Comprehensive Test Review

How does the U.S Army Combat Readiness/Safety Center support the Army?
The USACRC supports our Army by collecting, analyzing and communicating actionable information to assist leaders, Soldiers, families and civilians in preserving/protecting our Army’s combat resources.
What are the three pillars of the Army Safe Model?
Leaders
Soldiers/peers
Families/Community
What are some of the tools available to the Soldiers/Leaders?
Peer to Peer
Range and Weapons Safety Toolbox
Accident Risk Assessments
BOSS Safety Factor
GRAT
Family Engagement Kit
TRiPS
What are the benefits of Knowledge Management?
Effectively prevents organizational “stovepipe”
Facilitates horizontal communication
Reduces decision-making time
Authorization to access RMIS data is limited within the DoD for what primary purpose?
Accident prevention purposes only
What is the primary intent for RMIS?
Accident prevention
In what ways can RMIS be used to help prevent accidents?
Data can be used during briefings, training, meetings, etc.
When Army standards conflict with legal standards, such as the OSH Act, or provide a lower degree of protection, which standard will be followed?
The more stringent legal standard will apply.
Under what circumstances can a commander waive the requirements of AR 385-10?
Commanders may not waive any requirement of AR 385-10; the request must be sent to the proponent of the regulation, which is the Director of the Army Staff.
Once appointed as an ADSO how long does the ADSO have to complete the ADSC?
Additional duty safety personnel on active duty are required to complete the ADSC within 30 days of appointment. Non-active duty guard and reserve personnel are afforded 90 days to complete the course.
When placed on orders, how many months remaining in a unit must an ADSO have?
12 months
Name at least two of the five safety sub-functional areas?
Safety program management
Inspections/assessments
Investigation/reporting
Promotion/awareness
Hazard analysis and countermeasures
13. How does ATP 5-19 define the term hazard?
condition with the potential to cause injury or illness to people; damage to equipment or property; or mission degradation.
Describe the process of assessing hazards.
Assess the probability of encountering the hazard

Estimate the severity of an encounter

Determine the level of risk using the standard risk assessment matrix

What are the three categories of RM controls?
Physical, educational, and elimination/avoidance.
What is the term for risk remaining after controls have been selected?
Residual risk
When may the overall risk for a mission be higher than the risk level of any given hazard?
When the commander or manager determines that a number of hazards, in combination, present a greater risk.
Why do commanders integrate RM into war fighting functions?
Minimize human error, material failure, and adverse environmental effects.
Name three reasons it is necessary to supervise the RM process, particularly the implementation of controls.
Ensures subordinates understand how, when, and where controls are implemented; detects complacency, deviation from standards, or violations of risk controls; ensures controls are implemented, monitored and remain in place; and enables situational awareness to identify, assess and control new hazards.
What are the guiding principles of RM?
Integrate RM into all missions & operations
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
Accept no unnecessary risk; weigh risk versus gain
Apply RM cyclically and continuously
Do not be risk averse – manage risk and complete the mission
Describe the primary premise of RM
It does not matter where or how a loss occurs, the result is the same – decreased combat power or mission effectiveness

RM is concerned with managing the risks associated with all hazards (accident and tactical risks) on- and off-duty

