DSST Management Information Systems

Which of the following best describes a Management Information System?
The integration of computer systems with the aims of the organization.

MIS integrates all aspects of computer systems as well as the processes used in an organization in order to improve productivity.

The decimal value of the hexadecimal number 1A is what?
26
The ‘1’ in the leftmost (most significant digit) column is equal to 16 in base ten, while the ‘A’ in the least significant digit is equal to 10. Adding these together gives a total of 26 in base 10.
Hard disk drives are used for what purpose?

I. To store data and programs permanently

II. For running programs

III. To save data that cannot fit in the main memory

a. I only

b. I and II only

c. I and III only

d. I, II, and III

I and III only.

Hard disks are mainly used to store data and programs, but they can also be used as virtual memory when the computer fills up the main memory.

A bit can have how many different values?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

2.

A bit can either be ‘on’ or ‘off’, which translates to the values 1 and 0.

Computer memory that is not directly accessible by the CPU, but must instead be accessed via input/output channels, is called

a. core memory

b. secondary memory

c. internal memory

d. volatile memory

secondary memory.

Secondary memory is storage—such as a hard disk—that must be accessed through I/O channels. Secondary storage is usually non-volatile and has far greater capacity than memory directly accessible by the CPU.

Management information systems consider data from both formal and informal channels. Which of the following is an informal channel?

a. Sales data

b. Data collection agencies

c. Newspapers

d. Balance sheets

Newspapers.

Informal data channels used by management information systems are sources of data that are not integrated directly into the system, but can deliver data that can be used by the system. A newspaper would be considered such an informal channel.

In order to be useful as a resource, information must be

a. accurate

b. complete

c. indivisible

d. redundant

accurate.

Information must be accurate so that it can be used to find further truths. Information can be incomplete and single-sourced, and yet still deliver important data to the system.

The parts of a system are

a. independent

b. interdependent

c. in competition

d. equal

interdependent.

Systems theory describes the interdependence of the parts of a system. A system is only worthy of the name if the parts are, indeed, interdependent.

The design or analysis of a system by recursive factoring of its subsystems into further subsystems is called

a. primitive composition

b. progressive decomposition

c. partial decomposition

d. progressive reasoning

progressive reasoning.

Progressive decomposition is the term for recursively splitting a system into subsystems in order to analyze the overall working of the system.

The difference between a system and a subsystem is

a. a matter of size. A system is larger than a subsystem.

b. a matter of definition. A system can always be the subsystem of another system.

c. that a system must include a human component.

d. a matter of inclusion. A system must consist of multiple subsystems.

a matter of definition. A system can always be the subsystem of another system.

Whether a collection of components is to be considered as a system or a subsystem depends on the problem currently being worked on. Any system can be treated as a stand-alone unit or as a subsystem to another, larger, system.

In analyzing and streamlining a system, which of the following is the most important?

a. Increasing the number of subsystems

b. Reducing the complexity of interconnections

c. Introducing new and better software

d. Adding coordinating interfaces

Reducing the complexity of interconnections.

In order for each subsystem to work at peak efficiency, the interfaces between the subsystems must be as simple as possible. This ensures that each subsystem can concentrate on its given task, rather than spending its time decoding and encoding data, while reducing the complexity of the final, overall, system.

Which of the following is an abstract system?

a. The development of a new accounting system

b. An accounting system

c. The systems development life cycle

d. An order processing system

The systems development life cycle.

An abstract system is a system of concepts and ideas. The systems development life cycle is a template used to create a development plan for a physical system—in this case, a software system.

Which of the following is NOT a constraint of a system?

a. Processing time

b. Transaction type

c. Interactions with existing systems

d. Relevant regulations

Transaction type.

Constraints on a system are pre-existing boundary conditions that affect the system under consideration. They may be self-imposed, such as the processing time, given by the current systems that the system is to work with, or outside restrictions, such as government regulations. The transaction type that a system is to execute is not a constraint on the system, rather, it is an objective of the system.

In order for a feedback loop to be added to a system, which of the following must be defined?

I. Standards

II. Objectives

III. Inputs

a. I, only

b. I and II only

c. II and III only

d. I, II, and III

I and II only.

In order for a feedback loop in a system to be successful, the system must have standards with which the states of the system can be compared and objectives that can be compared with the outputs of the system.

A system that uses feedback to control the internal system parameters is called a(n)

a. open-loop system

b. closed-loop system

c. primary system

d. informational system

closed-loop system.

Closed-loop systems are systems where the input and the output are coupled in some way. This is done by feedback; having changes in the output triggers changes within the system and its inputs.

Which of the following represents the most abstract view of a system?

a. Black box

b. Data-flow diagram

c. System context diagram

d. Structural diagram

System context diagram.

The system context diagram shows a system in its context, with all its inputs and outputs. It represents the most abstract view, and it therefore gives a holistic view that allows a better understanding of how the system is to be developed and used.

Which of the following is NOT a definition of synergy?

a. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts

b. Combined action is more important than the sum of the actions of sub-components

c. All actions happen at the same time

d. The whole is not defined by the behavior of the sub-components

All actions happen at the same time.

In using synergy, there is no need for all actions to take place simultaneously. The other three definitions have all been used for the term synergy.

The most widespread application of artificial intelligence precepts in modern computer systems is in which of the following?

a. Neural networks

b. Case-based reasoning

c. Evolutionary Computation

d. Expert Systems

Expert Systems.

Although artificial intelligence held great promise for many years as a basis for making computers think more like humans, most avenues of research have turned into dead ends. Expert systems are a large class of programs that use basics of artificial intelligence to help solve problems.

What is the closest analogy to a transistor as used in digital computers?

a. An amplifier

b. A switch

c. A diode

d. A resistor

A switch.

Although transistors can be used as amplifiers, in digital computation, they are used exclusively as switches. A current applied to one terminal of the transistor allows current to flow between the other two.

Two early programming languages used primarily for scientific and business-related applications are, respectively,

a. Pascal and C

b. Ada and C++

c. BASIC and Java

d. FORTRAN and COBOL

FORTRAN and COBOL.

FORTRAN (FORmula TRANslation) was invented in 1954 and has been used since extensively for scientific programs. COBOL (COmmon Business Oriented Language) was first released in1959 and used, as the name suggests, mainly for business- (and government-) related tasks. Both languages are still in use and have had extensions added that give them features like those found in more modern languages such as Java or C++.

A program that is to run on many different machines would best be written in which of the following languages?

a. Java

b. C++

c. Pascal

d. FORTRAN

Java.

Java was designed to be platform-independent. Java code is compiled to Java bytecode by the Java compiler. This bytecode can be run (interpreted) on any platform running the Java virtual machine (JVM). Any of the other languages would need to be compiled specifically for the machine they are to run on, increasing the overhead in releasing the product.

Code written without any language-specific syntax that can be used as a framework for writing actual code is called

a. source code

b. pseudo code

c. matrix code

d. incorrect

pseudo code.

Pseudo code is used as a first step in writing computer code, allowing the programmer to map out steps and methods without getting bogged down in the minutiae of the actual programming language. Pseudo code is especially helpful if the problem is to be solved in multiple different programming languages.

An algorithm

a. will always lead to the correct solution

b. defines steps leading to a solution

c. is the simplest way to attack a problem

d. can only be programmed one way

defines steps leading to a solution.

Algorithms define a series of steps leading to the solution of a problem. There can be many ways of reaching the same solution, and there is no guarantee that the simplest route will be obvious, nor can it be guaranteed that the correct solution will be found.

The storage that a computer uses to hold the currently running program as well as its data is called

a. primary storage

b. secondary storage

c. tertiary storage

d. off-line storage

primary storage.

Primary storage is the memory that a computer can access directly, without using an I/O channel. Historically, a variety of technologies has been used for primary storage; at this point, it is almost all integrated circuit RAM.

Processor registers generally have which size?

a. A byte

b. A word

c. Two bytes

d. A nibble

A word.

A word is not a fixed value, as it varies from computer to computer. The word size used by a computer is one of its basic values. The size of the word influences a number of other attributes for the processor, including the register size.

Which of the following are semiconductor devices?

I. Transistor

II. Integrated Circuit

III. Vacuum tube

a. I and III only

b. II and III only

c. I and II only

d. I, II, and III

I and II only.

Semiconductor devices are any electronic components that use the properties of semiconductors. The first semiconductors were diodes. Transistors were developed later. Integrated circuits consist of large numbers of transistors on a silicon chip.

In object-oriented programs, classes consist of which two primary features?

a. Attributes and methods

b. Inheritance and attributes

c. Abstraction and methods

d. Inheritance and abstraction

Attributes and methods.

A class consists of attributes, which is the data that is contained in the class, and methods, which is code that operates on these attributes. Abstraction and inheritance are mechanisms used in object-oriented programming, but are not part of the class itself.

Which of the following would be considered a channel in an information system?

a. Data bus

b. Hard disk

c. Keyboard

d. Printer

Data bus.

In an information system, channels transmit data from one part of the system to another. Data buses transmit data either within or between computers.

Which of the following is not a feature of having distributed computing?

a. E-mail

b. File-sharing

c. Printer-sharing

d. Time-sharing

Time-sharing.

Time-sharing is used on mainframe computers to allow multiple users to use the central processing unit of the machine for a certain amount of time. This is unnecessary when each user has a computer with their own CPU at their disposal.

A workgroup that is spread across two or more locations can use which of the following technologies to allow access to all other computers in the workgroup?

a. VPN

b. LAN

c. WLAN

d. MAN

VPN.

A virtual private network (VPN) allows users in different locations to see each other’s computers as if they were co-located, without the traffic being vulnerable while in transit between the locations.

Which of the following is the best use for pie charts when creating graphics from spreadsheets?

a. Showing the percentages of a whole

b. Showing the number of items

c. Showing the changes in data over time

d. Showing data relationships

Showing the percentages of a whole.

Pie charts are best used to show the percentages of a whole that are represented by the data being displayed. The full chart reflects 100%, the pie slices the percentage contained by each subcategory.

Which of the following is not needed when using groupware?

a. Server

b. Client

c. Database

d. Software

Database.

Groupware consists of three major parts: A server, a number of clients and the software to run it. The clients and servers are connected by a network, allowing the users to work together.

The private network that contains everything needed by employees of a company is called the

a. Internet

b. LAN

c. Intranet

d. Firewall

Intranet.

An intranet is a private network that is secured from unauthorized use by people outside of a company. It can contain any information—including secret documents—that are needed by the employees. The exact implementation is up to the company in question, but it usually includes an HTTP server.

Which of the following is the cheapest, most secure method of connecting LANs into WANs?

a. Internet

b. PBX

c. VPN

d. Leased lines

VPN.

A VPN is the simplest way of connecting geographically dispersed LANs into WANs. Messages passing between the LANs are encrypted while passing through the Internet, then decrypted at the other end. Since this is an entirely software solution, there is no need for expensive hardware or leased lines.

On which level of organization is one most likely to find dedicated servers?

a. Individual

b. Workgroup

c. Enterprise

d. Team

Enterprise.

Servers contain large quantities of data that are to be accessed from many places, something that is important at the enterprise level of an organization. A workgroup generally will simply use part of one member’s computer as a server, since any workgroup member’s computer can be accessed by any other member’s.

A LAN used in a workgroup requires which of the following?

a. Dedicated server

b. Dedicated systems administrator

c. Both server and administrator

d. None of the above

None of the above.

There is no need for centralized control of LANs used in workgroups. The various computers connected to the LAN can each be used as a server when necessary, and there is no need for a full-time systems administrator for a system this small.

In a workgroup environment, the execution of software is most likely to be a ____ procedure?

a. user

b. operations

c. administration

d. systems

user

User procedures are those operations executed by the user. Users are expected to run software on their own.

Which of the following would be considered part of the operational level of an organization?

a. Planning a new information system

b. Installing new hardware

c. Monitoring transactions

d. Writing new software

Monitoring transactions.

The operational level of an organization is that which keeps track of the current functioning of the system. This includes monitoring transactions and other elementary activities that the enterprise runs on.

Which form of graph would be most likely to be used to show the association between two sets of related data?

a. Scatter plot

b. Pie chart

c. Histogram

d. Box plot

Scatter plot.

A scatter plot (or scatter graph) is a form of graph that displays data points by displaying one attribute on one axis of the graph and a second attribute on the other axis. In this way, the relationships between the attributes can be seen.

