Combo with "MKT Chapter 1" and 3 others

Marketing account executives are facing increasing pressures related to:
A) accountability
B) affordability
C) accessibility
D) applicability
A) Accountability
An advertising agency is told by the client that an advertising campaign should result in a 20% increase in sales. This is an example of:

A) marketing myopia
B) standardization
C) adaptation
D) accountability

D) Accountability
An account executive’s duties include:
A) preparing a database
B) development of an overall strategic communication plan
C) preparing the actual advertisements
D) product development and applications
B) development of an overall strategic communication plan
The individual who is responsible for a specific brand or line of products is the:
A) agency account executive
B) brand manager
C) media buyer
D) media planner
B) brand manager
Of the following, the individual that works for the company that produces the product is a(n):
A) agency account executive
B) brand manager
C) media buyer
D) media planner
B) brand manager
The individual in charge of Tide, Bold, and Cheer laundry detergents at Procter & Gamble would be the:
A) agency account executive
B) brand manager
C) media buyer
D) media planner
B) brand manager
The individuals who develop the actual advertisements for promotional campaigns are called:
A) account executives
B) brand managers
C) creatives
D) receivers
C) Creatives
A creative’s main responsibility is to:
A) represent the customer’s voice with an advertising agency
B) evaluate the marketing plan
C) develop advertisements and campaigns
D) receive marketing messages from various sources
C) develop advertisements and campaigns
39) Marlene just developed a new slogan to use in a company’s advertising. Her main job is to think up these ideas and put them into the company’s advertising plan. Marlene is a(n):
A) account manager
B) brand manager
C) creative
D) media manager
C) creative
In terms of a communications model, the sender is:
A) the company seeking to sell a product
B) a television set
C) the consumer viewing an ad on the Internet
D) a consumer ignoring an ad in a newspaper
A) the company seeking to sell a product
When Sean shops for an automobile, which are the senders in the communication process?
A) Honda and Toyota
B) NBC and CSPAN
C) The New York Times and the Chicago Sun Times
D) The Internet and the Web
A) Honda and Toyota
In terms of the communication process, a creative preparing an ad is most likely going to be involved in:
A) encoding
B) transmission
C) decoding
D) noise or clutter
A) Encoding
In terms of communication, encoding is:
A) a sales pitch recited by a salesperson
B) the database manager finding a statistical oddity
C) a chat room on the Internet
D) a purchase decision by a consumer
A) a sales pitch recited by a salesperson
In the communication process, the items that carry the message from the sender to the receiver are:
A) encoding processes
B) decoding processes
C) transmission devices
D) feedback devices
C) Transmission devices
A consumer sees a billboard while driving. The billboard is a:
A) creative
B) decoding device
C) transmission device
D) form of feedback
C) transmission device
When a message is being heard or seen by a consumer, what is taking place?
A) encoding
B) transmission
C) decoding
D) feedback
C) decoding
A person smells the fragrance of a perfume attached to a magazine advertisement. What is taking place?
A) encoding
B) transmission
C) decoding
D) feedback
C) decoding
The person reading a magazine advertisement plays which role in the communications model?
A) sender
B) decoder
C) receiver
D) object
C) receiver
Kodak’s marketing team identifies a group of people who are most likely to use the company’s new digital photo technology and creates advertisements specifically for them. In a communication model, these individuals are:
A) senders
B) decoders
C) receivers
D) subjects
C) receivers
Noise is:
A) anything which carries a message from a sender to a receiver
B) changing a message to match the specific needs of a target audience
C) a verbal or nonverbal cue delivered by the sender
D) anything that distorts or disrupts a message
D) anything that distorts or disrupts a message
Michelle is watching a television commercial for a new car but a stereo is playing in the room next door making it difficult to concentrate, which is an example of:
A) feedback disruption
B) noise
C) encoding design
D) a contact point
B) noise
The key to using social media successfully is:
A) making it compatible with the off-line marketing program
B) identifying the heavy users of the product
C) finding the right Facebook fans
D) using both Facebook and Twitter in an integrated manner
A) making it compatible with the off-line marketing program
While browsing the Internet, a consumer encounters a new pop-up ad every time a new page is opened. This is an example of:
A) advertising effectiveness
B) perceptual distortion
C) clutter
D) brand parity
C) clutter
All of the following are examples of communication noise except:
A) driving while listening to the radio
B) scanning the newspaper for articles to read
C) scrolling past Internet ads without looking at them
D) examining an advertisement in a magazine
D) examining an advertisement in a magazine
Which is an example of feedback in a marketing channel?
A) new product development
B) a customer complaint
C) a decision to begin international operations
D) removing a product from the market
B) a customer complaint
Julie is explaining an integrated marketing communications program to Michael. In this situation:
A) Julie is a sender and Michael is an encoder
B) Julie is a receiver and Michael is using a transmission device
C) Julie is a sender and Michael is a receiver
D) Julie is a transmission device and Michael is a decoder
C) Julie is a sender and Michael is a receiver
The coordination and integration of all marketing communication tools, avenues, and sources within a company into a seamless program that maximizes the impact on consumers and other end users at a minimal cost is:
A) the marketing plan
B) the marketing mix
C) integrated marketing communications
D) marketing strategy
C) integrated marketing communications
58) Integrated marketing communications affects all of the following except:
A) business-to-business market
B) marketing channel
C) internally directed communications
D) competitors’ advertising
D) competitors’ advertising
In the marketing mix, where does integrated marketing communications belong?