Name two reasons it is important to evaluate the RM process.
Any two of the following: to ensure the RM process supported the mission; to ensure that hazards were accurately assessed; to ensure compliance with RM guiding principles; and to ensure effective implementation, execution, and communication of RM controls.
What are the three E’s of safety?
Engineering, education, enforcement
What can cause stress?
Any situation or thought that makes a person feel frustrated, angry, nervous, or anxious
25. What are three components of attitude?
Cognitive, affective, and behavioral
26. What is a responsibility of the safety officer when communicating a safety message across generations?
Make every effort to communicate through the receiver’s preferred methods
Who has the ultimate responsibility for preserving human and materiel resources?
Commander
What can a good Unit Safety Program do?
Ensure safe and healthful workplaces
Help protect valuable assets and resources
Provide for public safety
Help ensure unit readiness
What is the ADSO/NCO’s primary mission?
Advise and assist the unit commander in developing and implementing safety policy and composite risk management
What must be labeled?
All folders, files and containers used to store official records, including records in electronic form
One method many safety offices use to promote safety promotion and awareness is the use of
Bulletin Boards
ARIMS applies to what file classifications?
Unclassified to include FOUO; Classified through Secret
Which are the benefits of maintaining and managing safety records?
Improves information management
Simplifies archival and retrieval
Increases standardization
Which award is for the Soldier who demonstrates “pockets of excellence” or “best practices in safeguarding Army operations or personnel?
SMA Superior Soldier Safety Award
At what level can a safety council be consolidated?
No higher than Battalion/Squadron
When may the CSC and ESC be combined as one?
When units have a low density of officer or enlisted personnel
True/False. Discussing unresolved safety issues, organizational hazards, corrective actions, and action officers/NCOs is one of the functions of a Command Safety Council to conduct a risk management forum.
True
How often should safety training meetings be conducted?
At least monthly for active component and full time reserve component, and quarterly for all others
What are the three basic error types?
Skill-based
Perceptual
Decision
What are the two basic types of violations?
Routine
Exceptional
What is an active failure?
An active failure is an unsafe act that has an immediate adverse effect on the system
What are the three main categories of Preconditions for Unsafe Acts?
Environmental Factors
Personnel Factors
Substandard Conditions of Operators
True/False. Willful disregard for rules and regulations is the instrumental difference between Unsafe Act Error and Unsafe Act Violation
True
Why did the military services adopt system safety?
To attempt to control cost
What is the order of precedence in System Safety?
Design for minimum hazard
Incorporate safety devices/features
Provide Warning Devices
Develop Procedures and Training
Which of the order of precedence measures can be used to mitigate hazards associated with COTS equipment?
Incorporate safety devices/features
Provide Warning Devices
Develop Procedures and Training
Any measure except design
What can FMEA do for us?
Assess system reliability

Determine the effect of a single critical component malfunction and its repair or replacement Complements system safety analyses

Which regulation covers all major environmental programs within the Army?
AR 200-1
True/False. The Installation Commander is required to organize and chair the Environmental Quality Control Committee (EQCC).
True
What level of command has to complete Army Readiness Assessment Program (ARAP)?
Battalion
How long after receiving the approval of enrollment into ARAP must the organization complete the number or assessments needed to receive a brief of the results?
30 – 45 days
What is the purpose of a QDR?
Report conditions that are the result of below standard workmanship

Report materiel faults in design, operations, or manufacture with the purpose of initiating early and effective corrective action or to recommend improvements

Explain the two categories of a QDR.
Category I involves deficiencies that will or may affect life or limb of personnel or impair the combat capabilities of the using organization or individual

Category II involves deficiencies that do not meet criteria set forth in category I. For all other defective materiel conditions or recommendations for improvement

