EHS 240 Final: HW ?’s

Which of the following tools has been found to be effective for the removal of a facemask?
Anvil pruner
When one is controlling external bleeding, what is the sequence of events?
Apply direct pressure over the wound and elevate the body part
If a light-colored athlete presented with red skin color, what is the likeable condition?
Heatstroke, high blood pressure, or elevated temperature
Which of the following is the most important in controlling swelling?
Compression
In an effort to accurately assess the extent of a musculoskeletal injury, what is the first step that should be taken?
History
If an unconscious athlete had a feeble and irregular pulse, had breathing that was shallow and irregular, and was pale and cold with equal pupils, what would the athlete be experiencing?
Shock
In transporting an athlete by stretcher, how many people will be needed to adequately support the athlete?
4
After an injury, acute management should be done for how many hours?
72
What is the normal pulse and respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
60-80 beats/min, 12 breaths/min
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious athlete?
The tongue
All of the following are signs and symptoms of HCV except for which condition?
Left quadrant pain
What does the USOC recommend to protect athletes from disease transmission?
The athlete shower immediately after practice
Which of the following wounds results from the skin being torn from the body?
Avulsion
Which of the following solution mixes would be the best to clean treatment tables in the athletic training room?
A 1:10 solution of bleach and water
What is the first step you should take when caring for all minor skin wounds?
Apply gloves prior to touching the wound
Which type of wound is tetanus associated with?
Puncture
In order to reduce the risk of HIV infection, what is an important measure to practice?
Avoid drugs that impair judgment
What type of dressing is most beneficial in keeping a wound moist and providing a barrier against disease transmission?
Occlusive dressing
If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action that should be taken for the athlete to continue participation?
The uniform should be changed immediately
If an athlete is exposed to a bloodborne pathogen, which of the following should NOT occur?
Notification of the coach
Which of the following is the key to treating tendonitis?
Resting the injured area by eliminating the irritating activity
What is the main shaft of the bone known as?
Diaphysis
What type of fracture is characterized by an incomplete break in a bone that has not completely ossified?
Greenstick Fracture
Which of the following conditions occurs 12 hours after injury and is most intense after 24 to 48 hours?
DOMS
Which of the following fractures is caused by axial compression, bending, and torsion?
Oblique fracture
Which of the following complications is a result of repeated blows to the same area?
Myositis ossificans
Which of the following fractures is characterized by a bone fragment that has been pulled away from the bone?
Avulsion fracture
How long does treatment of a hamstring strain commonly take?
6-8 weeks
Which of the following mechanisms causes a transverse fracture?
Bending
What degree classification of a ligament sprain involves total tearing of tissue?
Third Degree
A heel bruise may develop into what condition?
Chronic inflammation of the periosteum
A fallen medial longitudinal arch is associated with what condition?
Pes planus
A common foot condition with a sudden onset of pain in the arch region that is relieved by becoming non weight-bearing and presents with extreme point tenderness at the plantar surface of the calcaneus may be indicative of what condition?
Plantar fascia strain
What is a condition in which nerves are entrapped between the metatarsal heads producing swelling with distal, radiating pain?
Morton’s Neuroma
What muscle passes behind the medial malleolus?
Tibialis posterior
What is a general term to describe pain in the ball of the foot?
Metatarsalgia
Which of the following is NOT an arch of the foot?
Tarsal arch
What muscles produce supination?
Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus
What is the main supporting ligament of the medial longitudinal arch?
Plantar calcaneonavicular
What can be caused from activity on hard surfaces or prolonged stress on the balls of the feet?
Fallen longitudinal arch
What symptom is associated with stress fractures?
Complaints of pain that increases after activity
What is the most common mechanism of injury to the ankle complex?
Plantarflexion/inversion
Neuromuscular control of the ankle specifically uses which type of exercise to assist in preventing ankle injuries?
Balance
What motions occur at the subtalar joint?