A) pricing decisions
B) product design
C) promotion
D) distribution
C) promotion
The marketing mix consists of the product, the price, distribution and:
A) emotions
B) promotions
C) delivery systems
D) services
B) promotions
Traditionally, promotions included the following, except:
A) advertising
B) product design
C) personal selling
D) sales promotions
B) product design
The foundation of an IMC program consists of a careful review of the following, except:
A) economic conditions
B) company’s image
C) the markets in which buyers are located
D) the buyers to be served
A) economic conditions
The two types of buyer behaviors the marketing team must understand are business-to-business behaviors and:
A) local community activities
B) governmental purchase
C) consumer buyer behaviors
D) competitive actions
C) consumer buyer behaviors
Promotions that help the manufacturer push the product through the channel are:
A) consumer promotions
B) rebate programs
C) direct marketing programs
D) trade promotions
D) trade promotions
Promotions that are directly oriented to end users and include coupons, contests, premiums, refunds, rebates, free samples, and price-off offers are:
A) consumer promotions
B) rebate programs
C) direct marketing programs
D) trade promotions
A) consumer promotions
Current trends affecting marketing communications include the following, except:
A) explosion in the use of alternative media
B) emphasis on pull marketing strategies
C) accountability and measurable outcomes
D) changes in tasks performed by key players
B) emphasis on pull marketing strategies
The rise in importance of accountability and producing measurable results has led marketers to become less reliant on television advertising and shift funds to:
A) alternative communication venues and methods
B) pull marketing strategies
C) integrated marketing communication firms
D) their own marketing departments instead of advertising agencies
A) alternative communication venues and methods
Alternative interactive marketing techniques are designed to:
A) push products through the marketing channel
B) replace traditional advertising, such as television, radio and magazines
C) bring marketing to the forefront
D) create experiences with a brand and not just simply purchases
D) create experiences with a brand and not just simply purchases
In terms of the changes in tasks performed by individuals involved in advertising, which statement below is true?
A) Account executives now control the channel of communication with advertising agencies.
B) The role of the account planner has become more important.
C) Advertising agencies have become the leader in developing integrated marketing communications.
D) A new partnership among account executives, brand managers, account planners, and creatives has emerged.
D) A new partnership among account executives, brand managers, account planners, and creatives has emerged.
All of the following are trends impacting the use of integrated advertising and marketing communications except:
A) advances in information technology
B) increases in perceptions of brand equity
C) changes in channel power
D) increase in global competition
B) increases in perceptions of brand equity
All of the following are trends impacting the use of integrated advertising and marketing communications except:
A) emphasis on customer engagement
B) increases in perception of brand parity
C) increase in channel power by manufacturers
D) increase in micro-marketing
C) increase in channel power by manufacturers
The marketing group for Bank of America has recently started analyzing the features customers use with ATM cards. This is an example of:
A) coordinating communication cross-functionally
B) applying information technology
C) a price and distribution system
D) developing interpersonal communications
B) applying information technology
Retailers control shelf purchase and have purchasing data, which means they determine:
A) what products and brands are placed on stores shelves
B) what marketing products manufacturers use
C) who has the power in the distribution channel
D) what products manufacturers produce
A) what products and brands are placed on stores shelves
Many marketing experts feel the advancement of the Internet and information technology has caused a shift in channel power:
A) from producers to wholesalers
B) away from manufacturers
C) from retailers to wholesalers
D) to consumers
D) to consumers
Buying online from Amazon.com rather than a record or book store is an example of:
A) a power shift to the consumer
B) a power shift to the producer
C) a decline in the effectiveness of mass media
D) a new form of wholesaling
A) a power shift to the consumer
The competitive environment is now more:
A) local
B) global
C) concentrated
D) benign
B) global
In terms of manufacturers and retailers, to build a strong customer base the best approach is:
A) a partnership between the retailer and manufacturer
B) for the retailer to control the channel power
C) for the manufacturer to control the channel power
D) to allow consumers to have the most control in the channel
A) a partnership between the retailer and manufacturer
Increased usage of micro-marketing means:
A) an increased emphasis on mass advertising
B) companies focus more dollars with online advertising
C) advertising agencies are used less by companies
D) marketing programs focus more on individuals and micro-segments
D) marketing programs focus more on individuals and micro-segments
Brand parity is the:
A) perception that there are no real differences between major brands
B) feeling that most advertising is false
C) belief that all advertisers say essentially the same thing
D) idea that brands are distinct and easy to identify
A) perception that there are no real differences between major brands
Michael buys electronic items from the closest retail store because he doesn’t think there is much of a difference between brands. This is an example of:
A) a poor quality IMC program
B) standardization
C) marketing integration
D) brand parity
D) brand parity
When brand parity exists, consumers base purchases on:
A) advertising effectiveness
B) retail store location
C) price, availability, promotions or other criteria
D) information found on the Internet
C) price, availability, promotions or other criteria
To combat brand parity, the marketing team at a company such as Johnson & Johnson might claim it:
A) is developing additional products
B) has found new customers to buy products
C) has new locations
D) sells superior products
D) sells superior products
A contact point is:
A) the place where a marketer reaches the production team
B) the place where the product is packaged or sold
C) a description of the effects of an advertisement
D) a place where consumers interact with a company
D) a place where consumers interact with a company
The following are examples of customer contact points, except:
A) a commercial website
B) a friend who recommends a brand
C) a receptionist at a business
D) a sales clerk at a retail store
B) a friend who recommends a brand
websites, cell phones, and advertisements that present the same message and theme are:
A) contact points
B) marketing plans
C) account executives
D) marketing objectives
A) contact points
Mass-media television advertising:
A) is as effective as ever
B) has risen in the past decade
C) has not been assessed effectively
D) is declining in effectiveness
D) is declining in effectiveness
The decline in effectiveness of mass-media advertising has led marketers to shift efforts to:
A) using advertising agencies
B) creating brand parity
C) trade promotions
D) micro-marketing
D) micro-marketing
The term “alternative marketing” includes the following, except:
A) buzz marketing
B) social networks and blogs
C) guerrilla marketing
D) product placement
B) social networks and blogs
GIMC stands for:
A) Globally Integrated Marketing Communications
B) Global and Institutional Marketing Concepts
C) Generic and Institutionalized Marketing Creations
D) Generating Ideas for Marketing Control
A) Globally Integrated Marketing Communications
In terms of marketing communications, standardization is:
A) presenting the same message across national boundaries
B) a form of adaptation
C) new product development
D) a new form of the promotions mix
A) presenting the same message across national boundaries
Coca-Cola runs the same advertisement in all French-speaking countries. This is an example of global marketing communication:
A) diversified IMC theme
B) standardization
C) customization
D) integration
B) standardization
An example of standardization is:
A) using the “Generation Next” theme in all of Pepsi’s global markets
B) using women with their faces covered in ads for Islamic countries
C) developing a website in several languages
D) using local salespeople
A) using the “Generation Next” theme in all of Pepsi’s global markets
In terms of globally integrated marketing communications, adaptation is:
A) not used in international environments
B) a form of e-commerce
C) advertising in unusual media
D) adjusting a message to local conditions
D) adjusting a message to local conditions
An example of adaptation in global marketing communications is:
A) Ford’s One-World Ford Contour car
B) not selling the McRib sandwich in Israel because it violates religious practices
C) printing ads only in English for European countries
D) using direct mail
B) not selling the McRib sandwich in Israel because it violates religious practices
72) The primary reason for the success of PetSmart may be that the company has:
A) invested in pet hotels, which is a rapid growing market
B) expanded their retail operations
C) modified the products and services they sell to match the changing trends
D) multiple brands of products for pet owners
C) modified the products and services they sell to match the changing trends
The first step in the IMC planning process is:
A) analysis of the company’s context
B) defining the firm’s target market
C) an analysis of the product positioning
D) developing communications objective
A) Analysis of the company’s context
In the IMC planning process, a review of ________ allows the marketing team to identify potential target markets and positioning strategies.
A) the communications budget
B) the marketing plan
C) the firm’s communication objectives
D) the company’s context
D) company context
Developing an integrated marketing communications plan requires the analysis of the 3 C’s, which consist of:
A) current customers, competitors’ customers, and former customers
B) customers, competitors, and communications
C) company, context, and IMC components
D) communications, coupons, and customers
B) customers, competitors, and communications
In examining the IMC planning context, the following customers are analyzed, except:
A) current customers
B) potential new customers
C) foreign customers
D) competitors’ customers
C) foreign customers
In examining customers during the IMC planning context analysis, the easiest group to study is:
A) current customers
B) former customers
C) potential new customers
D) competitors’ customers
A) current customers
In examining customers during the IMC planning context analysis, the reason for studying former customers is to:
A) determine which customers a firm should seek
B) understand why they defected
C) determine how to improve the firm’s product or service
D) determine which target group has the highest potential
B) understand why they defected
A set of businesses or groups of individual consumers with distinct characteristics is a:
A) differentiated group
B) production department
C) market segment
D) manufacturing system
C) market segment
Market segments should be internally:
A) heterogeneous
B) identifiable
C) unique
D) homogeneous
D) homogenous
For a market segment to be viable, it should meet each of the following tests, except:
A) the members of the market segment should be ambiguous
B) the market segment must be large enough to be financially viable to market with a separate marketing campaign
C) the market segment must differ from the population as a whole
D) the market segment must be reachable through some type of media or marketing communications
A) the members of the market segment should be ambiguous
) The following are methods of segmenting consumer markets, except:
A) demographics
B) industry size
C) psychographics
D) generations
B) industry size
The following are methods of segmenting consumer markets, except:
A) geographic
B) geodemographics
C) distribution channel
D) benefits
C) distribution channel
The method of consumer segmentation that is based on population characteristics is:
A) demographics
B) psychographics
C) geographic
D) polygraphic
A) demographics
Using gender, age, ethnicity, and income as market segmentation variables is the application of which approach?