What are the reporting requirements for each of the two categories of a QDR?
a. Category I – notification in 24 hours and submit SF 368 in 48 hours
b. Category II – submission of SF 368 in 5 days
What form is used to report product defects in design, specification, materiel, manufacturing, and workmanship?
SF 368, Product Quality Deficiency Report
What is the most urgent type of Product Quality Deficiency Report that must be reported within 24 hours?
Category I
Of the safety messages, which one has the highest priority for ground equipment?
Safety of Use Message
What are the three Safety of Flight and Safety of Use Messages Categories?
a. -Emergency
b. -Operational
c. -Technical
What document prescribes the technical requirements along with the needed hardware, tools, and personnel for making a change to organizational equipment and is the implementing instrument for a Product Improvement Program?
Modification Work Order (MWO)
What are the categories of a Modification Work Order (MWO)?
a. -Emergency
b. -Urgent
c. -Routine
True/False. Ground Precautionary Action Messages do not require immediate action.
True
Each time the supervisor or an employee enters the workplace, they will conduct what type of inspection?
A visual safety inspection of the workplace – conducting inspections of this type will help integrate safety into the daily routine
What Form will be posted in all workplaces and be accessible to the employee?
Department of Defense Safety and Occupational Health Program DD Form 2272
How long will the installation safety office retain the DA Forms 4755?
Reports will be retained for 5 years
Who is responsible for developing and implementing functions as part of the Army Safety Program and the Army Occupational Health Program?
All Army leaders at each echelon
When can an Army E5 be an RSO during mortar training activities?
NEVER, only an RSO for the Marine Corps can be E5 for mortar training activities.
What weapon systems must the Range OIC be knowledgeable on?
The OICs will be knowledgeable on the weapon systems for which they are responsible.
Who is responsible for ensuring the SDZ clear of unauthorized personnel prior to range operations?
RSO
Why must the Installation Commander coordinate with the installation PAO prior to firing on a range?
To ensure warnings are issued at least 24 hours in advance, through the installation PAO, to the public news media before firing operations that may involve possible hazards to the general public
Which are the goals of the Range Safety Program?
Enhance safe, realistic live-fire training

Protect personnel and property while improving combat readiness

Protect civilian and military populations who live and work in the vicinity of live-fire training ranges

What is the purpose of conducting SRM training?
Allows Soldiers to quickly and effectively engage targets at ranges less than 50 meters

Promotes Soldiers’ confidence and knowledge in SRM fundamentals

What is Phase II of SRM?
Phase II—Target Discrimination
During Short Range Marksmanship training/qualification, when is it acceptable to assign one lane-safety coach to multiple lanes?
NEVER- a lane-safety coach must be assigned to each lane
What are the fundamentals of SRM?
Firing stance, weapon ready positions, and movement techniques
Aiming technique
Point of aim
Trigger manipulation
What two exercises must a Soldier conduct prior to firing live ammunition during Phase 1 on an SRM range?
Dry-fire exercise and a blank fire exercise
Who is responsible for range safety certification programs?
Battalion commander is responsible for range safety certification programs
Why do we execute CLFX?
Prepare Soldiers for real-world missions involving vehicle movement

