforts unions have put in for the benefit of workers.
c.
Unions have succeeded in passing several laws successfully for the welfare of workers, but mostly through illegal means.
d.
Unions have passed most of the important issues that affect workers into law and are no longer considered necessary.
U.S. firms with unionized workforces have moved low-skill jobs to Mexico, thus reducing union membership.
How has the North American Free Trade Agreement affected U.S. unions?
a.
Mexican organizations have increased wages so that U.S. firms no longer have a cost advantage while moving low-skill jobs to Mexico.
b.
Mexico has moved several manufacturing industries to the United States, thus providing employment opportunities to unionized workers.
c.
U.S. firms with unionized workforces have moved low-skill jobs to Mexico, thus reducing union membership.
d.
Low tariffs and restrictions have allowed U.S. firms to sell more products to Mexico, thus increasing employment for union members.
Government Sector
The most highly unionized part of the U.S. workforce is the:
a.
agricultural sector.
b.
manufacturing sector.
c.
government sector.
d.
mining sector.
Strikes by firefighters may endanger public health and safety.
In the United States, why do laws prohibit police officers and firefighters from conducting strikes?
a.
Strikes are unethical because police officers are equivalent to military officers.
b.
Strikes by firefighters may endanger public health and safety.
c.
Strikes are expensive and time-consuming to carry out.
d.
Strikes are contradictory to the governing philosophies of public service.
Unions are not in touch with the concerns of the more educated workers.
Which of the following is true of the view that white-collar workers have about unions?
a.
Most union members belong to minority groups.
b.
Unions prefer women in low-skill jobs as members.
c.
Union members frequently encounter unfair and inequitable treatment.
d.
Unions are not in touch with the concerns of the more educated workers.
Organizing low-paid individuals in service industries
The Change to Win association has attempted to counteract the overall decline in the U.S. union membership by:
a.
reducing membership dues and initiation fees.
b.
organizing workers in economically underdeveloped countries.
c.
boycotting states with “employer-friendly” laws.
d.
organizing low-paid individuals in service industries.
are relatively dissatisfied with their jobs.
Meatpacking workers, nursing home aides, building cleaners, and janitors are being targeted by unions for the purpose of union membership growth because these workers:
a.
are more politically radical than other workers.
b.
are relatively dissatisfied with their jobs.
c.
tend to be very hostile toward their employers.
d.
are uneducated and are susceptible to union arguments.
The loss of control of patient-care decisions due to managed care
Which of the following factors is responsible for a growth in the unionization of medical professionals?
a.
The shortage of qualified medical staff and the consequent overwork
b.
The loss of control of patient-care decisions due to managed care
c.
The declining income for medical workers over the last decade
d.
The eroding sense of professionalism among physicians and nurses
The Congress of Industrial Organizations
Which of the following U.S. unions founded in 1938 focused on semiskilled and unskilled workers?
a.
The American Federation of Labor
b.
The AFL-CIO
c.
The Congress of Industrial Organizations
d.
The Change to Win association
Craft Union
A(n) _____ is a union in which all members do the same type of work, often using specialized skills and training.
a.
craft union
b.
federation
c.
industrial union
d.
international union
The American Federation of State, County, and Municipal Employees
Which of the following is an example of an industrial union?
a.
The American Federation of State, County, and Municipal Employees
b.
The American Federation of Television and Radio Artists
c.
International Association of Bridge, Structural, Ornamental, and Reinforcing Iron Workers
d.
National Labor Relations
Industrial Union
The United Mine Workers of America (UMWA) is a union that consists of members holding various types of jobs in the American mining industry. The UMWA is an example of a(n) _____.
a.
craft union
b.
industrial union
c.
federation
d.
international union
Federations
Which of the following represents a group of autonomous national and international unions?
a.
Craft unions
b.
Industrial unions
c.
Congresses
d.
Federations
Union Steward
Gloria, an active member of a local union and an employee of Bargello Inc., is elected as the first-line representative of Bargello’s unionized workers. She discusses the grievances of the employees with their supervisors and represents employees at the workplace. Gloria plays the role of an elected _____.
a.
union leader
b.
union officer
c.
union steward
d.
business agent
Business Agent
Monica, an active member of a local union, runs the local headquarters and provides assistance to all union members. She helps employees negotiate contracts with their managements and actively works toward increasing the union’s strength. Monica plays the role of a(n) _____.
a.
business agent
b.
administrative consultant
c.
union steward
d.
lobbyist
Reduce the number of transportation strikes
The Railway Labor Act (RLA) of 1926 was the result of a joint effort between railroad management and unions to:
a.
regulate the wages and benefits of railroad workers.
b.
reduce the number of transportation strikes.
c.
break the monopoly of railroad “barons” who controlled the railway industry.
d.
allow the President to federalize railroads in the case of emergencies.