At which level of organization would one most likely find professional systems administrators running the hardware?

a. Team

b. Group

c. Individual

d. Enterprise

Enterprise.

Enterprise systems are complicated enough that a professional systems administrator is required to keep all the servers and other hardware running at peak efficiency. At lower levels, the hardware can generally be run by individuals with assistance from the IT department.

Which of the following is the name for a database in which the methods to manipulate the data are associated with the data itself?

a. Object-oriented database

b. Relational database

c. Network database

d. Indexed database

Object-oriented database.

Object-orientation is a technology that combines data with the methods used to manipulate the data. Although originally conceived to assist in programming, the technology has migrated to databases as well. Object-oriented databases add persistence (which enables program data to survive the termination of the program creating it) to the objects created during the running of object-oriented code.

Which of the following best describes a record in a database?

a. A collection of fields

b. A storage medium

c. A single fact

d. A table

A collection of fields.

A record in a database is composed of a number of facts (as stored in fields) which are usually related. Each record is combined with other records that have the same format to create a table.

A data model in which each data object (except the root object) has exactly one parent and any number of children is called

a. object model

b. relational model

c. network model

d. hierarchical model

hierarchical model.

In the hierarchical data model, each element is the parent of any number of other elements and the child of exactly one other element. This allows for simplified searching by depth-first or breadth-first traverses.

In a relational database, data collected together in a form where each entry has the same format as all the other entries is called a

a. row

b. record

c. table

d. key

table.

Tables are collections of rows in which each row has the same format as every other row in that table. The columns represent one particular fact about each data item.

Which of the following is NOT an element of an Entity-Relationship Diagram?

a. Entity

b. Relationship

c. Action

d. Attribute

Action.

The basic building blocks of Entity-Relationship Diagrams (ERD) are entities, which are connected to other entities via relationships. Both entities and relationships can have attributes. Since only static data is considered, actions are not part of the ERD.

The default join type used in SQL is the

a. cross join

b. inner join

c. left outer join

d. right outer join

inner join.

A JOIN combines two tables so that data from both can be retrieved. An inner join finds the intersection between two tables by limiting the result list to those that are in both tables. This has become the default join in most database languages.

In a relational database, a tuple refers to which data type?

a. Attribute

b. Record

c. File

d. Field

Record.

A tuple refers to a set of name/value pairs. For example, a pair might be (Name = Fred), and a set of pairs might be (Name = Fred, Age = 29, Hair_color = Brown). These sets are implemented as records in a relational database.

The history of all actions performed on or by a database system is stored in the

a. database log

b. database file

c. system log

d. transaction table

database log.

A database log contains a list of records, each of which describes one single action taken by the user or the system. This log is saved in some permanent storage medium and can be used to restore the database after a systems failure.

The amount of data that can be sent through a telecommunications channel is called

a. bandwidth

b. signal/noise ratio

c. information

d. distortion

bandwidth.

Bandwidth is the term for the amount of information that can be passed through a channel per unit of time. Bandwidth is affected by distortion, and the amount of data compared to the noise in a system is the signal/noise ratio.

What is an RS232 cable with cross-linked send and receive lines that is used to connect two computers called?

a. USB

b. LAN

c. Bridge

d. Null modem

Null modem.

A null modem is an RS232 serial cable where the send pin on one connector is connected to the receive pin on the other connector. This allows two computers to connect directly to one another for simple networking.

The IP address that a computer uses must be what?

a. Unique in the world

b. Unique to the network the computer is in

c. Whatever the user selects

d. Unique to the workgroup

Unique to the network the computer is in.

The IP address of a computer must be unique within the network that the computer is operating in. In order for the computer to communicate with the outside world, it must use a gateway in which its signals are given a worldwide unique IP address.

Which of the following is a protocol for sending fixed-length packets across a network?

a. ATM

b. IP

c. SDH

d. LAN

ATM.

Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) breaks data to be sent across its network into fixed-length packets before sending. Most other protocols send data packets of variable length, with the length being encoded in the metadata of the packet.

Which of the following is NOT true about telecommunications gateways?

a. They must be run on dedicated computers.

b. They may allow two networks with different IP address spaces to communicate.

c. They may allow two networks with differing protocols to communicate.

d. They usually connect a LAN with a WAN.

They must be run on dedicated computers.

Although gateways were originally often dedicated computers, these days their tasks can be done by either small hardware components or run as part of another computer’s tasks.

A token frame in a token-ring network consists of

a. three bytes

b. any number of bytes

c. five bytes

d. two bytes

three bytes.

The token passed around a token-ring network consists of three bytes: starting delimiter, access control, and ending delimiter bytes.

Which of the following technologies uses the phone system’s copper ‘last mile’ to send high-speed (≥128kb) data?

a. ISDN

b. POTS

c. DSL

d. Cable

DSL.

Digital Subscriber Lines (DSL) use the twisted-pair copper wire that connects a subscriber’s telephone line to the telephone company’s system for both voice and data communication. A DSL modem separates out the two data streams, passing the voice channel to the local telephones and the data to the local computer system.

The technology used to have telephone conversations over the Internet is called

a. VoIP

b. PSTN

c. DID

d. LAN

VoIP.

Voice over IP (VoIP) is the technology used to make telephone connections across the Internet. Voice data is converted into a digital signal, which is passed via the Internet to the receiving computer, where the signal is reconverted to an analog signal.

In data transmission, which of the following refers to a system that allows multiple slower channels to be passed through a smaller number of higher-speed channels?

a. Concentrator

b. Circuit

c. Buffer

d. Protocol

Concentrator.

A concentrator allows a single path to handle data from multiple channels. The concentrator buffers the incoming channels to make sure that only one is using the single path at a time.

A network element that converts binary data into analog signals and vice versa is called a

a. collector

b. soundcard

c. multiplexer

d. modem

modem.

A modem (MOdulator/DEModulator) is a device for converting binary data into analog signals and vice versa so that the data can be transmitted over normal telephone wires. A soundcard converts binary data into sound (analog) and vice versa, but it is not part of a network.

In order to determine the IP address of a domain name, which of the following would have to be consulted?

a. DNS

b. TCP

c. UDP

d. FTP

DNS.

The Domain Name System (DNS) allows any computer connected to the Internet to resolve the IP address of any domain name. This is done by sending a single UDP request to the local DNS server and receiving a UDP reply with the information sought.

What is the maximum throughput of a 10BASE-T cable?

a. 10 Megabits/second

b. 10 Gigabits/second

c. 100 Megabits/second

d. 10 Kilobits/second

10 Megabits/second.

10BASE-T refers to a type of cable used in Ethernet applications. The 10 refers to the throughput of 10 Megabits/second, while the BASE refers to baseband, meaning that there is only one signal on the wire. The T stands for twisted pair wires over which the signals travel.

Which of the following are types of agile software development?

I. Extreme Programming

II. Waterfall Model

III. Rapid Application Development

a. I only

b. I and II only

c. I and III only

d. I, II, and III

I and III only.

Extreme programming and rapid application development are both agile software development methodologies. Both seek to minimize risk by working in short time frames, with each iteration resulting in a working software system. Each new iteration is a step closer to the final product. In contrast, the waterfall model seeks to define all specifications for a product before programming begins.

Which of the following is a criticism of the original waterfall model of systems life cycle development?

a. Each step must be entirely completed before the next step can be taken

b. Users spend too much time learning and using unfinished systems

c. There are no specification documents against which tests can be run

d. The method specifies how the teams are to do the programming

Each step must be entirely completed before the next step can be taken.

The waterfall model of SDLC consists of a series of steps, each of which must be completed before the next step is begun. This means that if problems crop up during the implementation of a system, there is no way to return to a previous step to avoid this problem. There have been numerous adjustments to the waterfall model to get around this issue.

Which of the following refers to the re-testing of software that has been modified to ensure that no new bugs have crept in?

a. Unit testing

b. Stress testing

c. Regression testing

d. Integration testing

Regression testing.

Regression testing is the process of re-testing modified software to ensure that the changes made to the software to add functionality or fix problems have not introduced any new errors. As software is developed, a suite of regression tests are prepared as well, which can be run automatically on any new version of the software.

Which of the following is NOT part of the design phase of the system development?

a. Determine specifications for hardware

b. Write design guidelines for the software

c. Determine information needs of the end user

d. Determine database needs

Determine information needs of the end user.

Determining what the end user will need from a system is part of the analysis phase of systems development. All outputs should be determined before starting on the design phase.

Which of the following is NOT a significant problem in end-user computing?

a. Wasted resources

b. Uncaught errors

c. High overhead

d. Computer viruses

High overhead.

Allowing the end-users to write and install their own programs has many advantages, but also opens the door to numerous problems. Among these are wasted resources (if two end-users write software to do the same task), uncaught errors (which would be caught in the testing done in traditional systems design), and computer viruses (since each computer can install programs, every one could import a virus). High overhead, however, is generally not a problem, as users require less assistance from the central IT department.

Software development teams usually do NOT include

a. database architects

b. programmers

c. customer support engineers

d. testers

customer support engineers.

Customer support engineers mediate between the users of the product and the software development team, usually by way of the testing department. They are not included in the software development teams, though their input is often important to changes made in the product after it is launched.

Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with agile software development?

a. Little documentation is produced.

b. User comments can be integrated easily.

c. There is great flexibility in producing code.

d. You always have a running program.

Little documentation is produced.

Since most communication in agile programming is done in face-to-face meetings, coupled with using working software as a metric, very little documentation is produced in comparison to other software development methods.

According to Microsoft, how many layers should a logical model have?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. Any number

3.

A logical model should consist of three layers: user layer, business layer and data layer. In the physical model derived from this, these layers might be consolidated into fewer layers.

Which of the following is the final test to be conducted on a system?

a. Integration

b. Acceptance

c. System

d. Unit

Acceptance.

Acceptance tests are run to determine whether a system fulfills all the requirements as set forth in the specifications. Acceptance tests can be run either at the manufacturer’s site or on-site.

In ____ development, a system is developed in increments.

a. iterative

b. arbitrary

c. monolithic

d. spiral

iterative

Iterative and incremental development is an agile development methodology where software systems are developed in increments. At each step, a working program is produced, so it can easily be determined how the process is progressing.

In transitioning from one system to another, the technique that discontinues the old system before starting the new system is called

a. parallel operation

b. flash conversion

c. pilot conversion

d. conversion design

flash conversion.

Flash (also direct) conversion is a method of systems conversion where the old system is turned off before the new system is started. All data must be transferred—and transformed—during the conversion process.

Technical, operational, and economic feasibility are all part of which step in systems development life cycle?

a. Systems analysis

b. Maintenance

c. Installation

d. Design

Systems analysis.

Feasibility studies are an important aspect of the systems analysis of a project. They ensure that the system can be created given the current parameters, before too much money and time are spent on implementing the system.

Which of the following is a top-down system development method?

a. DSDM

b. Waterfall model

c. Extreme programming

d. FDD

Waterfall model.

In top-down systems development, the system is looked on as a whole, which is then subdivided into parts, each of which is again seen as a whole. Each part is again subdivided until the parts are small enough to be created as a whole. While designing the system, subsystems not yet created are treated as black boxes, with the understanding that they will be created and programmed at a later date. The waterfall model is an example of this methodology.

Software bought from a vendor that needs no modification is often called

a. an application suite

b. a shrink-wrap application

c. an embedded system

d. an application programming interface

a shrink-wrap application.

Shrink-wrap applications are off-the-shelf software that can be installed and used with minimal or no customization. Such applications have limited and specialized uses and are particularly valuable when data from the programs is to be widely distributed.

Which of the following is a CASE tool?

a. Perforce

b. WordPerfect

c. Rational Rose

d. Mozilla Firefox

Rational Rose.

Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools are programs that help in the analysis and design of software. Rational Rose is an IBM product for software modeling. It uses the unified modeling language and can produce software source code, as well as doing round-trip engineering.

Which of the following is NOT a problem with allowing the end-user complete control over the software on their computer?

a. Multiple versions of the same program must be supported.

b. Unwanted and poorly understood interactions cause programs to fail.

c. Different file formats make information interchange difficult.

d. There can be difficulty in transmitting data files between computers.

There can be difficulty in transmitting data files between computers.