Improve the unit combat readiness

Who is responsible for safety while adding realism to maximize the training benefit for convoy live fire exercise participants?
Observer Controllers OC’s
How many OCs are required per squad during the convoy live fire exercise?
OC – two per squad and one in the cab of each task vehicle
80. Warning signs will be posted _____ far apart around the installation training complex to warn and prohibit entry by unauthorized personnel.
200 meters
When two or more requirements apply, which chapter generally takes precedence over the base/fundamental chapters?
Occupancy chapters
ccording to NFPA, a building considered occupied when
is occupied by more than 10 persons
True/False. In order to meet the rule for exit remoteness in a room without sprinklers, the exits at a minimum must be separated by half the diagonal distance of the room
True
When a reference is in brackets, for example [72, 2010], what does it indicate?
Material has been extracted from another NFPA document or other references
What does a bullet between two paragraphs indicate?
That one or more paragraphs have been deleted
The fundamental requirements of means of egress in accordance with NFPA 101 are:
Clearly visible or noticeably designated/marked
Maintained free and unobstructed
At a minimum two means of egress must be provided
What is a simple definition of “means of egress”?
The way to, through, and away from the exit
What is “common path of travel”?
The portion of exit access that must be traversed before two separate and distinct paths of travel to two exits are available
The portion of means of egress between the termination of an exit and a public way is called an
Exit Discharge
What is the NFPA 101® definition for an exit?
That portion of means of egress that is separated from all other spaces of a building or structure by construction or equipment as required to provide a protected way of travel to the exit discharge
What is the required minimum distance between tent stake lines?
There shall be a minimum of 10 ft between stake lines
True/False. If there is no physical change to the structure, but a change in use or occupancy, a change in code maybe required.
True
What publication governs Army driver selection, training, testing, and licensing?
R 600-55
What do DoD components model their traffic safety programs after?
The Highway Safety Program Guidelines
In accordance with recent DoD studies, what is the age group of service members most likely to be involved in a fatal POV accident?
18-25
What are the three most common factors identified during fatal POV accident investigations?
Speed, alcohol, and indiscipline
What are leading indicators that a leader can most often use to help identify a “high-risk” driver in his/her unit?
Gender, age, traffic citations, alcohol involvement
What are the four risk factors we’ve just discussed?
Speed, alcohol, fatigue, medications
What type(s) of distraction is texting while driving?
Visual — taking your eyes off the road
Manual — taking your hands off the wheel
Cognitive — taking your mind off what you’re doing
When operating a motor vehicle on a military installation, who is required to wear occupant protective devices?
Vehicle operator and all passengers
What are the last six risk factors we discussed?
Distractions, aggressive behaviors, not using occupant protective devices, environment, increased vehicle occupancy, weekend and early morning driving
Who must complete the on-line Army Accident Avoidance Course prior to operating an Army motor vehicle?
Soldiers, Department of the Army Civilians, and Contractor employees
Before assignment as a driver of a police vehicle, ambulance, or fire truck, what training is required
Emergency Vehicle Operator Training
In accordance with the DoD Traffic Safety Program standard, all military personnel who possess a driver’s license and under what age shall be given four hours of driver education?
26 years old
What are some controls for improving POV safety?
Traffic Safety SOP, POV safety briefings, be involved, conduct inspections, etc.
As a minimum, how many consecutive hours of rest (off duty) during any 24 hour period must drivers be provided?
Eight hours
At a minimum, how often are POV inspections required?
Every 6 months
How many miles is considered within the “local area”?
The number determined by the commander
What are five motorcycle safety requirements?
Licensing
Training
Motorcycle vehicle equipment
Personal protective equipment (PPE)
Inspections
When must a DoD service member attend an MSF approved rider course?
Before operating a motorcycle
Motorcycle helmets must conform to what safety standard?
Department of Transportation (DOT)
What is prohibited from wear when jogging/running, bicycling, or skating, skateboarding on or adjacent to roadways or roadway intersections on DoD installations?
Portable headphones, earphones, ear or other listening devices
What is 80% of all accidents attributed to?
Human error
What are the five sources of human error?
Individual failure
Training failure
Leader failure
Standards failure
Support failure
What are the three types of driver training?
Initial academic training
Refresher or sustainment training
