CONC

1. Name 3 benefits of networking communications systems. ST #2
Sharing Information
Information Availability
Access information from a distance
2. What provides long haul data, voice, video, transport networks, services and is referred to as the backbone of the GIG? ST #3
Defense Information System network (DISN)
3. What resides on a Motherboard? ST 37-12
Microprocessor, buses, memory, BIOS
4. What computer bus allows hot-swappable peripheral connections? ST #9
Universal Serial Bus (USB)
5. What type of computer memory has the goal to reduce data access time? ST #11
Cache memory
6. What RAID level only increases access speed and does not provide redundancy? ST #13
RAID 0 (zero)
7. What is the conceptual model that describes how information from one computer moves across a network to another computer system? ST #18
Open System Interconnection (OSI) model.
8. What are the seven layers of the OSI model? ST #18
Application -7, Presentation-6, Session-5, Transport-4, Network-4, Data Link-4, Physical-1
9. What are the two sections that the seven layer OSI model can be divided into? ST #18
Application (5-7) and Data Transport (1-4)
10. What OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end connections? ST #18, CCNA #14&16
Transport
11. What OSI layer uses logical IP addressing and makes best path determination? ST #18, CCNA #20-21.
Network
12. What OSI layer uses Media Access Control (MAC) addresses and combines packets into frames? CCNA #23, 50-51
Data Link
13. What OSI layer actually puts the binary bits on the transmission media? ST #18, CCNA #26
Physical
14. List the 3 layers of the Cisco hierarchical model and briefly describe each. CCNA #64-67
Core: Backbone
Distribution: Routing
Access: Switching
15. When a router or a switch first boots up, what operation takes place first? CCNA #210
Power on Self Test (POST)
16. What metrics does EIGRP use to select the best possible path, and what is the default metric? CCNA #435
Bandwidth, Delay, Load, Reliability
17. What switch or router command would display the information in the running configurations? CCNA #2246
Show running-config
18. Router WAN connections are usually associated with what type of connection/transmission? CCNA 754
Serial Transmission
19. What is the type of encapsulation that needs to be considered/selected when preparing a router WAN connection? CCNA #754
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) Encapsulation
20. If you want to configure PPP authentication on a Cisco router WAN connection, what configuration steps must be set? CCNA 760
Hostname, Username, Password
21. What is the Cisco default WAN encapsulation? CCNA 756
High Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
22. What non-proprietary WAN encapsulation supports authentication? CCNA 757
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
23. What OSI layer uses data encryption, compression and transmission services to define data representation? CCNA #15
Presentation
24. What device connects multiple single segment Ethernet segments together so they act like a single segment (one collision domain)? ST #19, CCNA #27
Hub
25. What device maintains MAC address tables and uses these physical addresses to transmit data across a network? ST #20, CCNA #509
Switch
26. Switches speed up a LAN by implementing full-duplex operations. Can a switch connect to a hub using full duplex? CCNA #45
NO
27. What are the three types of RJ-45 connector cables we’ve talked about, and what connections do they make in our LAN? CCNA #57-58
Straight-through: Different
Crossover: Same
Rolled: Console port
28. What device works at the network layer to forward data using logical IP addresses? ST #20, CCNA #20-21
Router
29. In a Cisco device, what command lets you advance from user mode to privileged mode? ST #28
Enable or EN
30. From user mode (>), what command string would allow you to set a router’s hostname to Keesler? (assume no passwords are set)? ST #33
Enable
Config t
Hostname Keesler
31. When setting a message of the day (MOTD) banner, what must precede and follow the MOTD statement that you want displayed? ST #33
Delimitating character
32. In a router lab environment often there are no DCE devices, so when two routers are connected via a serial connection, one router acts as a DCE device while the other router remains a DTE device. What special commands are applied to the DCE serial interface? ST #34, CCNA #242-243, 755
Bandwidth, Clockrate
33. What does the Cisco Discovery Protocol command: CDP timer 90 do? ST #35, CCNA #304
set rate in seconds at which CDP packets are sent
34. What Cisco switch command are required to enable inter-VLAN trunking on interface FAO/23? ST #61
(config) FA0/23
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
35. What Cisco proprietary routing protocol is classless and will support VLSM networks? CCNA #428-429.
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
36. What router configuration technique supports inter-VLAN routing by allowing multiple IP addresses to be assigned to a single physical interface? CCNA #582
Sub-interfacing
37. What routing option ensures that routing information is not advertised out the same port it was received? CCNA #391
Split Horizon
38. What router options implements a list of conditions that will categorize and control network traffic? CCNA #609
Access Lists
39. Give an example of a standard access list that would only permit 172.30.100.34 access and deny all other network traffic? CCNA #619
access-list 10 permit 172.30.100.34
40. What are the three layer-2 switch functions? CCNA #509
Address Learning, Forward/Filter Decisions, Loop Avoidance
41. Redundant switching topologies increase reliably, but what three problems can such a topology cause? CCNA #514
Broadcast Storms, MAC Address Table Instability, Multiple Frame Copies
42. What switching protocol prevents network switching loops? CCNA #515
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
43. With security concerns being paramount, what should you configure first in a Cisco Device? CCNA #???
Password
44. Being able to identify the Cisco device is important, so after you configure the passwords, you should now name the device using what command? CCNA #???