A) demographics
B) psychographics
C) geographic
D) polygraphic
A) demographics
The following are types of demographic segmentation variables, except:
A) gender
B) lifestyles
C) age
D) income
B) lifestyles
Level of education is an example of segmentation by:
A) psychographics
B) generations
C) demographics
D) geodemographics
C) demographics
Analysis of buying patterns by gender is an example of segmentation by:
A) psychographics
B) generations
C) demographics
D) usage
C) demographics
Many professional sports teams have started targeting ads to females because women:
A) now watch sports as often as men
B) influence the spending habits of men
C) are now the primary fan of most sports
D) have increased earning power
B) influence the spending habits of men
The marketing director of the Houston Astros baseball team has developed an advertising campaign targeted at females. This is an example of the demographic segmentation variable of:
A) gender
B) age
C) income
D) ethnicity
A) gender
Travel agencies have started advertising unique women-only getaways because research:
A) shows that many women are planning a girls-only getaway in the future
B) indicates that women influence a large percentage of the spending habits of males
C) indicates that women are willing to spend more money on a vacation than men
D) suggests that women and children are the primary influencers in a vacation destination spot
A) shows that many women are planning a girls-only getaway in the future
If a company chooses to focus marketing efforts on children, which demographic variable is being used to segment the market?
A) gender
B) age
C) generations
D) benefits
B) age
The marketing leaders of the New Orleans Saints football team developed an advertising campaign targeted at teenagers. This is an example of the demographic segmentation variable of:
A) gender
B) age
C) income
D) ethnicity
B) age
A commercial showing the luxury and quality of a Lexus is based on:
A) geographic segmentation
B) income segmentation
C) ethnic segmentation
D) geodemographic segmentation
B) income segmentation
African Americans, Hispanics, and Asian American ethnic groups tend to:
A) be less brand loyal than Asian Americans
B) put less value on quality than Caucasians
C) be more brand loyal than Caucasians
D) be primarily concerned with price
C) be more brand loyal than caucasians
Attitudes, interests, and opinions are reflected in:
A) demographic market segments
B) geographic market segments
C) psychographic market segments
D) product differentiation programs
C) psychographic market segments
Males who buy items because they reflect “masculinity” may be targeted using which segmentation approach?
A) geographic
B) psychographic
C) generational
D) product use
B) psychographic
The VALS typology is based on which type of segmentation?
A) demographic
B) psychographic
C) generations
D) geodemographic
B) psychographic
Marketing to individuals who are successful, sophisticated, receptive to new technologies, enjoy sports, and are liberal in their political views is an example of which type of segmentation?
A) demographic
B) psychographic
C) generations
D) geodemographic
B) psychographic
Which method of segmenting markets is based on the idea that people experience significant external events during their late adolescence and early adulthood that impact their social values, attitudes, and preferences?
A) demographic
B) psychographic
C) generations
D) geodemographics
C) generations
When Skechers targets California with a special advertising and promotional campaign, which type of segmentation is being used?
A) psychographics
B) demographics
C) geographic area
D) geodemographics
C) geographic area
Targeting Northern states in the United States for sales of snow skis is an example of which type of segmentation?
A) demographic
B) geographic
C) benefit
D) geodemographic
B) geographic
Geodemographics:
A) combines census data with psychographic data
B) segments populations by generations
C) is a form of global marketing
D) groups consumers by region
A) Combines census data with psychographic data
Geodemographic segmentation combines all of the following, except:
A) census demographic information
B) geographic information
C) product usage information
D) psychographic information
C) product usage information
If a company sends direct mail to only the zip codes of communities that match the firm’s best customer profiles, it is using which type of segmentation?
A) demographic
B) psychographic
C) geographic
D) geodemographic
D) geodemographic
PRIZM is a company that specializes in which type of segmentation?
A) product differentiation
B) geodemographic
C) geographic
D) psychographic
B) geodemographic
A market segmentation approach that focuses on the benefits of the product rather than on the type of customers is called:
A) demographic segmentation
B) psychographic segmentation
C) benefit segmentation
D) usage segmentation
C) benefit segmentation
Targeting people who buy vitamins to improve their health is an example of which type of segmentation?
A) demographic
B) geographic
C) benefit
D) geodemographic
C) benefit
Targeting people who wish to improve their sex lives using herbs and supplements is an example of which type of segmentation?
A) demographic
B) geographic
C) benefit
D) geodemographic
C) benefit
A firm that has a database containing consumer purchasing histories and uses the information to create market segments is using:
A) demographic segmentation
B) psychographic segmentation
C) benefit segmentation
D) usage segmentation
D) usage segmentation
In terms of market segmentation, the usage segmentation approach offers each of the following advantages, except:
A) a meaningful classification scheme based on the actual behavior of customers
B) ability to reduce a large volume of customer data to a few, concise clusters
C) ability to measure the growth of each cluster and the migration of customers from one cluster to another
D) ability to compare a firm’s customers with customers from competing firms
D) ability to compare a firm’s customers with customers from competing firms
The following are methods of segmenting business-to-business markets, except:
A) psychographics
B) NAICS/SIC code
C) geographic location
D) size of business
A) psychographics
The following are methods of segmenting business-to-business markets, except:
A) product usage
B) psychographics
C) geographic location
D) customer value
B) psychographics
The most common method of segmenting business markets by industry is to use:
A) the NAICS code system
B) geographic location
C) business characteristics
D) customer value measures
A) the NAICS code system
The NAICS/SIC code program is used in which type of business-to-business segmentation?