In allowing users to install their own software on their computers, the IS department loses a certain amount of control over the system. They must be prepared to deal with multiple versions of multiple programs, as well as helping users translate between file formats used by incompatible programs. However, this does not affect the actual transmission of data files from one computer to another.

The ____ are the results that must be in place before the next step in the development process may be begun.

a. documentation

b. tests

c. exit criteria

d. specifications

exit criteria

Exit criteria are requirements that are to be met in a certain stage of a project. The criteria are different in each development stage and may include documentation, specifications, completed tests, or code.

The study of all the systems in use in a company in order to determine the present level of performance is called an

a. MIS study

b. MIS audit

c. MIS trace

d. MIS PROD

MIS audit.

An MIS audit is a way to determine how well the current MIS is working in a company. During an MIS audit, sample transactions are traced through the system to determine how well controls are working. Any weaknesses are reported to management.

Adding more programmers to a project that is running behind schedule has what effect on the schedule?

a. Delays it further

b. Speeds it up

c. Has no effect

d. Stops it completely

Delays it further.

According to Brook’s law, trying to speed up a delayed software delivery by adding new programmers is counterproductive, as the time spent bringing the new programmers up to speed wastes more time than it saves in the end.

Implementing a system at just a few locations in order to study its effectiveness before rolling it out company-wide is called

a. acceptance test

b. rollout

c. installation

d. pilot program

pilot program.

A pilot program allows a company to assess the strengths and weaknesses of a system without introducing it to everyone who will eventually use it. It assumes that the system will scale well when broadly introduced.

The single most important factor in determining what systems to build and install in an organization is

a. the hardware already installed

b. the software used and understood by users

c. the information needs of the user

d. the ability of managers to access information about the system

the information needs of the user.

In developing a system, it is of utmost importance to determine what information should be available to which users. Without understanding the information needs of the users, proper decisions about the IS to be developed cannot be made.

An invitation to suppliers to submit an offer for a product or service is called a ____

a. RFP

b. BAFO

c. NOP

d. ERP

RFP.

A Request For Proposals (RFP) is a solicitation for offers to provide certain goods and services. The offers will often include a complete plan on how to implement the system to be provided.

Which of the following would be a good metric for determining the value of an MIS system?

a. How much the system is used

b. How much the system cost

c. How many clients have been installed

d. How many users are connected

How much the system is used.

When assessing the value of an MIS, an important metric is how much the system is being used. If users are using the MIS for all possible transactions, rather than just the ones that they are forced to use, the system is proving its worth. Simply counting the installed base is not enough to determine the value of a system.

Which of the following are components of a decision support system?

I. Data management component

II. Model management component

III. User interface management component

a. I only

b. I and II only

c. II and III only

d. I, II, and III

I, II, and III.

A decision support system (DSS) consists of a data management component, usually a database, a component to manage the models used by the DSS, and a way to manage the user interface.

Transaction processing systems are responsible for which of the following features?

a. Atomicity

b. Consistency

c. Isolation

d. Durability

Atomicity.

Transaction processing systems are middleware that ensure that transactions are performed fully or roll the state of the system back to the pre-transaction state. This is called atomicity.

Neural networks are most likely to be used directly in which of the following systems?

a. Office automation systems

b. Enterprise information systems

c. Transaction processing systems

d. Data mining systems

Data mining systems.

Neural networks, which can be used to search for patterns, are useful in data mining, which consists mainly of searching large amounts of data for patterns. Enterprise information systems may include data mining as an input, but not as their main focus.

An expert system

a. is always capable of learning

b. seeks to find answers for a specific set of problems

c. learns through feedback

d. allows for incorrect input data

seeks to find answers for a specific set of problems.

Expert systems have a very limited focus for the problems they can solve. In general, the more tightly constrained the problem area, the better the expert system is. They require, however, proper input from the operator, and usually it is necessary for the user to sanity-check the output. Expert systems do not learn automatically, but change only through reprogramming.

A ticket tracking system used to track issues uncovered by members of the testing staff is called

a. customer support system

b. bug tracking system

c. transaction processing system

d. response system

bug tracking system.

Bug tracking systems are systems that ensure that bugs found in software systems are properly handled. Bugs can be entered, distributed, marked as fixed, and re-tested. These systems ensure that problems uncovered will not be forgotten or misplaced.

Which of the following is a computer-based system that helps teams of users find solutions to problems?

a. GDSS

b. DSS

c. DBMS

d. GPS

GDSS.

Group Decisions Support Systems (GDSS) allow groups of users to work on problems together, even if they can’t be brought together in one place. The system allows the users to gather ideas and information from all participants and synthesize solutions or partial solutions to the problems set.

A system for managing customers and the interaction with them is called

a. CRM

b. CSS

c. BRM

d. DMA

CRM.

Customer relationship management (CRM) refers to both the tools and systems used for managing interaction with customers. The CRM system may consist of several software tools to oversee customer e-mails, contacts, and queries.

Which of the following is a knowledge work system?

I. Microsoft Excel

II. Autodesk AutoCAD

III. Corel WordPerfect

a. II only

b. I and III only

c. I and II only

d. I, II, and III

I, II, and III.

Knowledge work systems are systems that help users deal with problems that require technical knowledge. All of the above systems are used by knowledge workers in different fields: Excel for accounting, AutoCAD by designers, and WordPerfect by clerical workers.

Which of the following would NOT be part of an electronic meeting system?

a. Electronic brainstorming tools

b. Analysis tools

c. Polling tools

d. Rank order vote tools

Analysis tools.

Electronic meeting systems are systems that allow all members of a meeting to collaborate by simultaneously inputting ideas. The purpose is to generate and evaluate ideas, not to analyze them with analysis tools.

Which of the following theorems underlies most expert system calculations?

a. Binomial theorem

b. Fermat’s theorem

c. Pythagorean theorem

d. Bayes’ theorem

Bayes’ theorem.

Bayes’ theorem of the conditional probabilities of two events is heavily used in expert system calculation. Given the probability of one event, it calculates the probability of a second event.

The Electronic Communications Privacy Act does NOT protect e-mails from being read by

a. the government with a court order

b. third parties without no legitimate access

c. employers of users who are e-mailing

d. Internet service providers

employers of users who are e-mailing.

ECPA (1986) only protects e-mails under certain circumstances, and does not protect employees from having e-mail that is on the employers’ equipment being read by the employers.

Which of the following is a software product for encryption of digital data?

a. RSA

b. PGP

c. DSA

d. DES

PGP.

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is a software product that can encrypt any form of digital data. It is most commonly used for e-mail, both for encryption of the messages and authentication of the sender.

What is hardware or software that stops certain network traffic from passing between two networks called?

a. Host

b. Modem

c. Transceiver

d. Firewall

Firewall.

Firewalls can be either hardware or software, and they selectively allow data to pass between two networks. They are usually used to ensure that all network traffic in a local network is shielded from traffic on the Internet.

Which of the following is a secure method for logging into a remote computer?

a. TELNET

b. SSH

c. CSH

d. rlogin

SSH.

Secure SHell (SSH) is a program (and a protocol) for logging into remote computers. It can be used in place of the insecure TELNET and rlogin.

The best-known certificate for computer security experts is called

a. CISSP

b. Cisco

c. CSDP

d. LPIC

CISSP.

Certified Information Systems Security Professionals (CISSP) is a certification administered by the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium. CISSP-certified security professionals have demonstrated a wide range of knowledge in the field.

Encryption methods where the government has control of passwords that can decrypt any messages using the method are called ____ cryptography.

a. symmetric

b. public-key

c. key escrow

d. binding

key escrow

In key escrow cryptography, the government (or other controlling authority) is given a key for each instance of the method installed. This allows the government to decrypt any message encrypted by this method.

Which of the following is a system that prevents data loss in the case of a power outage?

a. UBS

b. SMS

c. USB

d. UPS

UPS.

An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is a device that ensures that power to a system is not lost if there is a power outage. UPSs can also ensure that other problems in the electricity, such as fluctuating voltages, do not affect the system.

Research into the application of mathematics to help make better business decisions is called

a. Information Technology.

b. Management Science.

c. Management Information Systems.

d. Information Management.

Management Science.

Management Science is the use of math – as well as other analytic methods – to improve the process of making business decisions. Management Science relies heavily on the precepts of Operations Research. Management Science encompasses a wide variety of subfields, including data mining, modeling and statistics.

In what part of a computer are programs currently being run as well as data being used by the programs stored?

a. Main memory

b. Hard disk

c. Internal bus

d. Register

Main memory.

Main memory is nonpermanent storage that is directly accessible by the computer’s processor. Programs and data currently being executed are stored in main memory. A register is a processor-internal piece of memory used to hold values while executing individual instructions.

Which of the following is NOT a computer I/O device?

a. Scanner

b. Keyboard

c. Internal bus

d. Memory stick

Internal bus.

The internal bus is used to transfer data within the computer, while the other three are all used to move data from inside the computer to the outside, or vice versa.

Off-line storage media is best used for which of the following?

a. Programs

b. Data used daily

c. Backups

d. Databases

Backups.

Off-line storage media must be mounted onto the computer system through human intervention. It is therefore usable only in situations where the access is infrequent. Programs, frequently used data, and databases must all be accessible at any time. Only backups are accessed only rarely, when a hardware fault has destroyed data or a user has made a mistake. Data of this nature can – and should – be stored separately from the computer system.

The smallest piece of information is called what?

a. A byte

b. A bit

c. A nibble

d. A word

A bit.

A bit can have only two values, so it represents the smallest piece of information known to a computer. Bits are aggregated into nibbles (4), bytes (8), and words (16).

A document that contains embedded links to other, related, documents is called

a. hypertext.

b. hyperlink.

c. XML.

d. frame.

hypertext.

Hypertext contains links to other documents to expand on the data presented. The links themselves are referred to as hyperlinks.

Programs that can read any scanned data and extract any written information shown in them are called

a. OMR.

b. MICR.

c. IMR.

d. OCR.

OCR.

OCR stands for Optical Character Recognition. It is used to translate scanned pages of written text. This text can use any font or even be handwritten. Most other scanning methods require that particular inks or marks be used.

A system or subsystem of which only the inputs and outputs are known is referred to as a(n)

a. environment.

b. boundary.

c. black box.

d. constraint.

black box.

A black-box system or subsystem is one whose interior workings are not known (and, usually, not relevant to the task at hand). When doing system analyses, it is often advantageous to think of each subsystem as a black-box, to mask off the details of the interior process of the subsystem.

Determining the boundary of a system is done to help identify which attribute or attributes of the system?

a. Whether it is a black-box system

b. The users of the system

c. Inputs and outputs of the system

d. The objectives of the system

Inputs and outputs of the system.

The boundary of the system separates what is included in the system from what is excluded. Determining the boundary pinpoints what information must be delivered to the system, as well as what information is exported from the system.

Which of the following are used to measure the value of a system?

I. Effectiveness

II. Effort

III. Efficiency

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and III

d. I, II, and III

I and III.

Effectiveness (does the system achieve its objectives) and efficiency (how much input is needed to produce a given output) are the primary criteria used to determine the value of a system.

Which of the following would be acceptable subsystems for an accounts receivable system?

I. Validate order data

II. Print invoice

III. Produce item

a. I only

b. I and II

c. I and III

d. I, II, and III

I and II.

An accounts receivable system would only be interested in the interactions with the customer. The production of the item itself would best be left to the production subsystem.

The creation of a system is called systems

a. analysis.

b. organization.

c. synthesis.

d. decomposition.

synthesis.

In systems synthesis, the parts that have been determined through systems analysis are put together to create a working system.

Considering a parts distributor as a system, which of the following elements acts as a buffer?

a. The customer order system

b. The order tracking system

c. The warehouse

d. The supplier order system

The warehouse.

A buffer is a decoupling mechanism that allows for a looser interaction between two subsystems, in this case the system that handles supplier orders vs. the system that handles customer orders. By having an inventory of parts on hand in the warehouse, the customer order system does not need to inform the supplier order system of each order that has been placed.

What is the first step in systems analysis?

a. Defining system boundaries

b. System decomposition

c. Problem definition

d. Defining system constraints

Problem definition.

The first step in analyzing a system is to determine what, exactly, the system is to do, what problem it is to solve. All other steps are predicated on having an exact idea of what issue is to be resolved by implementing the system.