Inversion and eversion
Third degree inversion ankle sprains are often associated with what trauma?
Total rupture of lateral ligaments
If an athlete steps in a hole and the ankle is forced into dorsiflexion, which ligament is usually involved?
Anterior tibiofibular
Which of the following causes for shin splints is incorrect?
Tibial weakness
Which of the following would be considered a low-level functional test that can be performed by an athlete after an ankle injury?
Walk on lateral borders of feet
What is the condition when tissue fluid pressure has increased because of the confines of the fascia and/or bone resulting in compression of the muscles, nerves, and blood vessels?
Compartment Syndrome
The lateral compartment of the leg contains which muscles?
Peroneus brevis, peroneus longus
Which of the following endpoints indicates a first-degree sprain to a ligament?
Firm with little or no instability and some pain present
Which of the following muscles allows for internal rotation of the tibia?
Popliteus
Which of the following is the bursa that commonly becomes inflamed from overuse of the patellar tendon?
Deep infrapatellar bursa
The Lachman’s Test is used to evaluate stability of which of the following?
Anterior cruciate ligament
The anterior cruciate ligament is most often injured during what phase?
During deceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia internally rotated
Which of the following ligaments protect the knee from valgus stress and external tibial rotational forces?
Medial collateral
Running, cutting, and figure-8’s, are examples of what type of testing?
Functional
Which of the following is a condition common to runners and cyclists characterized by pain and irritation over the lateral femoral condyle?
Iliotibial band syndrome
A painful condition involving partial or complete separation of a piece of articular cartilage or subchondral bone is which of the following?
Osteochondritis dissecans
The mechanism of injury that leaves the posterior cruciate ligament at greatest risk for injury is which of the following?
Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantar flexed
A quadriceps contusion must be identified and treated early to prevent what condition(s)?
Scarring of the soft tissues
Profuse hemorrhaging
Myositis ossificans
All of the above<-----
An avascular necrosis of the femoral head seen in children 3 to 12 years of age is called what?
Legg-Perthes disease
Which of the following is usually an unassociated sign of a fractured femur?
Internally rotated thigh
What is a condition found mostly in boys between the ages of 10 and 17 that produces motion restrictions at the hip and also produces knee pain?
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Repeated stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the area causes what condition?
Osteitis pubis
Improper care of a thigh contusion leading to incomplete absorption of the hematoma and producing a formation similar to cartilage or bone, what is this called?
Myositis ossificans traumatica
In managing an initial hamstring strain, which of the following should be avoided?
Stretching using ballistic movements
An injury that results from a blow to an inadequately protected iliac crest producing transitory paralysis of the soft tissue structures is known as what?
Hip pointer
A hip sprain is best revealed through the athlete’s inability to do what action?
Circumduct the thigh
What is a rare site for a stress fracture in the femur?
Femoral shaft
Which of the following is the mechanism for an acromioclavicular sprain?
A fall on an outstretched arm
Which of the following is the reason that impingement injuries occur?
Reduction of the space through which the supraspinatus muscle can pass
In a sternoclavicular sprain, the clavicle is generally displaced in what direction?
Upward and anteriorly
What direction is an athlete’s arm in when an anterior glenohumeral dislocation occurs?
Slight abduction and external rotation
Which of the following muscles is not a part of the rotator cuff?
Deltoid
Each of the following athletes is prone to overuse injuries of the shoulder except for which athlete?
Bowler’s
Prevention of shoulder injuries can be accomplished by all of the following except for which statement?
Development of extreme flexibility
Which of the following is the most important and most commonly injured bursa of the shoulder joint?
Subacromial bursa
What direction does the shoulder most commonly dislocate?
Anteriorly
The empty can test is used to determine injury to what muscle?
Supraspinatus
Which side of the forearm receives the most frequent impact, therefore the most bruising?
Ulnar
What are the primary motions of the elbow joint?
Flexion and extension
Lateral epicondylitis results from which of the following mechanisms?