Remedial training
What helps prepare Soldiers to address and reduce unintended consequences?
Rehearsals
Name a hazard associated with Army motor vehicles?
Rollovers
When writing the responsibilities of an SOP you should
write for the position not for the person
True/False. Summary provides a recap of the main points within an SOP
True
What team sport produces the most injuries
Basketball
Name at least two actions (controls) a Soldier should take to reduce the risk of injuries while participating in sports?
Controls may include: wearing proper PPE, do warm-up activities, avoid alcohol consumption
How can leaders help reduce off-duty injuries or deaths of Soldiers?
Active involvement
What water-related activity most often causes permanent disabilities?
Diving
Whenever around water, what devices should always be present?
PFD (Personal Flotation Devices)
What is the number one category for injuries in the home within the United States?
Slips, trips and falls
Name the top three poisons within the home.
Analgesics, cosmetics, and cleaning substances
What is the leading cause of home fires within the United States?
Unattended cooking
Where can you find Exposure Limits?
OSHA (PEL)
NIOSH (REL)
ACGIH (TLV)
Military (MEG)
Which Exposure Limit does the Army follow?
The Most Stringent
What are the noise exposure limits according to the DODI?
85 dBA Action Level and 140 dBA for impact noise
What color of the combat earplug would you use for weapons fire in a dismounted mode?
Yellow
Why do we use inspections and surveys?
To improve operations and procedures and eliminate/reduce hazards in the workplace
How often are surveys/inspections required to be conducted?
Inspect all areas at least annually
What must be stenciled on shop floor cranes, hoist beams, jack stands, and jacks if less than seven (7) feet above floor level?
The load rating and date of the next periodic inspection
What is required to be maintained and updated for a maintenance facility’s hazardous chemicals
A written comprehensive hazardous communication program
HAZCOM training
MSDSs
Hazardous material inventory
What are your recommendations to help reduce or eliminate hazards within and around a maintenance facility?
Practice good housekeeping
Maintain, implement, and enforce the SOP and other standards
Ensure proper PPE is available and used
True/False. The Unit Motor Maintenance Officer is responsible directly to the Unit Safety Officer for overall safe operation and function of the maintenance section.
False
An employer shall develop and implement a monitoring program when noise equals or exceeds an 8-hour time-weighted average of how many decibels?
85
What does AR 750-1 consider the cornerstone of the Army Maintenance System?
PMCS
If a chemical substance is stored in an unlabeled container, what is it considered to be?
Hazardous until it can be identified
Preparing to service a split-ring tire, the mechanic noticed that the tire cage was loosely bolted to the floor. What should the mechanic’s next action be?
Notify the supervisor of the deficiency
When must pulleys, belts, ventilation fans, etc. be guarded with a metal cover or screen?
When they are less than seven (7) feet above the floor
385-10 requires Army motor vehicle to be equipped with properly sized chocks and used except when the vehicle is what?
A non-tactical vehicle
Why is it important to know the type of metals being welded in a maintenance facility?
Some metals produce harmful fumes
What are the five areas a Safety Officer needs to inspect and/or review for predeployment of a unit?
Tactical SOP (TACSOP)
Annexes for convoy, port, air, etc.
Garrison SOP
Safety SOP
CALL (Center for Army Lessons Learned) Handbook and internet links
What are some of the areas that need to be addressed during deployment in-brief with unit leaders?
Unique safety/training requirements
Planned and rehearsed safety briefing
Targeted training
During predeployment load-outs, what is vital to the team effort?
Use proper procedures to lift heavy equipment
Consider unique requirements – block bracing
Don’t put HAZMAT items in the back
Don’t put items that can spill or leak on top of other items
Why is it important to have a maintenance and recovery?
Vehicles won’t start
Vehicles have flat tires or thrown track
What are the Standards of Conduct regarding movement?
No horseplay
Stay clear of rail cars while docking/moving
No smoking in rail operational area
Do not move between or underneath rail cars
Vehicles must remain under ground guide control
Travel lock and tie down tank turrets & howitzer tubes
Sleeping on, in, or around rail cars is prohibited
Reflective vests and flashlights required at night
Who does the coordination with the Railroad company?
The ITO/DTO (Installation Transportation Officer)
True/False. The Air load master is ultimately in charge of loading the plane
True
How many guides are required at railhead and where is each positioned?
Three guides per vehicle
What are two ways of loading equipment on vessels?
Roll on – Roll off (RORO)
Lift on – Lift off (LOLO)
What must all drivers and TCs have before movement for deployment?
Ensure all drivers are properly licensed for their assigned vehicle
