HB703 Final

Whistle-blowing is a protected right of employees
t
Few federal laws protect workers from being watched.
t
Employers can discipline employees for off-duty conduct; however, there must be a relationship between the employee’s behavior and its effect on the organization.
t
A supervisor in a romantic relationship with a subordinate becomes immediately vulnerable to a sexual harassment claim.
T
One of the goals of discipline is that is should it should be seen as training that molds and strengthens the desirable conduct – or corrects undesirable conduct – and develops self-control.
T
The correct sequence of progressive discipline is as follows: 1) written warning, 2) oral warning; 3) suspension and 4)discharge
F
The most significant cause of inadequate documentation is that managers often do not know what constitutes good documentation.
T
Back injuries are the nation’s number one workplace safety problem.
T
Under OSHA, it is the employer’s sold responsibility to comply with all applicable OSHA standards.
F
Because of the increased danger to their reproductive systems, it is legal to bar women from positions that have been shown to be of high risk.
F
Employees who work alone are at a lower risk of encountering workplace assaults.
F
Alcoholism is classified as a disability under ADA.
T
Stress is any demand on the individual that requires coping behavior.
T
Even the first serious violation of a workplace safety rule may be cause for termination.
T
The leading cause of worker fatalities each year is motor vehicle crashes.
T
At the present time. employers are required to provide pension plans to all full-time employees.
F
The Social Security Act was designed to protect workers against the loss of earnings resulting from old age and unemployment.
T
The Family and Medical Leave Act permits substitution of paid leave and vacation during leave.
T
Employees do not have to pay taxes on the amounts they are reimbursed under a health reimbursement account.
T
Some firms are penalizing employees for unhealthy habits by charging them higher health care premiums for habits such as smoking.
T
Research shows that workers who use their vacation time are productive and less prone to job-related burnout.
T
Employee assistance programs (EAPs) help employees mainly with relocation costs.
F
The performance “threshold” in incentive plans is the name given to the amount of the award.
F
For incentive plans to work effectively, employees must see a clear connection between the incentive
payments they receive and their performance.
T
Incentive plans based on productivity can reduce labor costs.
T
Organization goals can impact choices of incentive plans.
T
Generally, a bonus plan does NOT become part of the base pay.
T
Spot bonuses are usually provided for some employee effort that is not directly tied to an established performance standard.
T
Under a straight commission plan sales people may be allowed a salary draw.
T
The idea behind the Scanlon Plan is that employees should not only offer ideas to improve productivity, but should also be rewarded for those ideas.
t
Indirect compensation includes healthcare benefits and commissions
T
Companies are more heavily scrutinized than they have been historically by shareholders, government, and the public for how much they pay their people.
t
The expectancy theory of motivation predicts that one’s level of motivation depends on the attractiveness of the rewards sought by employees and the probability of obtaining those rewards.
T
Pay secrecy is still prevalent in organizations despite its negative effect on motivation and employee trust.
T
Under the fair labor standards act (FLSA), the majority of hourly workers involved in interstate commerce are considered nonexempt.
F
A critical concern for a successful pay-for-performance system is the perceived fairness of the pay decision
T
One of the major criticisms of job-based compensation systems is that they often fail to reward employees for their skills or the knowledge they possess.
T
Competence-based pay may more effectively reinforce an organizational culture of involvement and empowerment.
T
Most performance appraisals focus on long-term improvement, rather than short-term achievements.
F
In general, performance appraisal can be classified as either administrative or developmental.
T
Developmental approaches to performance appraisal recognize that manager’s purpose is to improve job behaviors, not just evaluate past performance.
T
Performance appraisal programs can be used for many purposes, including layoff decisions, retention and termination of employees.
T
Criterion deficiency occurs when performance standards focus on a single criterion to the exclusion of other important but less quantifiable performance dimensions.
T
Criterion contamination occurs when correlations between two raters of an employee are inconsistent.
F
According to a Supreme Court ruling, performance appraisals are subject to the same validity criteria as selection procedures.
T
Employees should be given a written copy of their job standards in advance of appraisals.
T
An appeals process is only necessary for administrative appraisals
F
In most instances, one person can easily observe and evaluate an employee’s performance.
F
Since praise is a powerful motivator, appraisers should alternate positive and negative statements during a performance appraisal interview.