Railway Labor Act
In 1936 in the United States, airlines and their employees were added to those covered by the:
a.
Wagner Act.
b.
Taft-Hartley Act
c.
Airline Employment Act.
d.
Railway Labor Act.
Norris-Laguardia Act
In 1932, the U.S. Congress passed the _____ which guaranteed workers some rights to organize and restricted the issuance of court injunctions in labor disputes.
a.
Landrum-Griffin Act
b.
Railway Labor Act
c.
Norris-LaGuardia Act
d.
Wagner Act
The Wagner Act
Which of the following laws has been called the Magna Carta of labor and was pro-union?
a.
The Wagner Act
b.
The Landrum-Griffin Act
c.
The Railway Labor Act
d.
The Taft-Hartley Act
Wagner Act
The _____, which prohibited employers from using unfair labor practices, declared that the official policy of the U.S. government was to encourage collective bargaining.
a.
Railway Labor Act
b.
Landrum-Griffin Act
c.
Wagner Act
d.
Taft-Hartley Act
Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service
The contract between the management of a company and its union is due to expire in 30 days. If the management and the union fail to successfully negotiate a contract within 30 days due unsettled disputes, the Taft-Hartley Act requires them to notify the _____.
a.
National Labor Relations Board
b.
Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service
c.
American Federation of Labor-Congress of Industrial Organizations
d.
U.S. Secretary of Labor
The Taft-Hartley Act
Which of the following laws passed in 1947 is considered to be pro-management?
a.
The Norris-LaGuardia Act
b.
The Railway Labor Act
c.
The Taft-Hartley Act
d.
The Wagner Act
restrict compulsory union membership
Right-to-work laws:
a.
promote full-employment in unionized industries.
b.
restrict compulsory union membership.
c.
require that all union members have legal visas.
d.
prohibit unions’ organizing efforts during work hours.
Closed
Samuel applies for work with a local construction company that is located in a country that does not have right-to-work laws. He is told that he must join the employee union at the company so as to be hired. This employer has a(n) _____ shop.
a.
closed
b.
union
c.
agency
d.
open
employees to join the union, usually 30 to 60 days after being hired.
A union shop requires:
a.
job applicants to have a “union card” to be considered for employment.
b.
employees to join the union, usually 30 to 60 days after being hired.
c.
employees who refuse to join the union to pay a special fee for representative services from the union.
d.
a union to represent an entire group of employees at a company, including nonmembers of the union.
agency
A(n) _____ shop is an arrangement that makes workers who don’t join a union to make payments equal to union dues and fees to get union representation services.
a.
restricted
b.
union
c.
open
d.
agency
ensure that the federal government protects the democratic rights of union members.
The Landrum-Griffin Act was passed in 1959 to:
a.
give workers the right to engage in union activities at any time except work hours.
b.
reduce strikes by developing third-party arbitration and mediation tools.
c.
prohibit unfair labor practices by employers and union officials.
d.
ensure that the federal government protects the democratic rights of union members.
It established the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA).
Which of the following is a result of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978?
a.
Federal contractors cannot hire replacement workers during a strike.
b.
Pension funds of federal unions have been guaranteed by the government.
c.
Federal employees in all agencies are guaranteed the right to strike.
d.
It established the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA).
Salting
Colleen, an active union member, applies for a job at a company that her union has targeted so that she can start organizing efforts in favor of the union. She is also being paid by the union for her efforts. Which of the following practices is Colleen employing?
a.
Embedding
b.
Salting
c.
Corporate intelligence
d.
Subversion
at least 30 percent
Before a union election can be called, _____ of the employees in the targeted employee group must sign authorization cards of the union.
a.
a majority
b.
two-thirds
c.
more than 40 percent
d.
at least 30 percent
Supervisors cannot be included in bargaining units for unionization purposes, except in industries covered by the Railway Labor Act.
Which of the following is true in the context of a union representation election?
a.
The Railway Labor Act places certain restrictions on the activities of the unions and managements before an election.
b.
Supervisors cannot be included in bargaining units for unionization purposes, except in industries covered by the Railway Labor Act.
c.
A union should gain 50% of the votes to be named as the representative of all the employees.
d.
The larger is the number of employees in a bargaining unit, the higher is the likelihood that the union will win.
delisting
A union is removed as the representative of a group of employees by the process of:
a.
union busting.
b.
delisting.
c.
deunionization.
d.
decertification.