Hostname
45. To make global changes to your router’s configuration, what command must be entered from the privileged mode prompt? CCNA #214
config t
46. What switch commands would be necessary to allow remote management through an application such as telnet? CCNA #529
Setting IP information (Int vlan 1- IP address, default Gateway)
47. What is the term that describes: When all ports on a switch have transitions to either the forwarding or blocking modes/states? CCNA #521
Convergence
48. What kind of firewall is a Sidewinder? ST #88
Proxy firewall
49. When configuring Sidewinder, why is Secure Shell preferred over talent? ST #85
Telnet is unsecure
50. What protocol is designed to enable network administrators to manage performance, solve problems, and plan for growth? ST #94
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
51. What protocol allows managed devices to collect and store information and forward the data to Network Management Systems? ST #94
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
52. What standard specification enables network monitors and console systems to exchange network monitoring data? ST #97
Remote Monitoring (RMON)
53. You find that an intruder has accessed your router via telnet what should you do to prevent future access, while not impeding traffic through your busy network? CCNA #609
Create or modify access lists
54. What type of access list would be best to implement if a worker needs to be denied access into the accounting LAN or if you to deny entire TCP or UDP protocol like all ICMP traffic? CCNA #620
IP Extended Access List
55. What does CITS use as its standard trouble ticketing software? ST #104
Remedy
56. What technology does HP Openview use to ease configuration and display the network in a graphical manner? ST #101
Graphical User Interface (GUI)
57. HO Openview addresses which specific levels of FCAPS? ST #101
Fault Management, Configuration, Performance
58. What command would be best to check if a computer can send and receive data? ST #108
Packet Internet Groper (PING)
59. Which command would you use from a command prompt to view the AMC address of a computer? ST #110
ipconfig /all
60. What program running within a Windows domain controller will assign network devices dynamic IP addresses? ST #145
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
61. What type of devices are commonly configured to be DHCP clients? ST #145
Windows clients and servers who don’t require static addresses
62. What allows you to issue more IP addressed than you have available in your subnet? ST #150
Superscope
63. For your DHCP server to be valid in your network, the server must be ________________ by the active directory service? ST #146
Authorized
64. What allows a DHCP configuration option allow a device to always get the same dynamic IP address? ST #149
Reservation
65. The range of allowed DHCP addresses a server can distribute is otherwise referred to as a DHCP____________________. ST #146
Scope
66. What are the two primary goals of network management systems? ST #101
Reduce cost, Provide reliable/consistent service
67. The CORE layer of the CITS model is designed to provide a _________________________. ST #167
High-speed switching backbone
68. Using class-full ideology and given IP address 172.20.101.67, which part is network and which part is host?
172.20 (network) 101.67 (host)
69. Using full-class ideology and given IP address 125.2.10.7, which part is network and which part is host?
125 (network) 2.10.7 (host)
70. Using full-class ideology and given IP address 193.15.1.88, which part is network and which part is host?
193.15.1 (network) 88 (host)