F
The “horn error” is the opposite of the “halo effect”
T
It is recommended process that termination meetings should be held:
a. in the manager’s office
b. at the employee’s work station
c. in the parking lot or otherwise outside the employer’s premises
d. in a neutral location, such as a conference room,
d
Alternative Dispute Resolution procedures, such as arbitration:
a. may be required of an employee by an employer in a lieu of a lawsuit
b. are legal only with a collective bargaining agreement in a union environment
c. propose rather than impose a solution
d. are prohibited by the Civil Rights Act except with public employees
a
In a peer-review board, employee representatives are:
a. appointed by the union
b. appointed by management
c. elected by co-workers
d. selected by the copmlainant
c
An open-door policy:
a. is a requirement of the alternative dispute resolution process
b. is based on a pre-established set of steps for the review of an employee complaint to successively higher levels of management
c. identifies various levels of management above an employee’s immediate supervisor that an aggrieved employee may contact
d. by the HR Department is the best resolution to any employee complaint
C
The cornerstone and major benefit of mediation is:
a. that it is a formal process and therefore easily undertaken
b. that the parties involved maintain control over the settlement outcome.
c. that a mediator can quickly settle a dispute by declaring a resolution.
d. that the mediator is a representative of management.
b
Federal and state courts generally view the privacy rights of employees as:
a. minimal
b. nearly absolute
c. mostly contractual
d. increasingly dominant
a
The concern in a workplace romance is:
a. unrealistic expectations
b. jealousy on he part of a third party
c. employer liability
d. embarrassing publicity.
a
The ombudsman is an advocate for:
a. society
b. the underdog
c. the organization
d. a fair process
d
Discharge for refusing to violate a professional code of conduct falls under which exception to employment-at-will?
a. violation of public policy
b. implied contract
c. implied covenant
d. it does not fall under an exception
a
Employers defend their intrusion into employee privacy by noting:
a. their Constitutional right
b. their legitimate business interest
c. that they are required by law
d. OSHA regulations
b
It is estimated that ___of employees in the US work without benefit of an employment contract
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
d
Which of the following is NOT an example of how an implied contract may become binding?
a. Telling employees their jobs are secure as long as they perform satisfactorily and are loyal to the organization
b. Failing to create an employee handbook or conducting performance appraisals on a routine basis
c. Stating in the employee handbook that employees will not be terminated without the right of defense or access to an appeal procedure
d. Urging an employee to leave another organization by promising higher wages and benefits, then reneging on those promises after the person has been hired.
b
An advantage of impairment testing is:
a. it identifies employees who are impaired for reasons other than drug use
b. it overs on and off-duty behavior
c. it has a lower blood alcohol level standard than most states
d. it is conducted by a police officer, relieving the company of liability
a
Employers should use all of the following guidelines in developing a search policy except:
a. ensure that the search policy is widely communicated across the entire organization
b. enforce all search policies on an evenhanded basis.
c. try to gain the employee’s consent before starting the search
d. engage in searches publicly, so that employees understand that searches do take place.
d
These agreements prohibit ex-employees from soliciting clients or customers of former employers for a specific period of time and from disclosing or making use of confidential employer information.
a. Nondisclosure of information agreement
b. Intellectual property agreement
c. non-compete agreement
d. non-piracy agreement
d
___ is the most frequent EEO complaint.
a. wrongful discharge
b. discrimination
c. retaliation
d. harassment
c
Which management group has primary responsibility for the development of disciplinary policies and procedures?
a. the legal department
b. top-level management
c. the human resources department
d. middle management
c
A Gallup poll found that the average employee with Internet access spends more than ____ per day surfing websites that have noting to do with their jobs.
a. an hour
b. two hours
c. three hours
d. four hours
a.
Carmen, a new supervisor, wants to correctly document the poor performance of an employee. Which of the following would she not have to do?
a. perform a current performance appraisal of the employee
b. note the date, time. and location of the misconduct
c. record the consequences of the employee’s action on the work unit
d. list the negative behavior exhibited by the employee
a
The ____ prohibits educational institutions from supplying information about students without prior consent. Students have the right to inspect their educational records.
a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act
b. The Privacy Act
c. Federal Education Rights and Privacy Act
d. Fair Credit Reporting Act
c
The ___ prohibits the interception, recording, or disclosure of wire, electronic, and aural communications through any electronic, mechanical, or other device. An interception takes place when an employer monitors a telephone call while it is occurring. Permits employer monitoring for legitimate business reasons.
a.Electronic Communications Privacy Act
b. Privacy Act
c. Family Education Rights and Privacy Act
d/ Fair Credit Reporting Act
a
Joint discussion and problem-solving activities to overcome employee misconduct are central to:
a. progressive discipline programs
b. positive discipline programs
c. non-directive counseling programs
d. management-by-objectives programs
b
At the second step of a positive discipline system to correct undesirable employee conduct, managers will issue a _______ to employees to improve their unacceptable performance.
a. warning
b. reprimand
c. policy summary
d. written reminder
d
The ______ applies to federal agencies and to organizations supplying goods or services to the federal government; gives individuals the right to examine references regarding employment decisions; allows employees to review their personnel records for accuracy. Employers who willfully violate the act are subject to civil suits.