A what-if analysis in which the environment in which the system is to operate is changed is called

a. contingency analysis.

b. systems analysis.

c. documentary analysis.

d. sensitivity analysis.

contingency analysis.

In contingency analysis, the effects on a system to changes in its environment—while the parameters internal to the system are kept unchanged—are explored. Sensitivity analysis, in contrast, seeks to determine the effects of changes in the internal parameters of a system.

A probabilistic system would be most likely to be used in which case?

a. A system that will deliver answers instantly

b. A system that will deliver the same answer every time

c. A system that can scale massively

d. A system with sharply defined outputs

A system that can scale massively.

Probabilistic systems are noted for their ability to scale massively. Since the answers generated by the system are based on probabilities, it is always possible that some answers may be missed. However, in dealing with vast quantities of data, this is a problem that can be accepted.

In designing a system to track orders, which is the first step to take?

a. Buy the computers and scanning equipment.

b. Determine who will use the system and how.

c. Write a program for data entry.

d. Buy order-tracking software.

Determine who will use the system and how.

In designing a system, the first step is to determine who will be using the system and for what. In doing this, the questions of both the users who will be inputting the data and those who will be reading data must be addressed. Only then are further steps warranted.

Which of the following have NOT been used as the basis for a computer?

a. Transistors

b. Vacuum tubes

c. Diodes

d. Integrated circuits

Diodes.

The first computers were based on vacuum tubes (valves). Transistor-based computers replaced them in the 1950’s and 1960’s. Integrated circuits were introduced in the 1960’s and have been in use ever since, with an ever greater number of transistors being packaged on a chip, allowing for ever-faster, ever-smaller computers.

The practice of structuring knowledge or data is called

a. information management.

b. information architecture.

c. database management.

d. programming.

information architecture.

Information architecture is concerned with structuring knowledge and data, concentrating on the data entities and their interactions. In determining information architecture, the relationships between data are more important than the actual data contained in the system.

Which of the following are interpreted languages?

I. LISP

II. FORTRAN

III. BASIC

a. I only

b. I and III

c. II and III

d. I, II, and III

I and III.

Both LISP and BASIC are interpreted languages – the code is translated during execution, one line at a time. FORTRAN programs, as well as most other languages, are entirely compiled before execution.

The second generation of computers relied on which technology?

a. Relays

b. Vacuum tubes

c. Transistors

d. Integrated circuits

Transistors.

The first generation of computers is considered to be those run on vacuum tubes. They were replaced by the second generation, based on transistors. Transistor-based computers were smaller, faster, and more reliable than vacuum tube-based computers.

Which of the following is true for any hard disk platter?

a. There are fewer tracks than there are cylinders.

b. There are more tracks than there are cylinders.

c. There are exactly the same number of tracks as there are cylinders.

d. The values of tracks and cylinders are entirely unrelated.

There are exactly the same number of tracks as there are cylinders.

Cylinders are the sum of all tracks located at the same spot on the individual platters of a hard disk drive. It follows, therefore, that there will always be the same number of cylinders as there are tracks on one platter.

A technology that can continue to operate even if parts of it break is called

a. self-replicating.

b. fault resistant.

c. self-aware.

d. fault tolerant.

fault tolerant.

Fault-tolerant design allows a system to continue to operate, even if parts of the system are broken. The system will operate at lower throughput, or degrade otherwise, but will continue to complete its tasks. Fault-resistant systems, in contrast, are designed not to break, but will not necessarily continue to operate if any subsystem breaks.

The subsystem of a microprocessor that allows the processor to store and retrieve data to and from the RAM is called the

a. control bus.

b. external bus.

c. address bus.

d. local bus.

address bus.

The address bus is the connection between the CPU and the RAM storage. The width of the bus determines the amount of memory that can be accessed. Each unique combination of 1’s and 0’s in the bus corresponds to one memory address.

Which of the following is a first-generation computer?

a. IBM 5150

b. ENIAC

c. System/360

d. UNIVAC

UNIVAC.

The UNIVAC was a vacuum tube-based, programmable computer first built in 1951. Previous computers such as ENIAC were not truly programmable. System/360 was a transistor-based computer. IBM 5150 is the proper name for the original (IC-based) IBM PC.

The main problem with autochangers is that

a. they are slower than other devices.

b. they store a vast quantity of data.

c. they require operator assistance.

d. it is difficult to erase data from them.

they are slower than other devices.

Autochangers contain a large number of storage media such as CDs or tapes, a robot arm to retrieve them, and a read/write device for the media. Since autochangers-also known as jukeboxes-must physically retrieve the storage medium before mounting it for use, the access times are far slower than those of other storage media.

Which of the following is approximately equal to one trillion bytes of data?

a. One gigabyte

b. One nanobyte

c. One terabyte

d. One megabyte

One terabyte.

Tera- is the prefix for 1,000,000,000,000. A terabyte is exactly 1,099,511,627,776 bytes of data.

In information systems, data that are related to one individual would be stored in a single

a. file.

b. record.

c. field.

d. cluster.

record.

A record contains data relating to one individual or other single element. In a relational database, a record would be stored as one row in a table. Records are collected into files.

Each level of a hierarchy consists of a

a. subsystem.

b. node.

c. heterarchy.

d. child.

heterarchy.

A heterarchy is a network of elements, none of which have precedence over any other. All members of the heterarchy are working toward the same goal. Each level of a hierarchy consists of a different heterarchy.

The most straightforward method of publicizing information so that it can be viewed outside an organization as well as inside is

a. www.

b. LAN.

c. WAN.

d. e-mail.

www.

Publishing information on a www page ensures that it can be read by anybody with an Internet-connected computer. The format is such that it can be read by anyone, from anywhere. It does not require being addressed personally to the person reading it.

When using spreadsheets to create graphics, which of the following is the best way to show the number of data points that fall into a category?

a. Scatterplot

b. Pie chart

c. Histogram

d. Box plot

Histogram.

Histograms show the number of data points falling into a specific category, whether range of values or a certain type of data. The relative magnitude of values in each category is shown as a bar, allowing for easy comparison to other values.

Applying Metcalfe’s law to an organization would result in which of the following?

a. Having everyone in the organization be connected to the network

b. Giving everyone access to the same data

c. Having everyone use exactly the same type of computer

d. Upgrading everyone’s computer to a more powerful one

Having everyone in the organization be connected to the network.

Metcalfe’s law states that the value of a network increases with the number of people connected to it. How exactly the value increases with the number of connections is still under discussion. Originally, he stated that the value of a network with N connections is N2 but later arguments have the value being NlogN.

Which of the following would most likely be installed on the enterprise level of a company?

a. WLAN

b. LAN

c. WAN

d. MAN

WAN.

A wide area network (WAN) is a network consisting of multiple LANs connected together. The connections may run over the Internet or leased telecommunications lines or any other way of combining networks.

Which of the following would be the best software program to create a document containing both words and graphics that is to be printed for distribution?

a. Adobe Acrobat

b. Adobe PhotoShop

c. Microsoft PowerPoint

d. Adobe InDesign

Adobe InDesign.

Desktop publishing programs such as Adobe InDesign allow users to create documents that contain both words and graphics. The programs allow for extremely fine control for the layout of the documents. InDesign is a successor to Adobe PageMaker.

Which of the following programs is best suited to creating graphics that are to be used as part of a presentation?

a. Microsoft PowerPoint

b. Adobe Acrobat

c. CorelDraw

d. Netscape Navigator

Microsoft PowerPoint.

PowerPoint is software that helps create slides to be used as a presentation. The slides contain both textual and graphical information, and allow for fluid changes between slides to make for a more compelling presentation.

Which of the following is the best analytical software for use by an individual?

a. Oracle Database

b. Microsoft Excel

c. Minitab

d. Microsoft Word

Microsoft Excel.

Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet program that is easy to learn, and has many powerful features. It does not require specialized knowledge to operate.

Using multiple computers spread around an enterprise to work on one task is called

a. CDP.

b. DDP.

c. Client/Server.

d. CORBA.

DDP.

Distributed data processing (also known as distributed computing) is a method of having multiple computers working at a common objective. Each computer works on one small part of the problem, the results of which are then assembled into the overall solution.

Which of the following is an advantage of the distributed model of computing?

a. No duplication

b. Scalability

c. Lower costs

d. Greater security

Scalability.

The most important advantage of the distributed model of computing is that the system easily scales. The downsides are that there is duplication of effort, higher costs, and lessened security.

Which of the following software packages is an example of GroupWare?

a. Novell GroupWise

b. Adobe InDesign

c. Oracle Database

d. Microsoft Windows

Novell GroupWise.

Novell GroupWise is a software product that allows groups to work together. This collaborative software allows for communication, document management, and calendaring. It can run on a variety of systems, allowing the users to pick their preferred hardware.

Which of the following is a system that can deal with large amounts of information, integrate far-ranging data, and deliver high quality of service?

a. Database Management System

b. Enterprise Information System

c. Client-Server System

d. Collaborative Software System

Enterprise Information System.

An Enterprise Information System is a system that can provide for the needs of an entire enterprise. It must therefore be able to handle large amounts of information, have strong data-integration tools, and run with very little down time.

Which of the following is a natural data hierarchy?

a. Sentences

b. Byte

c. Nibble

d. Sector

Sentences.

Sentences are a natural data hierarchy, as they are not based on-or limited by-any computer-internal limitations.

The process of adjusting tables to remove duplicate data from a relational database is called

a. normalization.

b. compression.

c. indexing.

d. joining.

normalization.

Normalization is a process in which the same data present in multiple fields in one table is moved to a separate table and replaced by a pointer to the data. This reduces the total amount of data stored in the database.

Which of the following would be a possible natural key in a table containing employee records?

a. Employee ID number

b. Record number

c. Last name

d. Phone number

Employee ID number.

Since employee ID numbers are unique, there will only be one record with this key. Last names and phone numbers may well be shared by other employees, while the record number-while unique-is not a natural key.

Which of the following should NOT be taken into account when constructing a logical data model?

a. The output of the system

b. The DBMS the system is to run on

c. The inputs into the system

d. The data that are to be stored

The DBMS the system is to run on.

The logical model of a database is entirely independent of the database system on which it is being run. It should be possible to move the data from one system to another without loss of data.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of distributed databases?

a. Modularity

b. Reliance on networks

c. Improved availability

d. Performance improvements

Reliance on networks.

Since a distributed database depends strongly on the ability of the network over which it is connected to be available, any disturbance to the network can severely hinder the operation of the database.

SQL refers to a language that operates on which type of database?

a. Relational

b. Network

c. Hierarchical

d. Object-Oriented

Relational.

SQL (Shortened from Sequel-Structured English Query Language) is a language that operates on relational databases. It was designed at IBM, but has been the basis for numerous database products, and is today both an ANSI and ISO standard.

Which of the following is NOT part of the SQL DDL?

a. CREATE

b. ALTER

c. SELECT

d. DROP

SELECT.

The data definition language in SQL operates on database objects, rather than the data these objects contain. Objects (such as databases and tables) can be created, altered, or dropped. A select statement operates on the data, not the database objects.

In relational databases, the information about a database, its tables, and the names of rows and columns in the tables is called

a. DDL.

b. Metadata.

c. DML.

d. SELECT.

Metadata.

Metadata are data about data. In most relational databases, the information about how the tables are set up is stored in a further set of tables. This data is manipulated by the DDL.

The process by which multiple data streams are transmitted over a single transmission medium by interleaving the bits of the different data streams is called

a. code-division multiplexing.

b. time-division multiplexing.

c. frequency-division multiplexing.

d. wavelength-division multiplexing.

time-division multiplexing.

Time-division multiplexing breaks up the incoming data channels into fixed-length packets, which are interleaved on the outgoing data channel. In this way, large numbers of channels with low data rates can be transmitted on a single, higher-speed channel.

What must be done when moving a host from one side of a router to the other?

a. No changes must be made.

b. The host must get a new IP address.

c. The host must be physically moved.

d. The router must be reconfigured.

The host must get a new IP address.

Since the subnetworks on either side of a router are different, the host must have a different IP address when moved. In a bridged network, there would be no need for this reconfiguration.

The method for allocating an IP address to a computer by a central server is called

a. TCP/IP.

b. DHCP.

c. VPN.

d. RARP.

DHCP.

Under the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), a computer accessing a network is assigned an IP address by the network DHCP server. This address can either be permanently assigned or be recycled once the computer is disconnected from the network.