71. How many subnets are possible with a Class C address with a subnet of mask?
62
72. How many hosts are possible with a Class C address with a subnet of mask 255.255.255.252?
2
73. How many subnets are possible with a Class B address with a subnet of mask 255.255.248.0?
30
74. How many hosts are possible with a Class C address with a subnet of mask 255.255.255.248.0?
2
75. What is the class of the following IP addresses?
172.50.30.1 – B
195.60.21.3 – C
20.69.1.1 – A
76. Given IP address 191.243.36.43 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the subnet?
191.243.36.32
77. Given IP address 171.23.30.43 and the subnet mask 255.255.248.0, what is the subnet address?
171.23.24.0
78. Given IP address 91.27.57.43 and the subnet mask 255.252.0.0, what is the subnet address?
91.24.0.0
79. How many bits is an IPV6 address and what common format is used to represent the binary number? CCNA 78-719
128 bits, 8 groups of hexadecimal code
80. What type of IPv6 addresses are not meant to be routed and serve the purpose as IPv4 private or reserved addresses?
Link-local and unique local addresses
81. What type IPV6 address is self assigned using the neighbor discovery protocol? Slideshow
Link-local addresses
82. How many IPV6 64-bit Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64) employ the devices MAC address in its IPV6 address? CCNA #724
Padding the device MAC address by inserting FFFE between the MAC organizational identified and the manufacturer’s serial number and then adding it to the network prefix
83. What type of IPV6 address types is publically routable across the World Wide Web, and using prefix notation? What is the address range? CCNA #721
Global unicast address, 2000::/3
84. What services do local communications commonly include? ST #2
SIPRNet, NIPRNet, e-mail, telephone networks, LANS, & VTC
85. What are the three main advantages of wireless networking? ST #71
Mobility, Ease of Installation, Lower Cost
86. Wireless LAN authentication can be provided by what 802.1 protocol? ST #76
IEEE 802.1X
87. What wireless LAN signaling characteristic distinguishes one wireless LAN from another wireless LAN? ST #79
Service Set Identified (SSID)
88. What countermeasures can you use to secure your home wireless network? ST #80
Change default password, change SSID, disable SSID broadcast, use WPA encryption,& Enable MAC Filtering
89. What does TELNET allow a user to do? CCNA #87-88
It allows a user on a remote client machine (Telnet client) to access resources of another machine (Telnet )server
90. What is the name of the contention media that allow all hosts on a network to share the same bandwidth? CCNA #43
Ethernet
91. What cable would you use to connect a switch to a switch? CCNA #57
Crossover
92. The _____________ layer using switching to control user and workgroup access to internetwork resources? CCNA #67
Access
93. If a router boots up with no startup configuration in NVRAM, what mode does the router enter? CCNA #212
Setup Mode
94. What can be used to display a security notice to people logging into your Cisco device?
MOTD Banner
95. What command would set your devices encrypted password to J3″”y, and what mode does this password protect? CCNA #228
Enable Secret J3^^y (privileged/enable mode)
96. When showing an interface, is it possible for the line be down and the protocol to be up? CCNA #252
NO, the condition is not possible
97. How does spanning tree protocol (STP) keep track of switches? CCNA #516
Bridge ID
98. What are the three VLAN trunking protocol (VTP) modes? CCNA #576
Client, Server& Transparent
99. Where is trunking enabled (command: switchport mode trunk) when setting up inter-VLAN routing CCNA # 583
Layer 2 switch
100. What are the three ways to gain management access to a router? CCNA # 208
Console
Auxillary
Telnet
101. In order, what are the four STP port states? CCNA page 520
Blocking
Listening
Learning
Forwarding
102. What digital service is designed to run over existing phone lines? CCNA # 746
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
103. What command would you use to set a router interface to the clock rate of 64Kbps? CCNA 243-244
Clockrate 64000
104. When developing an access list, how should you order your entries? CCNA # 611
Place most specific tests entries at the beginning and broad tests entries at the end
105. What management software enables automation and management of internal and external service and support processes? ST # 105
Remedy
106. How does HPOV test connectivity? ST # 107
Ping
Status poll
SNMPWalk
Trace Route
Poll node
Capability Poll
107. What tool helps diagnose network problems by allowing you to track the number of hops necessary for a packet to get to its destination? CCNA # 191-192
Trace Route
108. What defines a collection of one or more domain that share common schema/global catalog
Forest
109. Why do we define sites in active directory? ST page 125
Control Replication Traffic
Make Authentication Faster
Locate the nearest server providing directory enable services
110. What can be used to stipulate how long users can use a computer after they logon?
Service Agreement
111. What ensures every active duty and reserve base has an infrastructure to link future voice, data, video, imagery, and sensory systems via high capacity transport media? ST # 168
Information Transport System (ITS)
112. When configuring a Cisco device, what are 3 different types of passwords are used to control access? SW #s 31-32
Enable Secret Password
Console Password
Virtual Terminal Password
113. When initially configuring a router, what cable would you choose to console to a switch or router from your computer’s serial port? CCNA # 58
Rolled
114. Frame Relay, Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), High-level Data-Link (HDLC) are what kind of protocols? CCNA 746
WAN Protocols
115. What are the 4 SNMP communication commands? ST # 95
Read, Write, Trap, & Traversal operations
116. What SNMP communication reports managed device events to a Network Management System (NMS)? ST # 95, CCNA # 91
Trap
117. What security device prevents unauthorized users from gaining networks access or from monitoring data transfers? ST # 85
Firewall
118. What server application resolves names to IP addresses? ST # 135
Domain Name System (DNS) Server