a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act
b. Fair Credit Reporting Act
c. Privacy Act
d. Federal Education Rights and Privacy Act
c
A Duke study found that morbidly obese workers file ____ workers’ compensation claims and take ___ to recover from injuries
a. less; the same amount of time
b. more; longer time
c. the same amount of; longer time
d. more; less time
b
Lack of personal fulfillment in a job may be a symptom of:
a. burnout
c. a fight-or-flight response
c. a workplace disability
d. eustress
a
When dealing with stress, receiving inadequate feedback on a performance and no recognition for a job well done is known as:
a/ high demand
b. high effort
c. low control
d. low reward
d
The ______ department is usually responsible for the safety program for most employers.
a. finance
b. sales
c. HR or industrial relations
d. engineering
c
Under OSHA, _____ are required to train employees as required by OSHA standards.
a. colleges and universities
b. employers
c. OSHA itself
d. consultants
b
Jobs least likely to cause cumulative trauma disorder would be:
a. outside salespersons
b. meat cutters
c. dental hygienists
d. prep cook
a
Injuries that result from workers using the same motions again and again are known as:
a. ambidextrous
b. muscular dysfunctions
c. cumulative trauma disorders
d. systematic trauma
c
In terms of workplace violence, which of the following should organizations avoid?
a. holding managers responsible for preventing acts of violence
b, analyzing the workplace to uncover areas of potential violence
c. refraining from hiring persons with arrest records
d. providing violence prevention training
c
Most employers should recognize that alcoholism is:
a. disease that follows a rather predictable course
b. personal problem
c. disciplinary problem that may result in penalties to the worker
d. predominantly blue-collar problem
a
If a supervisor suspects that a subordinate has a severe drinking problem, the action to be avoided is:
a. carefully documenting evidence of declining performance
b. confronting the employee with proof that his or her performance is deficient.
c. confronting the employee with his or her alcoholism during the first meeting and threatening dismissal if the employee does not seek help
d. assuring the employee that help is available without any penalty
c
Stress becomes ____ when we begin to sense a loss of our feelings of security and adequacy.
a. distress
b. functional stress
c. eustress
d. fight-or-flight stress
a
A recent study by Liberty Mutual found that employers saved ___ dollars for each dollar invested in workplace safety
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
b
According to a National Highway Traffic Safety Administration study, people who send text messages while driving are _____ times more likely to crash than other drivers
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
b
Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, the U.S. Department of Labor may do any of the following except:
a/ conduct workplace inspections
b. close plants that are extremely dangerous
c. issue citations to offending employers
d. impose fines of up to $7000 for an other-than-serious violation
b
OSHA may adjust penalties for violations for all of the following circumstances except:
a. employer’s good faith
b. employer’s ability to pay
c. employer’s history of previous violations
d. size of employer’s business
b
Voluntary protection programs (VPPs):
a. attempt to get employers to go beyond the the basics of OSHA law and provide workers with better protection on the job
b. allow employers to sidestep OSHA legislation
c. are contained within state-based, right-to-known legislation
d. cover only transportation-related industries
a
Material Safety Data Sheets:
a. replace the Hazard Communication Standard under federal employee safety law
b. are safety data collection instruments that were ruled illegal by the U.S. Supreme Counts
c. are a primary method of informing employees about health risks and handling instructions associated with chemicals and potentially hazardous substances
d. are aimed predominantly at transportation workers such as truck drivers.
c
An OSHA investigation of valid employee complaints of alleged violations of standards or of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions is a ___ priority.
a. 1st level
b. 2nd level
c. 3rd level
d. 4th level
c
Penalties for violation of safety rules by employees are usually stated in the:
a. employee handbook
b. appointment letter of the employees
c. Federal Register
d. OSHA
d
Which of the following would not be considered a “recoverable case under OSHA law?
a. an employee killed on the job
b. a coal miner’s “black lung” disease
c. an employee’s broken leg suffered in a fall on a slippery spot on the plant floor
d. an employee’s finger cut at home
d
To obtain employee input regarding benefits packages, employers often use:
a. performance appraisals
b. psychological tests
c. union reports
d. opinion surveys
d
Flexible benefit plans:
a. are offered to employees who then must purchase each benefit they select
b. are favored by employers because they reduce administration costs
c. result in wasted benefits because of the number of different types available to employees
d. allow employees to choose benefits suited to their needs
d
The social security insurance program is funded by:
a. employer contributions
b. employee contributions
c. employee contributions with matching employer contributions
d. employee contributions and general tax funds
c
Tax revenues derived from Social Security pay for each of the following benefits, EXCEPT:
a. Disability benefits
b. Unemployment
c. Retirement
d. Survivors’ benefits
b
The amount of survivors’ insurance benefits paid by Social Security:
a. is based on the cause of death
b. is based on a formula that takes into consideration the number of remaining years the deceased worker had to work until retirement
c. is fixed by law and adjusted only by the cost-of-living
d. is based on worker’s lifetime earnings covered by Social Security
d
A typical unemployment insurance program does not require that:
a. all eligible individuals must register for available work.