Repetitive extension of the wrist
What type of fracture results from the radius and ulna being forced backward and upward (hyperextension)?
Colles’ Fracture
With most elbow dislocations resulting from falling on an outstretched hand, which way will the humerus dislocate on the ulnar and radius?
Posteriorly
Which of the following muscles is located on the posterior surface of the arm?
Triceps
The ligament that stabilizes and encircles the head of the radius is the:
Annular ligament
If an athlete complains of burning and tingling or paresthesia in the fourth and fifth fingers, what structure may be damaged?
Ulnar nerve
The adolescent athlete who complains of sudden pain and locking of the elbow joint should be suspected of having which of the following conditions?
Osteochondritis dissecans
Which nerve can become irritated secondary to cubitus valgus at the elbow?
Ulnar
Which of the following vertebrae is considered the strongest and most massive?
Lumbar
How many vertebrae are in the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar regions of the spine?
7, 12, 5
Which of the following is the major muscle of back extension?
Erector spinae
Which of the following is not a component of the erector spinae muscles?
Cervicis
Which of the following parts of the spine is considered the most mobile and vulnerable to a wide range of sports injuries?
Cervical
What is the strong fibrous tissue outer periphery of the intervertebral disk called?
Annulus fibrosus
If a straight leg raise causes pain, which of the following could be the problem?
Sciatic nerve
Sacroiliac joint
Lumbar spin
All of the above could be a problem<-----
Which of the following portions of the spine have an anterior convex curve?
Cervical, lumbar
Sports movements that characteristically hyperextend the spine are likely to cause which of the following?
Spondylolysis
Prevention of cervical spinal injuries is best accomplished by which of the following?
Maintaining normal flexibility in the neck region
Increasing the strength of the neck musculature
Selecting and fitting any necessary protective equipment for all athletes
All of the above prevent cervical spine injuries<-----
In managing a scrotal contusion, the first responsibility is to do what?
Position the athlete on his side
Which of the following conditions predisposes an athlete to injuries of the spleen?
Mononucleosis
When palpating the abdomen, how should the patient be positioned?
Supine with the arms by the side with the knees flexed
Any athlete who receives a severe blow to the abdomen or back region should be instructed to check for what sign(s)?
Blood in the urine
Inguinal hernias are more associated with which of the following?
Men
Which of the following organs has a lower risk of injury in sports activities?
Liver
What condition has an MOI of a direct blow to the thorax or a fall on a ball that compresses the rib cage?
Costal cartilage injury
What is the preferred treatment by most physicians for an athlete with a hernia?
Surgical repair
What is the danger associated with a ruptured spleen?
Profuse hemorrhaging that could result in death
Getting the “wind knocked out” of you is characteristic of what condition?
Blow to the solar plexus
Which of the following regions contain spinal fluid?
Subarachnoid space
An athlete has been hit in the head with no loss of consciousness. They are experiencing dizziness, and have some disorientation that resolves within 10 minutes. Based on the signs and symptoms, what grade is the concussion?
Grade 1
An athlete has sustained a Grade 1 concussion. If this injury is the athlete’s first concussion, when should this athlete be allowed to return to practice?
After being asymptomatic for 1 week
Which of the following symptoms are NOT indicative of a serious eye injury?
Excessive watering of the eye
When trauma has occurred to the ear, tearing of the overlying tissue from the cartilaginous plate may result in fluid accumulation. This problem would be referred to as which of the following?
Cauliflower ear
Which of the following is the single most important consideration in preventing a head injury?
Correct tackling technique
Which of the following describes the inability of an athlete to remember events after the injury has occurred?
Anterograde amnesia
Management of an avulsed tooth includes all the following except which of the following?
Scrubbing the tooth with a sterile gauze pad to get the dirt off
Which part of the eye is responsible for the production of tears?
The lacrimal glands
Which of the following is the outermost meninge consisting of a dense, fibrous, inelastic sheath that encloses the brain and spinal cord?
Dura mater