In which of the following is the connection between the originating and receiving node fixed before the data are sent?

I. ATM

II. IP

III. PSTN

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and III

d. III only

I and III.

In the Internet Protocol (IP), each packet of data from a single session may be sent on a different route across the network. In both ATM (asynchronous transfer mode) and PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network), the connections are fixed before the data begin flowing.

The baud rate in communications is

a. equal to the bit rate of transmission.

b. less than the bit rate of transmission.

c. more than the bit rate of transmission.

d. may be less than or the same as the bit rate.

may be less than or the same as the bit rate.

The baud rate expresses the number of changes in the signal being made in a second. However, since multiple bits may be encoded in one change, the bit rate of transmission may be much higher. At a minimum, each change encodes one bit, so the bit rate will, at worst, equal the baud rate.

Which of the following allows for either voice communication or sub-64k data transmission?

a. POTS

b. ISDN

c. DSL

d. LAN

POTS.

Plain old telephone service (POTS) has been the standard for telephone connections since the end of the 19th century. Although it technically has 64k bandwidth, the fact that data must be converted into and out of analog signals reduces the true bandwidth to maximally 56k.

ISDN systems have which advantage over standard phone systems?

a. Can transmit either voice or data signals

b. Have separate control channels

c. Can be used to call any phone worldwide

d. Can do call waiting and caller ID

Have separate control channels.

One advantage that ISDN systems have is that, in addition to the voice/data channel or channels, they also have separate control channels so that information can continue to flow to or from a phone while it is being used.

Which of the following is the lowest level in the OSI reference model?

a. Transport layer

b. Network layer

c. Physical layer

d. Application layer

Physical layer.

The physical layer is the lowest of the layers referred to in the OSI reference model. The physical layer consists of all network cables, including their physical attributes, as well as such hardware as routers, switches, and hubs.

The network topology refers to which of the following?

a. The space in which the network resides

b. The pattern of links between network nodes

c. The network’s speed

d. The standards used by the network

The pattern of links between network nodes.

A network’s topology refers to the pattern made by the links (cables or other connectors) and the nodes (computers or other network devices) that constitute the network. Network topologies depend on the hardware and protocols used by the network.

What would be the final destination of a UUCP message addressed to dale!fred!tom!bert?

a. User dale at computer bert

b. User tom at computer bert

c. User bert at computer tom

d. User bert at computer dale

User bert at computer tom.

In UUCP, the address is a list of computers between the sending and the receiving computers, followed by the user name at the receiving computer. In the above example, the message would pass through computers dale and fred before arriving at computer tom, where the message would be placed in the inbox of user bert.

Which of the following IP addresses would be located in a private network?

a. 199.239.136.245

b. 192.168.45.121

c. 12.130.91.101

d. 12.129.147.65

192.168.45.121

The IANA has reserved 3 blocks of IP addresses for use by private networks. One of these blocks is from 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255, in which 192.168.45.121 is contained. Any addresses within this block are not globally unique.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper cables?

a. Higher bandwidth

b. Can cover greater distances

c. Easier to splice

d. Less crosstalk

Easier to splice.

Copper cables are easier to splice than fiber optic cables, making them the choice for simple, lower-cost, and lower-power cabling jobs.

What is the process of going backwards in the systems development life cycle called?

a. Reverse engineering

b. Reengineering

c. Maintenance

d. Decompilation

Reverse engineering.

The process of reverse engineering takes a system and analyzes it in order to describe it at a higher level of abstraction.

Which of the following is a method used to restructure code without changing what it does?

a. Editing

b. Compiling

c. Code generation

d. Refactoring

Refactoring.

Refactoring is the term for changing the structure of a computer program’s source code without changing what the program does. It is done to improve readability or to allow for further changes to be done to the code.

A software tool that combines editing, compiling, and (usually) versioning tools in one integrated environment is called

a. IDE.

b. UML.

c. GUI.

d. CPU.

IDE.

An Integrated Development Environment is a tool used by programmers to help in developing programs. It includes editing, compiling (or interpreter), and build tools. Many IDEs also include versioning and debugging tools.

A UML tool can take existing source code and derive a UML model from it. What is this called?

a. Reengineering

b. Reverse engineering

c. Refactoring

d. Code generation

Reverse engineering.

Reverse engineering done by a UML tool takes existing source code and creates the UML diagram that describes the data structures. Reverse engineering can be done either to understand code written by others or to help in reengineering the code.

Which of the following would be the first step in introducing end-user computing?

a. Installing software

b. Upgrading hardware

c. Training users

d. Classifying users

Classifying users.

Before end-user computing can be introduced, the users in question must be classified in order to determine which level of software should be given to each one. This requires determining what they are expected to achieve, and thus how open their computer should be.

Which of the following is the traditional method of project management?

a. Agile

b. Iterative

c. Phased

d. Incremental

Phased.

The phased approach to project management sets up the steps to completion of the project at the very beginning of the project, while newer methods work in much shorter time frames, completing an iteration in a short period of time.

Which of the following does NOT occur during the implementation stage of the system life cycle?

a. Testing

b. Documentation

c. Training

d. Conversion

Documentation.

Documentation should be produced during the design and development phases of the system life cycle. Documentation must be available to users during the implementation phase of the process.

Which of the following is done during the preliminary investigation step in systems life cycle development?

a. Define the need for a system.

b. Define the requirements of a system.

c. Define the outputs of a system.

d. Define the inputs to a system.

Define the need for a system.

The preliminary investigation step of systems life cycle development is interested entirely in determining what the current situation is and whether it is necessary for a new system to be developed. The output of this step would be a document defining the need for a new system (or that the current setup can continue to be used).

In extreme programming, how many software engineers are assigned to each individual class being written?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. Any number

2.

One hallmark of extreme programming is the use of paired programming, where two developers sit at one workstation to produce code.

Under traditional system development, which of the following are NOT members of the development team?

a. Program manager

b. Technical lead

c. Users

d. Programmers

Users.

During development, the users are not part of the active team. Their input has been sought during analysis, and will be important during testing and delivery.

In which of the following cases might pilot conversion be used?

a. The system contains complex data that needs to be transferred.

b. A small system needs to be converted.

c. Only a small number of users are affected by the migration.

d. A new system with new data is being created.

The system contains complex data that needs to be transferred.

Pilot conversion programs make the most sense when the data that need to be converted are quite complex, in order to ensure that the conversion routines are working fully before continuing migration.

Which of the following is a problem with enterprise analysis?

a. It may not get the data needed for analysis.

b. It can create too much data to be fully analyzed.

c. It looks only at certain aspects of the enterprise.

d. It does not look at interactions with other enterprises.

It can create too much data to be fully analyzed.

Enterprise analysis is a method for looking at an entire enterprise to determine how it works and how it can be improved. Though a powerful tool, it tends to create too much data, and be too complicated a method for any but the smallest enterprises.

The spiral model of development uses which of the following strategies of system development?

I. Top-down

II. Bottom-up

III. Agile

a. I only

b. III only

c. I and II

d. II and III

I and II.

The spiral model of systems development was designed to take into account both top-down and bottom-up strategies of systems development. The spiral model assumes that there will be continuous iteration of analysis, design, coding, and testing of software, with each iteration bringing the system closer to the final design.

Testing, training, and data conversion are all part of which stage of systems development?

a. Design

b. Maintenance

c. Installation

d. Analysis

Installation.

During the installation stage of systems development, software and hardware are installed so that users can use them. To do so, users must be trained and data must be converted from the old system to the new system. While this is being done, tests must be continually run to ensure that the system works as well in practice as it does in development.

IBM’s business system planning (BSP) method is rarely used these days. Which of the following would be one of the reasons for this?

a. BSP is not oriented to data as much as modern systems are.

b. BSP does not cover all areas newer methods do.

c. BSP is very comprehensive and therefore time consuming and expensive.

d. BSP does not have a firmly defined set of steps.

BSP is very comprehensive and therefore time consuming and expensive.

BSP is a system devised in the early 1970s. It was designed to be as comprehensive as possible, and therefore has been supplanted by methods that are not as expensive in time and money.

Which of the following are parts of an MIS department?

I. Development

II. Production support

III. Sales

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II

d. I, II, and III

I and II.

MIS departments exist mainly to help design, implement, and support systems for use in their own company. They do not sell their services to outside entities.

MIS most often bases its recommendations on the results of research done in which area?

a. Physics

b. Operations research

c. Electrical engineering

d. Computer science

Operations research.

Operations research is marked by its ability to look at entire systems, rather than a specific aspect of it. It is thus a field whose results give a number of methods for an MIS management team to use in analyzing a system.

Which of the following is external information an MIS may need to be able to process?

a. Sales figures

b. Demographic data

c. Worker productivity

d. Production costs

Demographic data.

Demographic shifts affect the focus of an enterprise, and are an important input into forecasting tools used. An MIS that is used for this purpose should be able to import and process this sort of data.

In direct cutover, the change from one system to another happens in what way?

a. From one moment to the next

b. Gradually, step by step

c. Never

d. In order of increasing value to the company

From one moment to the next.

Direct cutover is a term for replacing an old system by a new one on a specific day. This approach requires a maximum of planning, testing, and teaching in order to work smoothly.

Enterprise Resource Planning systems are most likely to be used in which industries?

a. Software

b. Manufacturing

c. Banking

d. Insurance

Manufacturing.

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems help in automating business practices for operations, production, and distribution in manufacturing companies. A key aspect of ERP systems is the control of business activities such as billing, quality management, and sales.

Which data from an organization are stored in a data warehouse?

a. All current and historical data

b. Historical data only

c. Current data only

d. Metadata

All current and historical data.

In order for management reporting tools to work on the analysis of data, all data-both current and historical-about an organization must be kept in the data warehouse. Tools to analyze this data can deliver insightful reports only if the data are kept complete and current.

Systems that are used to process the internals of a company’s business are called

a. office automation systems.

b. back office systems.

c. decision support systems.

d. electronic meeting systems.

back office systems.

Back-office systems take care of such activities as accounting that are required to keep a company operating, but are not visible by the customers.

A bar chart used to visualize the timing and interdependencies of a project is called a

a. histogram.

b. Gantt chart.

c. candlestick chart.

d. omograph.

Gantt chart.

Gantt charts show time on the x-axis of a graph and different resources on the y-axis. This allows an easy overview of the timing of a project. Interdependencies can also be shown with vertical lines connecting two resource timelines.

A data warehouse

a. consists of multiple, different databases.

b. allows for queries using a common query tool.

c. allows for multiple standards.

d. is a repository for all business data.

allows for queries using a common query tool.

Data warehouses house all the important business data in a single, uniform way that allows for queries done by a single query tool. They integrate the data from the various source databases before storing them, speeding up queries and other searches.

Which of the following would be a likely output from an executive support system?

a. Subroutines

b. Windows

c. Pie charts

d. Processes

Pie charts.

Executive support systems are used to present company data to the executives running the company in a straightforward and easily read format. A pie chart would be an excellent way of displaying certain types of this data.

An electronic document management (EDM) system would NOT allow a user to do which of the following?

a. Read a document written by someone else.

b. Change a document without logging changes.

c. Forward a document to another user.

d. Set protections on a document so no one else can read it.

Change a document without logging changes.

The principal task of an EDM is to ensure that any changes made to a document are logged, and that preferably, all intermediate versions of a document are saved so that previous versions can always be recovered.

The most likely user of a decision support system would be a

a. programmer.

b. vice president.

c. clerical worker.

d. salesperson.

vice president.

Decision support systems support the user in making decisions. The most likely decision maker in the list would be a vice president.

Systems to automate and integrate business practices in manufacturing companies are called

a. RFQ.

b. ERP.

c. EIS.

d. DSS.

ERP.

Enterprise resource planning (ERP) is a term derived from manufacturing resource planning (MRP II) that followed material requirements planning (MRP). ERP systems typically handle the manufacturing, logistics, distribution, inventory, shipping, invoicing, and accounting for a company.

Which of the following is NOT generally true of intelligent agent software?

a. It can adapt.

b. It uses precepts of artificial intelligence.

c. It can only solve pre-defined questions.

d. It can analyze itself.

It can only solve pre-defined questions.

Intelligent agent software is software that uses artificial intelligence to adapt itself to the problems set by the user. Also referred to as an autonomous agent, this software is capable of answering a wide variety of questions.