b. all eligible individuals must submit an application for benefits.
c. recipients must be willing to accept any job that is offered to them.
d. recipients must be willing to accept any suitable job that is offered to them.
c
Unemployment compensation payments to individual vary according to:
a. the type of job held before layoff.
b. their previous wage rate and length of previous employment
c. job type and length of previous employment
d. their previous wage rate and the type of job held before layoff
b
To qualify for old-age benefits, a person must reach retirement age and have earned:
a. 20 credits
b. 40 credits
c. 60 credits
d. 80 credits
b
Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, if an employee is returned to an equivalent job, rather than their original job, it must have:
a. identical pay, benefits, and terms of employment
b. identical pay and promotional opportunity
c. identical pay and benefits
d. identical pay, benefits, terms of employment, and promotional opportunity
a
Despite its high unemployment rate, in 2011, _____ became the first state to cut the number of weeks to twenty because tits unemployment fund was so far in the end.
a. Pennsylvania
b. Michigan
c. South Dakota
d. California
b
Organizations of physicians and other health care professionals that provide a wide range of services to subscribers on a prepaid basis are known as:
a. preferred provider organizations (PPOs)
b. major medical plans
c. health maintenance organizations (HMOs)
d. integrated medical practices
c
Groups of physicians that contract with an employer to provide medical resources on a more cost-efficient basis in exchange for a greater share of patients are known as:
a. preferred provider organizations (PPOs)
b. major medical plans
c. health maintenance organizations (HMOs)
d. integrated medical practices
a
Beginning of 2014, firms that employ ___ or more people who work thirty or more hours per week but do not offer them health insurance will have to pay a penalty to the government.
a. 12
b. 20
c. 25
d. 50
d
Disease management programs:
a. are comprehensive insurance benefits that serve as supplemental health insurance
b. assist employees by providing information on monitoring and treating health conditions
c. are work-site fitness programs
d. are a major portion of worker’s compensation insurance
b
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act:
a. requires employers to offer a health maintenance organizations (HMO) as a health care option
b. grants employees the right to switch medical insurance between former and present employers
c. guarantees employees the right to employer-provided health benefits
d. is limited by pre-existing health conditions
b
Federal government employees can usually be expected to be paid for ___holidays a year
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
b
A ___is a plan in which employees fund accounts by having money deducted from their paychecks:
a. consumer-driven plan
b. healthcare spending plan
c. health reimbursement account
d. flexible spending account
d
A pension plan where contributions are made solely by the employer is referred to as a :
a. contributory plan
b. noncontributory plan
c. defined-benefit plan
d. defined-contribution plan
b
A pension plan where the amount that an employee is to receive upon retirement is set forth in advance is referred to as a:
a. contributory plan
b. noncontributory plan
c. defined-benefit plan
d. defined-contribution plan
c
Vesting guarantees:
a. withdrawal of benefits at any time
b. automatic funding of pension plans
c. accrued pension benefits at retirement age
d. selection of pension options
c
Employer-sponsored child care programs and elder care programs are similar in that:
a. under both programs, most of the caregivers are men
b. both types of programs typically offer on-site care facilities
c. both programs try to maintain or increase productivity by assisting employees with their responsibilities outside the workplace
d. both programs offer substantial income tax benefits to employees
c
Workers’ compensation insurance may be provided through private or _________ insurance.
a. state funded
b. employee prepaid
c. federally funded
d. SNL funded
a
Employers pay for workers’ compensation insurance in _____ states.
a. all
b. a majority of
c. large
d. heavily industrialized
a
Contemporary reasons given by organizations for implementing incentive plans are:
a. to improve or maintain high levels of productivity
b. to focus employee efforts on specific performance targets
c. to link compensation rewards to the achievement of results
d. all of the above
d
When setting performance measures for incentive systems, we can say that the best measures are:
a. quantitative, simple to understand, and show a clear relationship to improved performance
b. quantitative, flexible, and create competition between employees.
c. those that allow employers to “ratchet up” standards and base rewards on qualitative standards
d. those that reduce administrative costs, determine rewards based only on quantity, and reward only exceptional employees.
a
When employees receive a certain rate for each unit produced, they are working under which incentive plan?
a. differential piece rate
b. standard piece rate
c. straight piecework
d. individual rate pay
c
When employees receive a higher rate of pay for all of their work if production exceeds a standard level of output, they are working under which incentive plan?