A) industry
B) company size
C) geographic
D) benefit
A) industry
If Microsoft’s marketing team wanted to use a different communications approach when designing mailings for various business industries, they could utilize:
A) the NAICS code
B) demographics
C) competitive analysis
D) opportunity analysis
A) the NAICS code
A food producer that distinguishes between individually owned grocery stores and major retailers such as Target, the segmentation approach being used is:
A) industry
B) size
C) geographic
D) usage
B) size
Using segmentation by size, which type of organization would be most likely to be contacted by e-mail or outbound telemarketing?
A) small size
B) medium size
C) large size
D) governmental
A) small size
Using segmentation by size, which type of organization would be most likely to be contacted by a field sales person visiting the organization’s place of business?
A) small size
B) medium size
C) large size
D) governmental
C) large size
Applied Microbiology used which method to segment the business market by combining geographic area data for dairy farmers with demographic and psychographic information?
A) product usage
B) NAICS/SIC code
C) geodemographics
D) size of business
C) geodemographics
Marketing to companies that use the same good or service, but in different ways is segmentation based on:
A) the NAICS code
B) demographics
C) geographic location
D) product usage
D) product usage
When the Edgewater Hotel & Resort develops a marketing campaign aimed to attract business customers, institutions, and organizations that need a location to hold 2 to 4 day conferences, the type of segmentation approach being used was:
A) demographics
B) product usage
C) type of business
D) customer value
B) product usage
When Reynolds Protection Agency sells the same service to three different types of organizations, the segmentation approach being used is:
A) industry
B) size
C) geographic
D) usage
D) usage
When a company sorts prospects into those with the lowest, medium, and highest profit potential, the segmentation approach being used is:
A) industry
B) size
C) usage
D) customer value
D) customer value
An auto parts supplier divides repair shops into those with the lowest, medium, and highest potential levels of sales and profits, which means the segmentation approach being used is:
A) industry
B) geographic
C) customer value
D) usage
C) Customer value
Mountain Dew’s marketing team might learn that the soft drink is considered more hip and trendy than Coke during an analysis of:
A) primary data
B) market segments
C) the company or product’s position
D) secondary data
C) the company or product’s position
Product positioning is the:
A) level of brand equity faced by a company or brand
B) perception consumers have of a company or brand relative to competitors
C) number and level of products offered by a company
D) perception consumers have of a company or brand relative to other brands being offered by the company
B) perception consumers have of a company or brand relative to competitors
The following are possible product positioning strategies, except:
A) attributes
B) competitors
C) use or application
D) by-products
D) by-products
The following are possible product positioning strategies, except:
A) governmental customers
B) cultural symbols
C) product users
D) product class
A) governmental customers
The product positioning strategy based on a product trait or characteristic is the positioning approach of:
A) product attributes
B) competitors
C) use or application
D) price-quality relationship
A) product attributes
A restaurant that advertises “the best food and best service in town” uses which form of positioning?
A) product attributes
B) competitors
C) use or application
D) price-quality relationship
A) product attributes
The product positioning strategy of using another brand to establish the position is the positioning approach of:
A) product attributes
B) competitors
C) use or application
D) price-quality relationship
B) competitors
If Dominos advertises, “our pizza beat Pizza Hut in a recent taste test,” the positioning approach would be:
A) product attributes
B) based on competitors
C) use or application
D) price-quality relationship
B) based on competitors
When a sandwich chain points out that its meats are sliced in the store while Subway’s meats are sliced in a “factory,” the type of positioning being emphasized is:
A) product attributes
B) competitor
C) use or application
D) price-quality relationship
B) competitor
The product positioning strategy based on value or prestige is the positioning approach of:
A) product attributes
B) competitors
C) use or application
D) price-quality relationship
D) price-quality relationship
When Mercedes Benz promises the finest luxury ride in an automobile, the positioning approach being used is:
A) competitors
B) price-quality relationship
C) use or application
D) cultural symbol
B) price-quality relationship
Celestial Seasonings focuses on the healthy aspect of its green tea. This is an example of product positioning by:
A) product user
B) product class
C) use or application
D) product attribute
D) product attribute
The product positioning strategy based on how a product is used is the positioning approach of:
A) product attributes
B) competitors
C) use or application
D) price-quality relationship
C) use or application
Wal-Mart uses the tagline “save money, live better.” This is an example of product positioning by:
A) product user
B) price-quality relationship
C) use or application
D) cultural symbol
B) price-quality relationship
When a product positioning strategy is based on the type of consumer that buys an item, the positioning approach being used is:
A) product user
B) product class
C) use or application
D) cultural symbol
A) product user
The product positioning strategy based on a category or type of product is the positioning approach of:
A) product user
B) product class
C) use or application
B) product class
Stetson cologne has positioned its brand using the tough, cowboy image. This is an example of product positioning by:
A) product user
B) product class
C) use or application
D) cultural symbol
D) cultural symbol
Morning Star has developed an entire line of non-meat breakfast foods and markets them as a substitute for breakfast meats. This is an example of product positioning by:
A) product user
B) product class
C) use or application
D) cultural symbol
B) product class
A local video rental store looking to increase customer traffic in the summer would be an example of a:
A) target market analysis
B) product positioning
C) communications analysis
D) communications objective