Collective Bargaining
The process whereby representatives of management and workers negotiate over wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment is called:
a.
joint decision-making.
b.
collective bargaining.
c.
contract arbitration.
d.
bipartite negotiation.
Collusion
Which of the following bargaining patterns is relatively rare in U.S. labor history and is illegal?
a.
Conflict
b.
Collusion
c.
Armed truce
d.
Power bargaining
No-layoff policy
Which of the following can be considered as a union security provision?
a.
Closed union shops
b.
Right-to-work laws
c.
No-solicitation policy
d.
No-layoff policy
The management needs to negotiate on this issue as it is a mandatory issue
During a contract negotiation, the negotiator for a union brings up the issue of changing the manner in which work is scheduled. Which of the following is true of this situation?
a.
The management need not negotiate on this issue because it is a permissive issue.
b.
The management needs to negotiate on this issue as it is a mandatory issue.
c.
This is a non-negotiable issue because scheduling is part of the management’s rights.
d.
This is an illegal issue and the management may refuse to negotiate.
Ratification
The process by which union members vote to accept the terms of a negotiated labor agreement is called:
a.
authorization.
b.
certification.
c.
acceptance.
d.
ratification.
Mediation
During a contract negotiation, the management of RMS, Inc. and its employee union fail to reach an agreement on an issue related to night shift pay scales. A neutral third party is called in to actively work with both sides and help them reach a settlement. This party suggests several ideas that could help in solving the issue. The process used by the third party in the given scenario is referred to as:
a.
arbitration.
b.
mediation.
c.
fact-finding.
d.
conciliation.
Arbitration
During a contract negotiation, the management of Wild Mist Inc. and its employee union fail to reach an agreement on an issue related to retirement benefits. A neutral third party is called in to come up with a solution, make the necessary decisions, and reach a settlement. The process used by the third party in the given scenario is referred to as:
a.
fact-finding.
b.
conciliation.
c.
arbitration.
d.
mediation.
Jurisdictional
_____ strikes exist when members of one union walk out to force the employer to assign work to them instead of to members of another union.
a.
Economic
b.
Jurisdictional
c.
Sympathy
d.
Wildcat
Lockout
After a series of failed negotiations with its union, Sinclair Processing Inc. shuts down its manufacturing unit in order to prevent union members from working. Sinclair Processing is using a _____ to put pressure on the union.
a.
pre-emptive strike
b.
counter strike
c.
vandalism
d.
lockout
Wildcat
The union contract between the union and the management of Gable Electronics Inc. includes a no-strike clause that is valid till the date of the contract’s expiry. When a supervisor threatens salary cut for those unionized employees who refuse to work on a few weekends, the employees conduct a strike. The employees are resorting to a(n) _____ strike.
a.
jurisdiction
b.
unfair labor practices
c.
wildcat
d.
economic
monitoring the trends in grievance rates.
The responsibilities of a human resources unit while handling grievances in a unionized company include:
a.
operating within provisions of the grievance procedure.
b.
documenting grievance cases for grievance procedures.
c.
engaging in grievance prevention efforts.
d.
monitoring the trends in grievance rates.
Discussing the grievance with her union steward and supervisor
Amanda is suspended by her manager for refusing to work on night shifts. She decides to file a grievance with the human resources unit in her company. Which of the following should be Amanda’s first step?
a.
Contacting the grievance division of the company’s national union
b.
Filing a written complaint with the national union of the company
c.
Discussing the grievance with her union steward and supervisor
d.
Applying for arbitration to settle the grievance
Grievance Arbitration
_____ is a means by which a third party settles disputes arising from different interpretations of a labor contract.
a.
Interest arbitration
b.
Grievance mediation
c.
Grievance arbitration
d.
Contract mediation
The highest percentage of union membership is in the Scandinavian countries.
Which of the following is true regarding international union membership?
a.
In Europe, workers use technology to reform the way work gets done in factories.
b.
Child labor is one of the major labor concerns in the Unites States.
c.
The highest percentage of union membership is in the Scandinavian countries.
d.
Codetermination is increasingly being practiced in developing countries.
Codetermination
The practice whereby union or worker representatives are given positions on a company’s board of directors is called:
a.
collusion.
b.
cooperation.
c.
codetermination.
d.
tripartite negotiation.
wages, benefits, job security, and working conditions
In the United States, unions have typically focused primarily on:
a.
avoiding changes that can replace workers with machines.
b.
increasing industrial democracy in workplaces.
c.
wages, benefits, job security, and working conditions.
d.
integration with ruling governmental and political power.