Which of the following best describes an SRM?

a. A system for tracking customer issues

b. A system for automating administrative duties

c. A system for managing hardware

d. A system for tracking the sourcing and purchasing of inventory

A system for tracking the sourcing and purchasing of inventory.

Supplier relationship management (SRM) is an information system used to automate all aspects of supplier interaction. Some of the subsystems of SRM are sourcing, purchasing, and supplier relations.

A decision support system (DSS) that finds and retrieves information that is NOT in any predefined format is called a

a. data-driven DSS.

b. model-driven DSS.

c. document-driven DSS.

d. knowledge-driven DSS.

document-driven DSS.

A document-driven DSS can manage, search, and retrieve electronic files that have no fixed internal structure. These DSSs are used when dealing with data from many sources in many different formats. They differ from a data-driven DSS in that the data in the latter are well formatted and usually all from one source.

Which of the following best describes EMS?

a. They are executive information systems.

b. They are group decision support systems.

c. They are management information systems.

d. They are transaction-processing systems.

They are group decision support systems.

Although electronic meeting systems (EMS) are a type of MIS, they are best described as group decision support systems. EMS assist groups in creating and discussing ideas, which will assist in finding decisions.

In which of the following systems is backward chaining reasoning most often used?

a. Transaction processing systems

b. Expert systems

c. Office automation systems

d. Telecommunications systems

Expert systems.

Expert systems use backward chaining (also called goal-driven reasoning) to work from known goals to find data that will support these goals.

Which of the following is a part of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

a. Public companies must retain all records, including electronic records, pertaining to the company’s performance.

b. Any attempt to circumvent anti-piracy measures built into software is a crime.

c. Provides for ensuring that the integrity, quality, and objectivity of data released by federal agencies is maximized.

d. Requires banks to report certain transactions to the government.

Public companies must retain all records, including electronic records, pertaining to the company’s performance.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act was passed in reaction to the corporate scandals of the 1990s. It expanded the role of the CIO in signing off on audits, and required that electronic data would be handled in the same way as paper-based records.

Which of the following is an encryption algorithm useful for both signing and encryption?

a. DES

b. PKI

c. DSA

d. RSA

RSA.

The Rivest-Shamir-Adelman (RSA) algorithm was the first algorithm useful for both signing and encryption. It uses public-key encryption, making it useful for a wide variety of applications.

Which of the following would be the most secure password?

a. lkatsa

b. secret

c. s3cr3t

d. jak1ls

jak1ls.

A password should consist of a series of letters and numbers that do not make a real word. Any word that is in the dictionary is vulnerable to the brute-force method of password guessing.

Which of the following is NOT a part of physical computer security?

a. Locks

b. Fences

c. Authentication

d. Safes

Authentication.

Physical computer security involves stopping any unauthorized physical access to computer hardware and software. Authentication ensures that only users who correctly identify themselves are allowed to access the resources of a computer.

Which of the following is used to ensure that security-relevant source or object code cannot be reverse engineered to determine how it works?

a. Decompilation

b. Translation

c. Code obfuscation

d. Code completion

Code obfuscation.

Code is obfuscated by removing any obvious hints to what the code does by renaming classes, attributes, and methods to meaningless sequences of letters. Code obfuscation makes reverse engineered code much more difficult to understand, and is important in keeping the methods of encryption undetectable.

Which of the following best describes liability, as pertains to information systems?

a. Damages caused by incorrect software

b. Money borrowed from others

c. Damages caused by incorrect application of software

d. Pension obligations

Damages caused by incorrect software.

In information systems, liability is the term used for damages caused by faulty software that must be made good in some way. Software manufacturers try to limit their liability to the value of the software, rather than the damages done by the software.

Which of the following systems is most likely to be used to protect against crime, both internal and external?

a. ERP

b. DSS

c. TPS

d. OAS

ERP.

Enterprise Resource Planning systems have built-in controls to help determine whether unauthorized users are accessing the system. Since ERP systems are installed in many mission-critical areas of a company, keeping unauthorized users from accessing the data is an important part of the ERP system’s job.

The standard code used for encoding text data into computer-readable numbers is called?

a. BCD

b. EBCDIC

c. ISO

d. ASCII

ASCII.

ASCII is the American Standard Code for Information Interchange, and has become the standard way to represent text in computers, communications equipment, and other text-based devices.

Very high-speed memory that is used to duplicate data stored elsewhere so that it is more readily available to the processor is called?

a. Memory

b. Cache

c. Buffer

d. Interface

Cache.

A cache stores data so that they are available more quickly than if the data were to be retrieved from their original storage medium (which could be the main memory or the hard disk, or any other storage). Caches are used when the data are being repeatedly accessed, and the overhead from retrieving the data from the original medium is too high.

Information with no context is called

a. knowledge.

b. facts.

c. data .

d. intelligence.

data.

Though “information” and “data” are often treated as synonyms, information is data plus a context. Because of this, and to point out the difference, data are often also called “raw data.”

Which of the following is the most memory?

a. A kilobyte

b. A terabyte

c. A megabyte

d. A gigabyte

A terabyte.

Tera- is a prefix meaning “Trillion.” A terabyte is one trillion bytes. A gigabyte is one billion; a megabyte one million; and a kilobyte, one thousand bytes.

Which of the following refers to the sequential execution of a series of programs on a computer?

a. Parallel processing

b. Transaction processing

c. Batch processing

d. Multi-processing

Batch processing.

Batch processing refers to a process by which programs are queued up for processing. While each process is run, it has sole control over the computer. Batch processing was used extensively with early mainframes; most computers now have schedulers that keep any single process from monopolizing the CPU.

A reasonableness check would be performed in order to avoid entering

a. the character “k” into a social security number field.

b. a misspelled name into a last name field.

c. a birth date over 100 years old into a day-of-birth field.

d. an entry of “green” into an eye-color field.

the character “k” into a social security number field.

In running reasonableness checks on data entered, only such data that are provably wrong can be rejected. Since there is no way of determining how, exactly, someone spells their last name, there can be no check that determines whether it is spelled right or wrong. Social security numbers consist entirely of the numbers 0-9, plus the “-” character. Any other input should be rejected.

A computer program that translates from a low-level language to a higher level language is known as a

a. compiler.

b. decompiler.

c. transcompiler.

d. cascader.

decompiler.

Decompilers take executable-or other low-level code-and reconstruct the high-level code that could have created the lower level code. Decompilers exist to help in recovering lost source code as well as aiding in computer security, interoperability, and error correction.

A system that exchanges only predefined data with its surroundings is called a(n)

a. probabilistic system.

b. open system.

c. closed system.

d. relatively closed system.

relatively closed system.

Open systems can take both predefined and unknown inputs. Closed systems have no input or output. Relatively closed systems allow only for well-defined inputs and outputs.

What method CANNOT be used to decouple two subsystems?

a. Slack capacity

b. Clustering

c. Flexible resources

d. A buffer

Clustering.

Clustering is a method to bring multiple subsystems closer together, in order to simplify the interfaces between them. Slack capacity and buffering allow for greater processing from either the supplying or receiving subsystem without additional coordination. Flexible resources allow for last-minute changes.

A system whose operation is completely predictable is called a(n)

a. probabilistic system.

b. artificial system.

c. open system.

d. deterministic system.

deterministic system.

A deterministic system is one in which the same output is generated every time, given the same input. A probabilistic system, in contrast, has outputs that vary from time to time, so it is impossible to predict which output will happen in a given run. Properly working software and hardware are examples of deterministic systems.

In order to create a just-in-time system, which of the following should be done?

a. All decoupling in the system must be avoided.

b. The system must be turned into a closed system.

c. The objectives of the system must be rethought.

d. Subsystems must be made more independent.

All decoupling in the system must be avoided.

A just-in-time system is one in which decoupling has been removed as much as possible. There is no slack in the inventory or the productive resources. The subsystems are tightly integrated with one another.

In analyzing a system, what two attributes should be foremost in guiding the changes to be made?

a. Constraints and integration

b. Interfaces and integration

c. Objectives and interfaces

d. Objectives and constraints

Objectives and constraints.

In analyzing a system, the first objective should be to determine the objectives of a system (what the system is to do) and its constraints (what the parameters of the system are to be). Once these have been determined, the interfaces to other systems can be codified, while integration is the final step in implementing a system.

In an inventory tracking system, which of the following is NOT an input?

a. A list of items to be added to the inventory

b. A query about items in stock

c. A request to remove an item from stock

d. A list of items in low supply

A list of items in low supply.

The inputs of a system consist of all pieces of information to be added to a system. This includes all queries, as well as data that will be physically included. Outputs are generated by the system. The list of items in short supply is an output from the system.

Which of the following best describes the monitoring system of a nuclear power plant?

a. A human-machine system

b. An automated system

c. An autonomous system

d. A black-box system

A human-machine system.

The monitoring of a nuclear power plant is a complex and dynamic system that requires both automatic and human responses. These types of systems are called human-machine systems.

Which of the following is a diachronic aspect of a system?

a. The database

b. The ability to add new inputs

c. The original intention of the system

d. The response time of the system

The ability to add new inputs.

Diachronic attributes of a system are those relating to a system’s change or evolution. Allowing new inputs would be one of these. Diachronic attributes should be considered in designing a system, to allow for change where it might be needed in the future.

Coupled subsystems

a. influence one another.

b. are physically adjacent.

c. cannot communicate.

d. transmit data.

influence one another.

The output of one coupled subsystem influences the input of the next subsystem. They do not have to be physically juxtaposed or transmit data directly, but do need to be able to communicate in some way.

Which of the following is a back-channel communication?

a. A customer support engineer mentions to the CIO that the bug-tracking system is broken.

b. A tester enters a new bug into the bug-tracking system.

c. The head of testing sends an e-mail to the CIO indicating the number of bugs currently being tracked.

d. The CIO calls a meeting with the programmers to discuss the number of unresolved bugs.

A customer support engineer mentions to the CIO that the bug-tracking system is broken.

The system described here has multiple channels of communication available to the users. The one that is not foreseen is a customer support engineer talking to the CIO. This is a back-channel communication.

Which of the following has NOT been used as an input medium for computers?

a. Keyboards

b. Punch cards

c. Pins

d. Paper tape

Pins.

Punch cards and paper tape were early input media for computers, keyboards were added soon thereafter and continue to be the most important method of inputting data into computers.

Determining the fundamental similarities between sets of data is called

a. abstraction.

b. instantiation.

c. hypothesis.

d. compilation.

abstraction.

Abstraction is used in data modeling to determine the fundamental similarities between two sets of data. This helps generate a template for the data that can be programmed.

A program that is to run a time-sensitive application should be written in a language that is

a. interpreted.

b. compiled.

c. compact.

d. object-oriented.

compiled.

Compiled programs run more quickly than interpreted programs, as the conversion from human-readable code to machine-runnable code is done before the program executes. Neither the size of the original code nor whether it is object-oriented or not has any direct effect on the speed of execution.

What is the term for programs that can run under different operating systems on different computers?

a. Binary executable

b. Interoperable

c. Platform independent

d. Platform specific

Platform independent.

Programs that can run under a variety of different operating systems and on different hardware platforms are called platform independent. Care must be taken that there are no platform-specific calls within the programs, even if the programming language being used is platform independent.

Before object code can be run, it must be

a. compiled.

b. linked.

c. edited.

d. saved.

linked.

Object code is the output from a compiler. It is a compact representation of the source code and must be linked with other modules or libraries before it can actually be executed on a computer.

A compiler that outputs executable code for a system on which it does not run is called a

a. cross compiler.

b. cross assembler.

c. virtual machine.

d. transcompiler.

cross compiler.

Cross compilers create executable code for systems under which they do not run. They are useful for writing code for machines that aren’t powerful enough to run a compiler, as well as for allowing the same code to be compiled in order to run on multiple machines.

Memory that can be written to and is erased by exposing it to UV light is called

a. EEPROM.

b. ROM.

c. EPROM.

d. PROM.

EPROM.

Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory is nonvolatile memory that can only be erased by exposing it to UV light. They cannot be selectively erased, and can be erased and rewritten any number of times.

Which of the following represents the smallest amount of memory?

a. Cache

b. Register

c. Main memory

d. Hard disk drive

Register.

The registers in a CPU are very fast memory locations. They are used to briefly hold intermediate results of calculations. There are only a very limited number of registers in any CPU.