What must every driver and passenger use in all vehicles?
Safety belts
Name at least three controls to prevent Roll-overs.
Conduct recon in daylight
Use ground guide in limited visibility
Reduce speed
Watch the shoulder of the road
Properly secure loads
Rollover drills
Driver’s Training and NVDs
List at least two considerations for base design.
Separate fuel and ammo storage
Ensure fuel is not uphill from ammo point or other critical facilities
If restricted on space, how do you mitigate the hazards?
Apply force protection requirements and restrictions
Use HESCOs and concrete walls
At What levels are Fire Marshals appointed?
Each company-level unit
Recommended for motor pools, work areas and TOCs
Where do Fire Marshals receive training?
Trained by local fire department
What must exits be to insure safe egress?
Clearly marked – luminescent signs are best.
Who must know and understand Pre-Accident/Emergency Action Plans?
All personnel must know and understand procedures (rehearse when possible)
What two teams are responsible for water testing and waste disposal procedures?
Field sanitation team and preventive medicine are responsible for testing
When are chock blocks required?
Chock blocks are required on hills, during maintenance, loading and unloading cargo, or when a vehicle is parked and a trailer is attached
What two regulation cover environmental responsibilities?
AR 200-1 and FM 3-34.5 address environmental issues
Who Coordinates between unit & higher/installation HQ’s environmental staffs?
The Environmental Compliance Officer (ECO)
Name three Helicopter Landing Zone Considerations.
Aircraft landing/take-off area, day and light considerations
Terrain (slopes, ruts, dust)
Arrival/departure routes
What are some known tools and procedures used to help reduce stress and fatigue?
Use SOP/known standard in field environment
Incorporate training breaks and R&R activities
Use sleep plans
Ensure proper nutrition
Employ good communications between leaders and Soldiers
What are reasons for weapons and ammo handling mishaps?
Individual
Leadership
Name four causes/reasons for accidental discharges.
Insufficient training
Ineffective supervision
Individual failures to include complacency and outright indiscipline
Who should the safety officer work with to plan a safe Redeployment?
Unit leadership at all levels
Why do we need to look out for “get-home-it is?”
To ensure that Soldiers do not take unnecessary short-cuts
List four contributing factors to post-deployment accidents.
Driving differences, long distance driving, alcohol & fatigue, mindsets and bad habits, environmental differences, POV condition, execution of deferred PCS & schools
What does the mnemonic “SSAF-D” stand for?
Speed, seatbelts, alcohol/aggressive driving, fatigue, distracters
Name four potential medical threat categories.
Infectious, vector borne, animal associated, environmental
List two of the three home station medical requirements.
TB skin test, blood sample, required appointments
What is the first priority at the accident scene?
Safety of victims/personnel involved
When the accident scene is declared safe for entry, what responsibility does the local safety representative have?
Ensure guards remain on duty and keep unauthorized personnel out
What are ways to mark the accident site?
Utilize flags, cones, and tape
Name two types of diagramming.
Polar and Grid
Do not remove deceased personnel
Off-post, coroner has jurisdiction
When is the DA Form 285 (full report) required?
All on-duty A-B ground accidents require a full report
What form is used to report an off-duty class A accident?
DA Form 285-AB (AGAR)
Are witness interviews required to be recorded?
No; but it is recommended
After completing the report, what should be done with recordings and hand written witness statements?
This information should be destroyed
What Information can a Witness Provide?
Human Factors/Errors
Materiel Factors
Environmental Factors
Witness Interviews Summation
Should be written in the third person
When does informal data analysis begin?
When data collection begins
What is a minority report?
If differences cannot be resolved, the disagreeing board member(s) will submit a minority report, which is an analysis of their disagreement.
What written portion of the accident report should directly support the F&Rs?
The Analysis portion of the Narrative
Who writes the Analysis?
Board President
Digital Photography Advantages
Immediate results
More efficient workflow
Lower cost per image
Ease of transmitting
What is the benefit of using JPEG over RAW or TIFF?
They don’t take up as much room on the memory card & are processed faster by the camera
Are you allowed to edit an image of an accident?
No
How do you avoid measurement misperception?
Place a ruler next to the item to show the actual size of the item
How do you document your photos?
Use photo captions
What should be your first shooting priority?
Perishable evidence
How many photos should you take?
4 perferably 8 from all four sides
As a safety officer your receive a request for FOUIA information.
Forward request to CRC
True/False. Lega investigation will be conducted by safety officer.
False
The accident investigation board for safety can access
CID