D) communications objective
The following are examples of typical communication objectives, except:
A) identify competitors
B) encourage repeat purchases
C) enhance firm image
D) change customer beliefs or attributes
A) identify competitors
The following are examples of typical marketing communications objectives, except:
A) increase market share
B) increase the number of products offered
C) increase profits
D) increase return on investment
B) increase the number of products offered
The starting point that is studied in relation to the degree of change following a promotional campaign is called a:
A) post-hoc analysis
B) marginal analysis
C) benchmark measure
D) standardized measure
C) benchmark measure
) The following would be examples of marketing objectives, except:
A) increase market share
B) meet a targeted return on investment
C) enhance brand image
D) increase sales volume
C) enhance brand image
A communications budget is based on:
A) communication objectives
B) marketing objectives
C) both communication and marketing objectives
D) a targeted level of return on investment
C) both communication and marketing objectives
In terms of the relationship between expenditures on advertising communications and subsequent sales revenues, too many marketing managers assume that there is a(n):
A) direct relationship
B) indirect relationship
C) inverted U-shaped relationship
D) inverse relationship
A) direct relationship
As consumers see advertisements over time they become more likely to recall a message and purchase a product. This demonstrates:
A) diminishing returns
B) decay effects
C) threshold effects
D) purchase simulation
C) threshold effects
The early effects of an advertising campaign may be minimal, but over time gain momentum. This phenomenon is called:
A) diminishing returns
B) threshold effects
C) the sales-response curve
D) carryover effect
B) threshold effects
When BMW Motorcycles first began targeting some advertisements toward females, the impact was minimal at first, but after some time passed began to have an impact on inquiries by females and later on sales revenue. This illustrates the concept of:
A) impact of communication goals on sales revenues
B) threshold effects
C) sales-response function curve
D) carryover effect
B) threshold effects
The sales-response function curve models the:
A) diminishing returns of advertising
B) threshold effects of advertisements
C) carryover effects of advertising
D) decay effects of advertisements
A) diminishing returns on advertising
When a concave downward function is present, increasing advertising expenditures result in:
A) greater sales
B) diminishing returns
C) average returns
D) further advertising expenditures
B) diminishing returns
Which is a model that shows that further advertising and promotion expenditures may result in adverse effects on profits?
A) a sales-response function
B) a marginal analysis
C) average return on investment curve
D) promotions opportunity curve
B) marginal analysis
Which concept explains that consumers may recall an ad from the past and make a purchase because they have seen the ad several times?
A) a sales-response curve
B) a marginal analysis
C) decay effects
D) carryover effects
D) carryover effects
Even though a business may have gone out of business, a few consumers may still recall the company when thinking about making a new washing machine purchase due to:
A) carryover effects of previous ads
B) wear out effects of ads of competitors
C) threshold effects of former ads
D) decay effects of former ads
A) carryover effects of previous ads
Manufacturers of appliances, such as GE and Whirlpool, advertise on a continuous basis because appliances are purchased infrequently and only when they are needed. To ensure the brand name is remembered when the need arises, these manufacturers rely on:
A) threshold effects
B) sales-response function curve
C) wear out effects
D) carryover effects
D) carryover effects
Automobile manufacturer ads comprise about 15 percent of all magazine advertising revenue. One reason auto manufacturers spend so much on advertising is that consumers do not purchase vehicles on a regular basis. When they do make decisions to purchase new cars, the auto companies want to make sure consumers remember the right brand. This illustrates the concept of:
A) decay effects
B) wear out effects
C) carryover effects
D) threshold effects
C) carryover effects
When consumers begin to think of an advertisement as old or stale, the concept being illustrated is:
A) a sales-response curve
B) wear out effects
C) decay effects
D) carryover effects
C) wear out effects
When consumers begin to forget a brand name because advertising messages have stopped, it is a sign of:
A) a sales-response curve
B) wear out effects
C) decay effects
D) carryover effects
C) decay effects
S.O.S. soap pads were advertised on television for many years. When the company discontinued advertising, sales slowly began to decline and consumers gradually forgot the brand name. This illustrates the concept of:
A) decay effects
B) wear out effects
C) carryover effects
D) threshold effects
A) decay effects
The following are methods of determining marketing communications budgets, except:
A) percentage of sales
B) sales approximation
C) meet the competition
D) what we can afford
B) sales approximation
The following are methods of determining marketing communications budgets, except:
A) objective and task
B) payout planning
C) sales-response function curve
D) quantitative methods
C) sales-response function curve
Basing a communications budget on sales from the previous year or anticipated sales for the next year is which method?
A) percentage of sales
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) payout planning
A) percentage of sales
One of the problems with the percentage of sales budgeting method is:
A) deciding on the percentage level
B) finding a benchmark figure to use
C) the budget tends to change in the opposite direction of what may be needed
D) the competition knows how much the company will spend on advertising
C) the budget tends to change in the opposite direction of what may be needed
The primary reason companies develop a communications budget using the percentage of sales method is:
A) it tends to be more accurate than the other methods
B) the budget tends to change with sales, so as sales increase there is more money available for communications
C) money is available for unique marketing opportunities that arise
D) it is simple to prepare
D) it is simple to prepare
Basing a budget on what other companies are spending on advertising and communication is which method?