a. differential piece rate
b. standard piece rate
c. straight piecework
d. individual rate pay
a
Research show that a merit increase in the range of ___ is necessary to serve as a pay motivator.
a. 3 to 5 percent
b. 7 to 9 percent
c. 11 to 13 percent
d. 15 to 17 percent
b
If employees’ pay is based not on the actual amount of time it takes them to complete a job but instead on a predetermined amount of time for completing the job, which incentive plan are they working under?
a. piece-rate plan
b. standard hour plan
c. time division plan
d. completion pay system
b
An appropriate reward for a consumer service representative who worked long hours to fill a new customer’s large order is:
a. a piece rate
b. a differential piece rate
c. merit pay
d. a spot bonus
d
The straight commission plan is limited by all of the following disadvantages, EXCEPT:
a. Salespeople will stress low-priced products
b. Customer service after the ale is likely to be neglected
c. Earnings tend to fluctuate widely between good and poor periods of business, and turnover of trained sales employees tends to increase in poor periods
d. Salespeople are tempted to grant price concessions
a
In most profit-sharing plans, about ____of the net profit is shared.
a. 5 to 10 percent
b. 10 to 15 percent
c. 15 to 20 percent
d. 20 to 25 percent
d
Management should guard against incentive payments being seen as____.
a. too competitive
b. equitable
c. permanent
d. an entitlement
d
Special benefits given to executives employees, such as assigned chauffeurs, country club memberships, and special vacation policies, are known as:
a. executive rewards
b. perquisites
c. golden parachutes
d. assigned benefits
b
Group incentive plans do all of the following except:
a. enable employees to share the benefits of improved efficiency
b. encourage cooperation
c. reduce free-ride effect
d. reward for total contribution to organizational perfomance
c
A problem with creating team incentive plans is:
a. they encourage cooperative rather than individualistic behavior
b. not all teams are alike
c. they enable employees to share efficiency gains
d. they pay only when agreed-upon standards are met or exceeded
b
The gainsharing plan that has as its most significant feature effective employee participation through committee representation is:
a. profit sharing
b. the Rucker Plan
c. the Scanlon Plan
d. Improshare
c
The philosophy behind the Scanlon Plan is that:
a. employees should make suggestions to improve performance and be rewarded for their contributions
b. organizational profits should improve through sale efforts
c. managers and employees should establish quality and quantity goals for optimum organizational performance.
d. rewards are shared with employees based on improved profits
a
Profit sharing refers to any procedure by which an employer pays employees:
a. an incentive based on their merit
b. an incentive based on labor cost savings
c. a bonus based on the overall productivity of their particular work group
d. current or deferred sums based on the organization’s financial performance
d
Noncash incentive rewards are most effective as motivators when the award:
a. is a complete surprise to the recipient
b. is combined with a meaningful employee recognition program
c. grows every year it is given
d. is tailored to individual employees
b
Performance of sales people can be affected by all of the following external factors expect:
a. the sales territory
b. changes in demand
c. change in the sales volume standard
d. seasonal fluctuations
c
A sales incentive plan that permits salespeople to be paid for performing various duties not reflected immediately in their sales volume is known as:
a. a merit plan
b. a straight salary plan
c. lump-sum merit pay
d. a standard hour plan
b
Common output measures for productivity include:
a. sales
b. materials
c. labor
d. total costs
a
Advantages of ESOPs include all of the following except:
a. employers are able to provide retirement benefits to employees at a relatively low cost
b. the employees’ pensions are less vulnerable due to diversification
c. ESOPs can increase employees’ pride of ownership
d. ESOPs can provide an incentive for employees to increase productivity
b
The most widely used sales incentive program is the ______plan.
a. straight salary
b. straight commission
c. combined salary and commission
d. commission plus bonus
c
Elements of the compensation package are said to have ____when an employee’s high performance leads to monetary rewards that are valued.
a. validity
b. reliability
c. instrumentality
d. exceptionality
c
Elements of the job such as skills, effort, responsibilities, and working conditions are referred to as:
a. job specification factors
b. job classification factors
c. compensable factors
d. factor comparisons
c
The predominant approach to employee compensation is:
a. pay-for-performance
b. competence-based pay
c. job-based pay
d. individual contract
c
Another basis for compensation centers on whether employees are classified as nonexempt or exempt under the _____.
a. Equal Pay Act
b. Fair Labor Standards Act
c. Taft-Hartley Act
d. Employment Classification Act
b
Which of the following is NOT an internal factor affecting the pay mix?