C belongs to which generation of computer languages?

a. First

b. Second

c. Third

d. Fourth

Third.

High-level languages such as C belong to the third generation of computer languages, succeeding machine languages and assembly languages. High-level languages allow a much greater abstraction from the internals of the computer being used.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the structure of an information system?

a. Repository

b. Interface

c. Message

d. Channel

Message.

Repositories, interfaces, and channels are all part of the physical structure of an information system. Messages are part of the behavior of the IS.

The number of different colors that can be displayed by a pixel in a system where each pixel is represented by 3 bytes

a. is 256.

b. is 65,536.

c. is 16,777,216.

d. depends on the system.

is 16,777,216.

A system using 3 bytes, 24 bits, per pixel can display 224 different colors. 224 is 16,777,216.

At what system level would custom software most likely be in use?

a. Individual

b. Workgroup

c. Enterprise

d. Interorganizational

Enterprise.

Writing software to be used by individuals or workgroups is usually not cost effective, while running software that others do not have access to makes the enterprise level the most likely to use custom software. Software written for a single individual or workgroup usually does not pay for itself in time or manpower savings.

Which of the following programs is used to send messages around the globe using the Internet?

a. Microsoft Word

b. Microsoft Outlook

c. Microsoft Access

d. Microsoft Publisher

Microsoft Outlook.

Microsoft Outlook is a tool that allows users to create, edit, send, and receive e-mail messages. Outlook passes these messages to an e-mail server that then transmits them via the Internet.

Which of the following network types would be best suited to a workgroup that is contained in the same building?

a. WAN

b. LAN

c. MAN

d. CAN

LAN.

A workgroup is best connected with a local area network (LAN) that allows for high-speed transmission of data between geographically close computers. LANs do not require leased telecommunications devices, as all connections are locally owned and maintained.

Which of the following is the best format to electronically distribute documents outside an organization?

a. DOC

b. PDF

c. TXT

d. WPS

PDF.

When distributing documents, it is important that the document can be read by every user who needs to read it. Furthermore, PDF documents will appear exactly the same on every computer that displays them. Finally, third parties cannot easily modify the document, so that errors cannot be added later by unauthorized users.

ERP systems are usually implemented by

a. a sysadmin.

b. an outside vendor.

c. an adhoc working group.

d. the CIO.

an outside vendor.

Since Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems are extremely large and complex, they are usually implemented by outside vendors or consulting companies, who have experience in implementing such systems.

Under what circumstance would it be of great importance that each member of a workgroup use the same word-processing software?

a. When members must read texts written by other members

b. When members must edit texts written by others

c. When texts are to be sent to users outside the workgroup

d. When users need to read texts downloaded from the Internet

When members must edit texts written by others.

When editing documents is to be a collaborative effort, it is important that users have access to the same editing software. Although most editors offer the possibility of exporting files in different formats, this often results in mangled documents that must first be reformatted before they can be properly edited.

Which of the following would be the best way for workgroups to keep in touch?

a. Phone

b. E-mail

c. Teleconference

d. Message board

Message board.

A message board (also Internet forum) allows users to have online discussions that are available for all to see. Every user may start a discussion thread or add a comment to an existing thread. There is a wide variety of software available to run this, and any web browser can be used to access the board.

Which of the following provides an open source replacement for the Microsoft Office suite?

a. OpenOffice

b. WordPerfect

c. StarOffice

d. SmartSuite

OpenOffice.

OpenOffice is an open source, free version of the Microsoft Office suite. OpenOffice can import and export any Office file format, as well as a wide variety of other formats.

A specialized database that contains well-organized information about the operation of an organization plus the tools to store and retrieve this data is called?

a. Configuration management

b. Search engine

c. Knowledge base

d. Documentation

Knowledge base.

A knowledge base is a database containing such documents as white papers, manuals, articles, and troubleshooting guides that are used in an enterprise. They are carefully classified for easy retrieval and usually have a search engine for aiding in finding the needed document.

A system in which a transaction needs two or more processors to complete is called?

a. Cooperative processing

b. Interactive processing

c. Parallel processing

d. Dynamic processing

Cooperative processing.

Cooperative processing is done in systems in which two or more processors are needed to complete a single transaction. The subsystems on the different computers need not be running simultaneously for the transaction to be completed.

Which of the following would NOT be part of a groupware package?

a. E-mail

b. Data conferencing

c. Spreadsheets

d. Document management

Spreadsheets.

Groupware consists of communication tools, both asynchronous (such as email) and synchronous (such as conferencing), and management tools such as document management, workflow systems, and calendars. A spreadsheet might be used to create a document, but would not be considered part of the groupware system.

Which of the following software products would most likely be used at the enterprise level of a company?

a. Microsoft Excel

b. OpenOffice

c. Mozilla Firefox

d. SAP R/3

SAP R/3.

SAP R/3 is an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system that can integrate and automate many of the processes used in a corporation. It is installed at the enterprise level in order to give it the maximum leverage in acquiring data.

An interconnected set of data objects that allows for information storage and retrieval is called data

a. field.

b. model.

c. storage.

d. hierarchy.

hierarchy.

A data hierarchy is a systematic organization of data in hierarchical form. The data is stored using parent-child relationships.

A separate, internal table created by a database, containing a pointer to each entry in another table and sorted by an attribute other than the primary key of the other table, is called a(n)

a. index.

b. schema.

c. query.

d. join.

index.

Data indices are created to help organize data for easier searching. Instead of having to search through every entry to find data entries with specific values in non-key attributes, the database system can use the index to find this data.

The abstract model of the data to be stored in a database is called

a. a record.

b. a transaction.

c. a schema.

d. DDL.

a schema.

The schema of a database is the model of the data to be stored in the database. It is written in-and can be modified by-the data definition language (DDL).

The “A” in ACID stands for

a. Accuracy.

b. Adabas.

c. Access.

d. Atomicity.

Atomicity.

Atomicity is the first of four rules that transactional databases must follow. It means that in each transaction, the transaction must either be completed in the database or the database must be returned to the state in which it was before the transaction began. A transaction is therefore atomic and indivisible.

Which of the following are correct SQL select statements?

I. SELECT * FROM table1 WHERE id < 100; II. SELECT name FROM table1 WHERE id >; 100

III. SELECT FROM table1 WHERE id < 100; a. I only b. II only c. I and III d. I, II, and III.

I only.

An SQL select statement must end with a semicolon, and must contain either a list of fields or “*” to indicate which fields are to be returned. Only I has both of these, and is therefore a correct SQL statement.

Adabas is what kind of database?

a. Relational

b. Network

c. Hierarchical

d. Object-Oriented

Hierarchical.

Adabas is a hierarchical database and one of the first commercial database systems, released in the late 1970s. It continues to be used on a variety of systems due to its strong transactional capabilities, high reliability, and replication technologies.

Embedded SQL allows you to write code in which of the following languages?

I. Java

II. COBOL

III. FORTRAN

a. I, only.

b. II only

c. I and III

d. I, II, and III.

I, II, and III.

Embedded SQL can be run from a large number of programming languages, called host languages. SQL has been embedded into most commonly used programming languages, including Java, COBOL, and FORTRAN.

In the network model of databases, a child can have how many parents?

a. Exactly 1

b. 1 or 2

c. Exactly 2

d. More than 1

More than 1.

The network model allows parents to have any number of children, and children to have any number of parents. This allows for extreme flexibility in storing data, but slows down searches.

Sending insecure data over the Internet in a secure way by encapsulating one protocol within another is called

a. file sharing.

b. encryption.

c. tunneling.

d. remote mounting.

tunneling.

Tunneling allows a user to send data securely through an insecure system-in this case, the Internet. An example is SSH tunneling used in Windows. By starting an SSH session, a user can remotely mount a file system without fear that someone else watching the traffic on the Internet can read the data. The data is encrypted at one end and decrypted at the other without the user having to do any further work.

Which of the following is a system for transporting large quantities of data over fiber optic systems where the parts of the network are almost synchronized?

a. SONET

b. SDH

c. PDH

d. ATM

PDH.

Plesiochronous Digital Hierarchy (PDH) is a communications technology in which multiple streams of data are multiplexed together over a transport medium such as fiber optics. It is assumed that the data streams will have slightly different clock speeds, which the system can adjust for by signaling that bits are missing and will be ignored during demultiplexing.

A parity bit ensures that

a. there is space between any two bytes transmitted.

b. all transmission errors are caught.

c. some transmission errors are caught.

d. transmissions do not need to be repeated.

some transmission errors are caught.

Parity bits are simple tests to see whether the preceding data contains errors. However, if there are too many errors, a parity bit may not catch them. If an error has been found, the only way to fix the problem is to retransmit the data.

Which of the following network types allows a worldwide company to connect all of its subsidiaries together?

a. WAN

b. WLAN

c. LAN

d. MAN

WAN.

A wide area network (WAN) is a system for connecting geographically disparate computers together. The Internet is the best known WAN, and is used daily by companies with worldwide reach to communicate.

Which of the following is NOT true about asynchronous transmission of data?

a. The clocks of the sender and receiver must be in phase.

b. The sender and receiver must be connected.

c. It can be used to connect a computer to a printer.

d. Data can flow in either direction.

The clocks of the sender and receiver must be in phase.

The chief advantage of asynchronous communication is that it is not necessary for the clocks of the sending and receiving systems to be synchronized. Data can be sent in either direction.

The telephone system analog to the Internet is called

a. PBX.

b. PSTN.

c. TCP/IP.

d. ISDN.

PSTN.

The public switched telephone network (PSTN) covers all the point-to-point telephone lines in the world, much as the Internet covers all the computers connected to that network.

A telephone exchange owned and used by a private company is called

a. PSTN.

b. VOIP.

c. ISDN.

d. PBX.

PBX.

Private branch exchanges (PBX) are privately owned and used telephone exchanges that can connect calls both within the company and externally. They allow companies to have greater control over their local phone system, often allowing for more functions than would be possible otherwise.

Noise in a communications channel that is created by communications in another data channel is referred to as

a. static.

b. information.

c. crosstalk.

d. transmission.

crosstalk.

Crosstalk is the term used for communication from one channel leaking into another channel. On a telephone, this can often be heard as snippets of other conversations or other signals. In other communications systems, it adds noise to the signal, lowering the amount of signal that can be passed through the system.

Which TCP port is the official primary HTTP access port?

a. 20

b. 8000

c. 80

d. 8080

80.

IANA and later ICANN have a list of recommended ports to be used for specific protocols. HTTP has two ports assigned to it: the primary port is 80; the secondary (if a second HTTP server is running on the same machine) is 8080.

The standard for sending e-mail across the Internet is called

a. X.400.

b. TCP/IP.

c. SMTP.

d. MIME.

SMTP.

The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) has become the standard for sending e-mail across the Internet. It replaced X.400, which was much more complicated. SMTP is a simple, text-based protocol that can be easily implemented and tested.

In the address http://www.example.com, the top-level domain is which of the following?

a. com

b. example.com

c. http

d. www

com.

The top-level domain is the last part of an Internet address, the part after the last dot; in this case, “com.” The domains represented in an address get progressively more definitive from right to left, so the “com” represents the broadest area in which this address is located.

Which of the following is an unencrypted terminal program to connect one computer to another?

a. SFTP

b. SSH

c. TELNET

d. IRC

TELNET.

TELephone NETwork (TELNET) is a simple terminal emulator used to connect to another computer. Its main flaw is that it is unencrypted, and should therefore only be used on local networks or over secure networks.

The final step in the systems development life cycle is

a. installation.

b. implementation.

c. maintenance.

d. development.

maintenance.

The final step in the systems development life cycle is maintenance of the installed system. This is necessary to ensure that hardware problems and software bugs are found and corrected, and to ensure that the system evolves as needed in response to changing environmental factors.

Which of the following is a tool to allow automated testing of GUI-based programs?

a. NetBeans

b. WinRunner

c. Rational Rose

d. CVS

WinRunner.

WinRunner is a tool that allows the automated testing of GUI-based software. It can run through a suite of tests automatically, leaving testers to do finer tests that require real human input.

When designing a program using UML, the object model shows which information?

a. The relationship between the classes used by the system

b. The sequence of activities run by the system

c. The functions used by the end user of the system

d. The operational workflow of the system

The relationship between the classes used by the system.