A) percentage of sales
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) payout planning
B) meet the competition
The primary disadvantage of the meet-the-competition method of marketing communication budgeting is:
A) marketing dollars may not be spent efficiently
B) there is little flexibility in how the marketing dollars can be spent
C) when sales go down, so does spending
D) it shows a lack of commitment to marketing
A) marketing dollars may not be spent efficiently
If Burger King’s advertising manager decides to match McDonald’s dollar-for-dollar in advertising expenditures, which type of advertising budget is being used?
A) objective and task
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) the percentage of share method
B) meet the competition
The primary objective of the meet-the-competition method for developing a marketing communications budget is to:
A) match the communication budget with sales
B) ensure marketing dollars are invested where it is most needed
C) prevent the loss of market share
D) ensure marketing dollars are allocated appropriately
C) prevent the loss of market share
Which method of developing marketing communications budget is often used in highly, competitive markets where rivalries between competitors are intense?
A) percentage of sales
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) objective and task
B) meet the competition
Managers who do not recognize the benefits of marketing may be most inclined to use which method of communications budgeting?
A) percentage of sales
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) payout planning
C) what we can afford
Newer and smaller companies are inclined to use which method when developing marketing communications budgets?
A) percentage of sales
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) payout planning
C) what we can afford
Which method for developing a marketing communications budget links dollars to defined goals?
A) percentage of sales
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) objective and task
D) objective and task
If a company’s leaders reject a communications budgeting method because it would take too long to prepare, odds are the budgeting method is:
A) percentage of sales
B) meet the competition
C) what we can afford
D) objective and task
D) objective and task
Which approach to developing a marketing communications budget is often viewed as being the most effective?
A) objective and task
B) percentage of sales
C) what we can afford
D) payout planning
A) objective and task
Which method of developing a marketing communications budget establishes a ratio of advertising dollars to sales or market share then reduces the percentage as sales build and the product obtains market share?
A) arbitrary allocation
B) meet-the-competition
C) payout planning
D) quantitative models
C) payout planning
In using the payout planning method of developing a marketing communications budget, the larger amounts of dollars would be spent on marketing communications:
A) in the early years to build brand awareness and brand equity
B) in the middle years to build brand equity and brand preference
C) in the later years to maintain market share
D) when the market share is the lowest
A
In using the payout planning method of developing a marketing communications budget, the marketing budget would be reduced:
A) at the product’s introduction, then increased when brand acceptance occurs
B) when the brand becomes the market leader
C) when the brand reaches the point at which additional dollars invested in communications yields diminishing returns
D) when the market becomes saturated
C) when the brand reaches the point at which additional dollars invested in communications yields diminishing returns
Which method of developing a marketing communications budget is used when the marketing budget is reduced as the brand reaches the point that additional dollars invested in communications yields diminishing returns?
A) percentage of sales
B) objective and task
C) payout planning
D) quantitative methods
C) payout planning
Which method of developing a marketing communications budget uses computer simulations to model the relationship between advertising and marketing communications and sales, profits, and other factors?
A) meet the competition
B) objective and task
C) payout planning
D) quantitative models
D) quantitative models
In terms of marketing expenditures, companies tend to spend the most (41%) on:
A) media advertising
B) trade promotions
C) consumer promotions
D) direct marketing
A) media advertising
In terms of marketing expenditures, service companies tend to spend more on which of the following than manufacturers?
A) media advertising
B) trade promotions
C) consumer promotions
D) direct marketing
A) media advertising
In terms of media expenditures, the fastest growing media outlet is:
A) television
B) the Internet
C) outdoor advertising
D) network TV
B) the internet
) In terms of ad spending by media in the United States, the largest category is:
A) television
B) magazines
C) the Internet
D) newspapers
A) television
The largest amount of spending for alternative advertising in the United States focuses on:
A) brand entertainment
B) online/mobile
C) interactive marketing
D) social media
B) online/mobile
Approximately 40 percent of monies spent on alternative media in the United States was in the category called online/mobile. This category consists of the following, except:
A) lead generation
B) product placement
C) online display and video ads
D) mobile phone ads
B) product placement
In terms of U.S. business-to-business direct marketing expenditures, the largest category is:
A) television
B) Internet marketing (non-e-mail)
C) direct mail (non-catalog)
D) telephone marketing
A) television
Successful ethnic marketing requires:
A) hiring ethnically-owned marketing and advertising agencies
B) translating English speaking ads into Spanish or native language of the ethnic group
C) understanding the various ethnic groups and writing marketing communications that speak to their specific values and cultures
D) using ethnically-owned media outlets
C) understanding the various ethnic groups and writing marketing communications that speak to their specific values and cultures
Successful global integrated marketing communication campaigns include the following tactics, except:
A) a standardization approach
B) understand the international market
C) create a borderless marketing plan
D) think globally, but act locally
A) a standardization approach
Stopping an ad which appears to be funny in one global culture but offensive in another is probably performed by:
A) a creative
B) a bilingual
C) a cultural assimilator
D) the local government
C) a cultural assimilator
The menu at Chipotle Mexican Grill is:
A) primarily gourmet food prepared by some for the best Mexican chefs
B) relatively simple, with a series of options for each menu item
C) primarily organic foods
D) all cooked with chipotles
B) relatively simple, with a series of options for each menu item
In terms of marketing, Chipotle:
A) relies almost entirely on social media, such as Facebook and specialty Mexican sites
B) relies on advertising to inform consumers about the restaurant
C) uses primarily alternative marketing methods
D) relies more on word-of-mouth communication and an online presence than advertising
D) relies more on word-of-mouth communication and an online presence than advertising
The two components of the consumer decision-making process that are most critical to developing an integrated marketing communications program are:
A) problem recognition and information search
B) information search and evaluation of alternatives
C) evaluation of alternatives and purchase decision
D) problem recognition and evaluation of alternatives
B) information search and evaluation of alternatives
An internal information search for product information occurs when:
A) a consumer experiences uneasiness
B) a consumer thinks about brands he/she is willing to consider
C) the consumer buying process is nearly complete
D) advertisements are being ignored
B) a consumer thinks about brands he/she is willing to consider
During a search for purchase information, what factor will increase the probability that a brand will be considered?