a. worth of job
b. cost of living
c. employer’s ability to pay
d. employee’s relative worth
b
The biggest challenge with competence-based pay is:
a. encouraging employees to take advantage of it
b. reduction in organization flexibility
c. loss of productivity
d. developing appropriate measures of skills and competencies
d
The major provisions of which act are concerned with minimum wage rates and overtime payments, child labor, and equal rights?
a. Equal Pay Act
b. Davis-Bacon Act
c. Fair Labor Standards Act
d. Walsh-Healy Act
c
The Fair Labor Standards Act prohibits the employment of those between the age of ___ in hazardous occupations such as mining, logging, and meatpacking.
a. 14-21
b. 16-18
c. 16-21
d. less than 21
b
The Equal Pay Act prohibits wage discrimination based on:
a. seniority
b. gender
c. merit
d. individual incentive
b
___________may create problems for managers who wish to maintain pay secrecy among employees.
a. NASDAQ information
b. Internet salary survey date
c. FLSA requirements
d. Davis-Bacon standards
b
When cost of living pay increases are given routinely, employees may view them as _______.
a. insults
b. entitlements
c. highly motivating
d. long overdue
b
Pay-for-performance programs:
a. tie rewards to firm profitability
b. are easy to implement and measure
c. tie rewards to employee effort
d. result in negligible increases in output
c
When the organization pays wages that are relatively equal to that of other employers for similar work, this is the basis of:
a. comparable worth
b. external equity
c. compensable factors
d. equal pay
b
There is reason to believe that pay secrecy can do all of the following except:
a. generate distrust in the compensation system
b. reduce employee motivation
c. inhibit organizational effectiveness
d. generate feelings of commitment
d
Employees covered by the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act are labeled:
a. protected workers
b. nonexempt employees
c. salaried workers
d. exempt employees
b
Under the Fair Labor Standards Act, exempt employees:
a. are required to be paid at 1-1/2 times their regular pay rate for hours worked in excess of 40 hours in a week
b. must be paid 1-1/2 times their regular hourly wage for time worked in excess of eight hours in a day
c. are those employees not covered by the overtime provisions of the Act
d. include most hourly personnel employed in interstate commerce
c
Equity theory is also know as:
a. procedural justice
b. distributive justice
c. administrative justice
d. moral justice
b
The measure of the average change in prices over time in a fixed “market basket” of goods and services is known as:
a. a cost of living allowance
b. a cost of living adjustment
c. the consumer price index
d. the inflation index
c
Clauses found in labor agreements that periodically adjust compensation rates upward to help employees maintain their purchasing power are known as:
a. maintenance clauses
b. escalator clauses
c. roll-up clauses
d. guarantee clasuses
b
With respect to Pay Equity Theory, which of the following is NOT considered an input:
a. salary
b. ability
c. skill
d. experience
a
Managers often first assume poor performance of subordinates is due to:
a. inadequate training
b. lack of ability
c. external constraints
b
Research suggests that when it comes to our own performance, most of us first attribute our bad performance to:
a. inadequate training
b. poor motivation
c. external constraints
d. lack of ability
c
Employees who earn performance-based pay are more _____.
a. mobile
b. satisfied
c. educated
d. cynical
b
Reasons for not using peer appraisals more frequently all the following except:
a. retaliation by those receiving low ratings
b. they are simply a popularity contest
c. adverse court decisions
d. peers rely on stereotypes
c
If your primary objective for a performance appraisal is to give employees development feedback, which of the following appraisal methods should you use?
a. trait
b. results
c. behavioral
d. attitudinal
c
If an appraisal focus on a narrow set of results criteria to the exclusion of other important process issues, the system may suffer from:
a. criterion deficiency
b. rater bias
c. lack of reliability
d. criterion contamination
c
Requirements for successful MBO programs include all of the following except:
a. the results must be under the control of the employee
b. a specific time must be set when goals are to be reviewed and evaluated
c. goal statements must be accompanied by descriptions of how they will be accomplished
d. both trait and critical incident objectives must be set
d
The choice of an appraisal method should be largely based on:
a. the preferred technique of the personnel department
b. the purpose of the appraisal
c.the reaction of employees
d. what skills the developer of the system possesses
b
Which on of the following has not been cited as a reason for failure of performance management systems?
a. They are too complex
b. They are too simple
c. They are too time-consuming
d. They are too burdensome
b
The appraisal interview should be divided into two sessions, one each for:
a. positive comment and negative comments
b. performance review and developmental planning
c. performance review and compensation discussion
d. establishing performance standards and reviewing performans
b
Tips for using criticism constructively includes all of the following except:
a. consider whether it is really necessary
b. don’t exaggerate
c. watch your timing
d. use the “sandwich technique”
d
It is recommended that a diagnosis of poor employee performance focus on all of the following except:
a. skill
b. personality
c. effort
d. external conditions
b
If a manager rates an employee higher than he or she deserves in order to look good as a manager in the eyes of his or her own superiors, this is an example of:
a. criterion deficiency
b. organizational politics
c. criterion contamination
d. administrative appraisal purpose
b
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of the trait method of appraisals?