A UML object model shows the classes, with attributes and methods, and their relationships. It does not show what function the system has, or what the internal workflow is.

Which of the following is the most widespread application used in end-user computing?

a. Word-processing systems

b. Spreadsheets

c. Java

d. Visual BASIC

Spreadsheets.

Spreadsheets are the most widely used applications in end-user computing. Creating a spreadsheet to solve a particular problem is a task best suited to the person (or group) that will actually be using the program.

In modeling languages, having one object contain another is called?

a. Composition

b. Aggregation

c. Association

d. Operation

Composition.

Composition is the term for one object containing another. Aggregation is when one object contains a pointer to another object.

Which of the following is a feature of agile software development but NOT of traditional software development methodologies?

a. Analysis

b. Iteration

c. Implementation

d. Development

Iteration.

In traditional software development methods, there is a linear progression from analysis to maintenance. In agile development, this process is iterated over multiple times, with the end result of each iteration a running software system that includes slightly more functionality than that produced by the previous iteration.

Which of the following is the output of the design phase of a system’s life cycle?

a. Documentation

b. Specification

c. Source code

d. Requirements

Specification.

The main output of the design phase is a series of specifications that describes how the system will be implemented. These specifications describe what is to be provided in later steps, and can be used to ensure that the final results match the original intentions.

Which of the following best describes integration testing?

a. Tests individual pieces of software

b. Tests the entire system at once

c. Tests groups of software modules

d. Tests each method of a module

Tests groups of software modules.

Integration testing combines different modules that have been individually tested and tests them as one complete subsystem. Once all subsystems have been validated, the entire system can be subjected to system testing.

In extreme programming, which of the following is written first?

a. Unit testing code

b. Class code

c. Integration testing code

d. Documentation

Unit testing code.

Writing test code before writing the code to pass these tests is called test-driven development and is used in extreme programming. The test code should follow closely the requirements of the final system, so that the tests are meaningful.

Which of the following is NOT a problem with rapid prototyping?

a. Managers think the prototype is the finished product.

b. Programmers reuse prototype code in the final product.

c. End-users’ needs are not met by the final product.

d. There’s too much emphasis on the GUI design and user interface.

End-users’ needs are not met by the final product.

Since prototyping quickly offers a view to the user of what the final product will look like, the users get a better sense of what the product will-and will not-do. This facilitates communication with the programmers, and lessens the chance that the final product will not address the issues important to the users.

What is the final step in decision making?

a. Problem definition

b. Choice

c. Information evaluation

d. Information acquisition

Choice.

The four steps of decision making are: problem definition, information acquisition, information evaluation and choice.

Which of the following is the output of the systems design phase of the SDLC?

a. Working code

b. Blueprint with specifications

c. Outline of information needs

d. System needs

Blueprint with specifications.

During systems design, the specifications-hardware, software, resources-for the final product are set down. The output should be a blueprint of specifications that describe the final system and give a road map to follow during coding of the system.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of iterative development?

a. The final design of the product is available before coding begins.

b. Coders can get started on writing code as quickly as possible.

c. Estimates become more accurate as time progresses.

d. Changes that are necessary are easier to include.

The final design of the product is available before coding begins.

In iterative development methods, the final design is not available until shortly before the product is finished. The design is constantly being refined as the system is being created.

CASE tools are most often used in which parts of the software development life cycle?

a. Analysis and design

b. Design and implementation

c. Implementation and maintenance

d. Investigation and analysis

Analysis and design.

Computer-Aided Software Engineering (CASE) tools can be used in every aspect of software design, but are most often used during the analysis and design phase.

Which of the following types of software are used in the management of multiple versions of the same software being developed by multiple programmers?

a. Integrated development environments

b. Revision control systems

c. Cross-compilers

d. Web browsers

Revision control systems.

Revision control software is used to keep multiple versions of the same software stored so that multiple programmers can make changes without the changes affecting others. The system can also track the evolution of the code so that it can be determined what changes were made, when and by whom.

The term for moving data from one system to another, newer system is called?

a. Migration

b. Reengineering

c. Data extraction

d. Data modeling

Migration.

Migration is the technical term for extracting data from an old system, revising the data to fit the new system’s data model, and entering the data into the new system.

Which of the following are responsible for tactical and operational planning of management information systems?

a. Users and system administrators

b. Steering committee and MIS managers

c. Chief information officer

d. Chief executive officer

Steering committee and MIS managers.

Steering committees and MIS managers are responsible for ensuring that management information systems that are to be created and installed in a company are appropriate to the long-term goals of the company.

What is the main disadvantage of having software custom-written over buying off-the-shelf software?

a. The software may not do what is needed.

b. The initial costs are much higher.

c. Software changes rapidly due to new releases.

d. Feature-bloat makes the software run slow.

The initial costs are much higher.

The advantage of custom software is that it does exactly what it is supposed to, with no extra features. The software also changes only as needed by the users. However, writing software is a very expensive proposition in both time and money and requires extensive testing before it can be installed and used.

Producing a system by giving another company the specifications for the system for them to produce is called

a. offshoring.

b. outsourcing.

c. inhousing.

d. downsizing.

outsourcing.

Outsourcing is giving any work formerly done in-house to another company. It requires sending out an exact specification for the work that is to be done.

Making changes to an installed system to add new features is called?

a. Perfective maintenance

b. Adaptive maintenance

c. Corrective maintenance

d. System maintenance

Adaptive maintenance.

System maintenance consists of three different types of maintenance. Adaptive maintenance changes the system by adding new features that become necessary as the needs of the company using the system change.

Which of the following is NOT an objective of a data quality audit?

a. Determine a quality measure of data.

b. Repair data found to be incorrect.

c. Document causes for bad data quality.

d. Create an assessment report.

Repair data found to be incorrect.

During the audit, no data are changed. Data are simply examined to make sure that they contain no errors, and recommendations are made to ensure that future additions to the data will be correct.

Which of the following levels of decision are addressed by management information systems?

I. Operational

II. Tactical

III. Strategic

a. I only

b. II only

c. II and III

d. I, II, and III.

I, II, and III.

Management information systems support decision making on all levels: operational, tactical and strategic. The information made available to managers can assist on any of these levels.

Which of the following best describes Software as a Service?

a. Software that performs a service

b. Software that is accessible to the user over the network

c. Software that is locally installed by a service provider

d. Software that can be downloaded from a central server

Software that is accessible to the user over the network.

Software as a Service (SaaS) is a term for allowing software to be run from a central server, rather than being locally installed. The plus is that there is no need for the user to keep track of versions of the software. If new versions are released, the central copies are updated and the user can access them thereafter.

Which of the following software packages is most likely to be employed for workflow management?

a. Lotus Notes

b. Microsoft Exchange

c. Linux

d. Oracle database

Lotus Notes.

Lotus Notes is client-server groupware that is used for workflow management. Although any software can be considered part of workflow management, groupware such as Lotus Notes is specifically designed for the task.

Expert systems are used in cases where

a. there is no single correct solution to a problem.

b. human input is not needed.

c. databases must be kept up-to-date.

d. data analysis is being made.

there is no single correct solution to a problem.

Expert systems apply rules to information inputted by the operator to find the most likely answers to a problem. The specific answers delivered by the system must then be analyzed by the operator to determine which is the correct answer.

Knowledge work systems are most likely to be used for which of the following tasks?

a. Managing a team of programmers

b. Programming a database system

c. Writing reports based on outside information

d. Deciding which application to install

Writing reports based on outside information.

Knowledge work systems are primarily used by knowledge workers, whose primary task is to work with information. They use as input information gleaned from many sources, and as output distill this information into a format useable by others. Writing reports based on outside information would be a likely task.

When a system is being written that is to help codify a certain area of expertise, which of the following methods would most likely be employed?

a. Expert system

b. Neural network

c. Artificial intelligence

d. Decision support system

Expert system.

An expert system has a limited field of expertise in which it operates. The questions it asks and answers it seeks can only come from a set of rules covering a sharply delineated area of knowledge.

A payroll system is a type of what system?

a. DSS

b. EIS

c. CRM

d. TPS

TPS.

Transaction processing systems are systems that ensure that all transactions performed by them are done correctly. A payroll system is designed to run transactions related to people’s money, so it must ensure that the transactions are completed properly.

A system that can handle large amounts of data and offer high standards of availability is called a(n)

a. management information system.

b. enterprise information system.

c. decision support system.

d. executive information system.

enterprise information system.

Enterprise information systems refer to a class of systems that can handle the complete data output of an organization, while being available 24/7. Many types of management information systems can be enterprise information systems, but not all MIS are enterprise information systems.

Which of the following metrics would be best used to ensure timely resolution of bugs?

a. Number of bugs filed per day

b. Number of bugs resolved per day

c. Average time between filing and resolution of bugs

d. Number of bugs filed per person

Average time between filing and resolution of bugs.

Determining how long, on average, it takes to resolve a bug is an important measure in dealing with bugs. Reducing this average time ensures that customers with problems will have their problems solved quickly and makes for happier customers.

Executive information systems are generally considered to be a subtype of which class of systems?

a. DSS

b. CRM

c. Expert systems

d. TPS

DSS.

Executive information systems (EIS) are systems that organize data in a way that allows executives to make better, more informed opinions. As such, they are a subclass of decision support systems (DSS), which can be implemented at any level of a company.

Which of the following is NOT required for an electronic meeting system (EMS)?

a. Networked computers

b. A hands-free telephone

c. A projection screen

d. Software

A hands-free telephone.

Although EMS may be used in a distributed manner, this is not necessary. If the system is used locally, no telephone is needed.

Sensitivity analysis would most likely be used in which of the following systems?

a. Decision support systems

b. Electronic meeting systems

c. Expert systems

d. Transaction processing systems

Decision support systems.

Sensitivity analysis is the determination of what effect changes in inputs have on the outputs of a process. In the business case, this allows managers to determine what costs have the most effect on profit. A decision support system would use this type of analysis to assist managers in their decisions.

Which of the following acts protects online service providers from being sued for content uploaded by their subscribers?

a. DMCA

b. CDA

c. ECPA

d. COPPA

CDA.

The relevant section of the Communications Decency Act (CDA) reads: “No provider or user of an interactive computer service shall be treated as the publisher or speaker of any information provided by another information content provider.” By not being treated as a publisher, the online service is not liable for anything that a user uploads, and therefore cannot be sued for information uploaded by a user.

Which of the following is a secure protocol to transfer data to and from a web browser?

a. HTTP

b. SSH

c. HTTPS

d. FTP

HTTPS.

HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a protocol for sending data to and from a web browser in a secure way. All data is encrypted before it is sent and decrypted at the other end.

At which point in the process is an edit check run against entered data?

a. During processing

b. While entering data

c. Before processing

d. After processing

Before processing.

Edit checks are tests run against the entered data after input has finished but before processing begins to make sure that there are no obvious errors in the data. This may be as simple as verifying that there are no non-numeric characters in input fields to running verifying checksums of data to comparing the sum total of data against known parameters to ensure they are legitimate.

Preventing unauthorized access to computer data via authentication and encryption schemes is called

a. software security.

b. logical computer security.

c. cryptography.

d. physical computer security.

logical computer security.

Logical computer security involves the use of passwords and encryption to stop unauthorized access to computers via the Internet or other network.

Which of the following is a form of encryption created by the U.S. government for voice transmission?

a. PGP

b. Clipper Chip

c. RSA

d. DES

Clipper Chip.

The clipper chip was developed and promoted by the U.S. government to encrypt telecommunications. It has been criticized because the algorithm used in the chip is classified, so that it cannot be tested for the quality of security it gives.

A policy to counter threats to computer security is called a

a. threat.

b. risk.

c. countermeasure.

d. vulnerability.

countermeasure.

Countermeasures are policies or actions that seek to minimize the possibility of someone breaking into a computer system. Countermeasures can be both automated and manual, and protect both from unauthorized access as well as data loss from external events such as power outages.

Which of the following acts places restrictions on the use of and disclosure of customer data?

a. Communications Decency Act

b. The Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act

c. Telecommunications Act of 1996

d. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act

Telecommunications Act of 1996.

Part of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 entitled “Privacy of Customer Information” states that telecommunications carriers have a duty to protect the confidentiality of data pertaining to customers. To achieve this, there are restrictions placed on the use and disclosure of certain customer information. The ECPA, in contrast, only disallows the dissemination of the content of communications.