a. Are inexpensive to develop
b. Use meaningful dimensions
c. High potential for rating errors
d. Are easy to use
c
The strategic relevance of performance appraisals refer to:
a. the extent to which standards relate to the overall objectives of the organizations
b. the extent to which standards capture the entire range of an employee’s responsibilities
c. the extent to which individuals tend to maintain a certain level of performance over time
d. the extent to which factors outside the employee’s control can influence performance
a
If a performance standard is found to be stable or consistent over time, it is said to be:
a. free from contamination
b. relevant
c. reliable
d. valid
c
The courts have found that:
a. vague performance standards can be acceptable when clearly written
b. organizations should have carefully defined and measurable performance standards
c. while performance standards should be somewhat specific, there should be room for individual interpretation
d. descriptions of traits such as attitude and cooperation are acceptable performance standards
b
In most instances, who is in the best position to perform the function of appraising an employee’s performance?
a. someone from the HR department
b. the employee’s supervisor
c. the employee
d. co-workers
b
One advantage of peer appraisals is that:
a. peers are less politically motivated than supervisors
b. peers may furnish more accurate and valid information than supervisors
c. peers may work harder to help other employees improve performance
d. peers are often partially responsible for the performance of other co-workers
b
A performance-rating error in which the appraiser is reluctant to give employees either unusually high or unusually low ratings is referred to as a:
a. recency error
b. error of central tendency
c. leniency or strictness error
d. halo error
b
A performance-rating error in which the appraiser tends to give employees either unusually high or unusually low ratings is referred to as a:
a. recency error
b. error of central tendency
c. leniency or strictness error
d. halo error
c
If you rate an employee’s performance based largely on the employee’s recent behavior, you are committing a:
a. leniency error
b. contrast error
c. recency error
d. central tendency error
c
If you rate an average employee’s performance high because you compared the employee to poor performers, you are committing a:
a. leniency error
b. contrast error
c. recency error
d. central tendency error
b
If you inflate the evaluation of people with whom you have something in common, you are committing a:
a. leniency error
b. similar-to-me error
c. recency error
d. central tendency error
b
Disadvantages of the essay method include all of the following except:
a. it is very time-consuming
b. it must follow a job-specific format
c. the quality of the appraisal could be influenced by the supervisor’s writing skills
d. it is highly subjective and could be biased
b
A U.S. survey found that ____of employees say they work in a place where discussion of pay are “formally prohibited and/or employees caught discussing wages could be punished.”
a. 19 percent
b. 38 percent
c. 57 percent
d. 76 percent
a
The salaries for the executive staff at Bright Horizons are
a. above market rates for comparable positions
b. at market rates for comparable positions
c. below market rates for comparable positions
c
The success of the Lincoln Electric Company profit-sharing plan rests largely on:
a. contributions by employees
b. comparison data between departments
c. economics of the review period
a
Results appraisal give employees more responsibility for outcomes and discretion over how to accomplish them
t
Freedom from criterion deficiency of performance appraisals refers to the extent to which:
a. standards relate to the overall objectives of the organization
b. standards capture the entire range of an employee’s responsibilities
c. individuals tend to maintain a certain level of performance over time
d. factors outside the employee’s control can influence performance
b
In light of recent court ruling, HR managers suggest that performance appraisals should meet all of the following legal guidelines except:
a. performance appraisals must be job-related
b. employees must be given a written copy of their job standards in advance of the appraisal
c. performance appraisal should rarely be tied to compensation decisions
d. supervisors should be trained to use the appraisal form correctly
c
Self-appraisals are best for:
a. administrative purposes
b. developmental purposes
c. promotional purposes
d. regulatory purposes
b
Appraisal training for raters should focus on:
a. establishing performance standards
b. eliminating subjective errors
c. the purpose of the appraisal
d. observing employee behaviors
b
The system approach to training involves: (1) needs assessment, (2) program design, (3) implementation, and (4) evaluation.
t
Competency assessments have been adopted extensively in the health care industry.
t
The two preconditions for leaning are employee readiness and motivation.
t
An orientation program for new employees is a quite informal process
f
Person analysis:
a. has shifted from a fixed sequence of tasks to a set of competencies
b. helps organizations avoid the mistake of putting all employees through training when some do not need it
c. involves self-improvement and self-directed training
d. examines the external labor market for needed skills
b
Programmed instructions is also referred to as:
a. mentoring
b. self-directed learning
c. simulation
d. observational learning
b
The objective of behavior modification is:
a. to gradually shape behavior toward a desired profile
b. to reward all task behavior
c. to apply principles learned in the classroom to the job
d. to bridge the needs of the employees with the needs of the organization
a
If you were responsible for developing a training program, your first step should be to:
a. create a suitable training environment
b. select the proper training method
c. determine the knowledge in the group
d. performing a needs assessment
d
Which of the following is NOT an issue related to the design of a training program?
a. instructional objectives
b. trainee readiness and motivation
c. principles of learning
d. trainee ethnic characteristics
d
Common methods of analyzing jobs include interviews, questionnaires, observation, and diaries.
t
Adding more meaningful tasks to an employee’s job in an effort to make it more rewarding is an example of job enrichment.
t
In the job characteristics model, task identity refers to the degree to which the job has substantial impact on the work of others.
f
The American with Disabilities Act requires that job duties and responsibilities:
a. be essential job function for job success
b. be adjusted to describe the reasonable accommodations that the employer is willing to provide
c. be limited to not more than twenty individual job tasks
d. be written by job incumbents most familiar with the job
a
The O*NET database:
a. includes descriptions of jobs and collects and published data on a continuous basis
b. is the on-line publication of each yearly Dictionary of Occupational Titles
c. is available only on a subscription basis
d. reduces the Dictionary of Occupational Titles to less than 500 job descriptions
s
The factors Herzberg describes as key to enriching jobs are:
a. pay, promotion, pension, purpose, and perks
b. achievement, recognition, growth, responsibility, and performance of the whole job.
c. safety needs, social needs, self-esteem needs, and self-actualization
d. skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback
b
According to the job characteristics model, what three psychological states of a jobholder result in motivated, satisfied and productive employees?
a. meaningfulness of the work, task significance, and autonomy
b. meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for completion of a whole identifiable piece of work, and knowledge of work results
c. meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of work results
d. meaningfulness of the work, responsibility for outcomes, and fair compensation.
c
To achieve empowerment, organizations must encourage participation, innovation, access to information, and __________.
a. accountability
b. feedback
c. responsibility
d. training
a
Employers favor job sharing since it serves to:
a. reduce labor costs
b. reduce turnover
c. reduce training costs
d. reduce employee appraisals
b
A statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job is a:
a. job requirement
b. job specification
c. job position
d. job objective
b
Early nondiscrimination laws failed to give enforcement power to the agencies charged with upholding them.
t
The ADAAA narrowed the scope of the ADA
f
A factor that appears to have influenced the growth of EEO legislation is:
a. the changing attitudes of society at large
b. the postwar baby boom
c. shortage of qualified labor
d. an influx of illegal immigrants
a
According to the Uniform Guidelines, a rule of thumb that identifies selection practices that favor disproportionate number of nonprotected class members is know as the:
a. two-thirds rule
b. acid-test rule
c. ratio rule
d. four-fifths rule
d
The vision is the basic purpose of the organization.
f
Trend analysis, as described in our text, relies on a single business factor.
t
Succession planning is the process of identifying, developing, and tracking key individuals so that they may eventually assume top-level positions.
t
Shared value act as a guiding parameter for strategic palnning
t
Calculating separation costs and training investment factors are components measures of human capital
t
Which of the following is NOT an element of organizational growth?
a. Increased employee productivity
b. A greater number of employees
c. Employees developing or acquiring new skills
d. An increase in profitability
d
The first step in strategic planning is:
analyze the competition
b. interview potential employees
c. review failed plans from the past
d. establish a mission, vision, and values for the organization
d
Cross-training, job rotations, and the like results in ___within the organization.
a. corporate rigidity
b. predicted focus
c. organizational capability
d. resource flexibility
d
Trend analysis includes all of the following steps except:
a. selecting a business factor
b. soliciting expert opinions
c. computing a productivity ratio
d. plotting historical trends
b
The Delphi technique:
a. attempts to decrease subjectivity of forecasts
b. is a quantitative methods
c. uses sophisticated statistical tools for forecasting
d. is a method of reducing hiring costs
a
Talent inventories can be used to develop___, which list current jobholders and identify possible replacements.
a. staffing tables
b. replacement charts
c. trend models
d. Markov analysis
b
Today about ____% of women in the U.S. 16 years of age and older participate in the work force.
a. 40
b. 80
c. 30
d. 60
d
Approximately ___ of the U.S. economy today is affected by international competition, including small companies.
a. 25-40 percent
b. 50-65 percent
c. 70-85 percent
d. 90-100 percent
c
___ is closely related to corporate social responsibility.
a. downsizing
b. furloughing
c. sustainability
d. offshoring
c
Human capital is owned by the organization and is part of the company’s core competencies.
f