A) brand parity
B) brand equity
C) product viability
D) brand ambiguity
B) brand equity
During the internal search process for product information, a key objective for creatives and brand managers is to:
A) have information readily available to consumers
B) make sure the company’s brand is part of the consumer’s inert set
C) have the brand in the person’s cognitive map
D) make sure the company’s brand is part of the consumer’s set of potential alternatives
D) make sure the company’s brand is part of the consumer’s set of potential alternatives
When a person conducts an internal search for product information and already has sufficient information, the next step of the purchase decision process will be to:
A) search for additional information
B) make the purchase decision
C) evaluate the alternatives
D) identify the need or problem the choice will meet
B) make the purchase decision
An external search for purchase information occurs when:
A) the consumer is uncertain about which brand to purchase
B) the internal search has been successful
C) the evaluation of alternatives has been completed
D) a purchase has been finalized and the buyer is looking for reassurance
A) the consumer is uncertain about which brand to purchase
A person’s educational level combined with specific knowledge about a product category determines the:
A) ability to search
B) desire to search
C) need for cognition
D) involvement level
A) ability to search
The individual that has the greatest ability to conduct an external search for information is the consumer that has:
A) a low level of knowledge about the product category
B) an extensive knowledge of the product category
C) some knowledge of the product category, but not enough to make an intelligent decision
D) a low educational level
B) an extensive knowledge of the product category
The individual that is most likely to spend the greatest amount of time in an external search for information is the consumer that has:
A) a low level of knowledge about the product category
B) an extensive knowledge of the product category
C) some knowledge of the product category, but not enough to make an intelligent decision
D) a low educational level
C) some knowledge of the product category, but not enough to make an intelligent decision
In terms of the external information search process, the extent to which a stimulus or task is relevant to a consumer’s existing need determines the:
A) ability to search
B) need for cognition
C) search methods
D) level of involvement
D) level of involvement
In terms of an external search for information in a purchasing decision, involvement is:
A) the extent to which a stimulus or task is relevant to a consumer’s existing needs, wants, or values
B) a personality characteristic an individual displays when he or she engages in and enjoys mental activities
C) the mental position a person takes on a topic, person, or event that influences the holder’s feelings, perceptions, learning processes, and subsequent behaviors
D) a simulation of the knowledge structure embedded in an individual’s brain
A) the extent to which a stimulus or task is relevant to a consumer’s existing needs, wants, or values
During the external information search process for product information, consumers with high levels of involvement tend to spend:
A) more time searching for external information
B) less time searching for external information
C) greater emotional energy studying external and internal information
D) more time shopping in retail stores
A) more time searching for external information
Individuals who engage in and enjoy mental activities have a:
A) low need for cognition
B) high need for cognition
C) low level of shopping enthusiasm
D) high level of shopping enthusiasm
B) high need for cognition
In terms of external search for information in a purchase decision, the need for cognition is:
A) the extent to which a stimulus or task is relevant to a consumer’s existing needs, wants, or values
B) a personality characteristic an individual displays when he or she engages in and enjoys mental activities
C) the mental position a person takes on a topic, person, or event that influences the holder’s feelings, perceptions, learning processes, and subsequent behaviors
D) simulations of the knowledge structure embedded in an individual’s brain
B) a personality characteristic an individual displays when he or she engages in and enjoys mental activities
When Maya decides she needs some new clothes, she will spend considerable time comparing the various brands and will often go to several retail stores. Maya has a:
A) low need for cognition
B) high need for cognition
C) low level of shopping enthusiasm
D) high level of shopping enthusiasm
D) high level of shopping enthusiasm
The perceived cost of a purchase decision includes each of the following, except:
A) the actual price or cost of the product
B) the subjective costs associated with the search
C) the economic conditions of the area
D) the opportunity costs of foregoing other activities to make the search
C) the economic conditions of the area
Juan only has a high school education and knows very little about digital cameras. Juan will most likely:
A) conduct only an internal search
B) refer the decision to someone else
C) not engage in an extensive external search for more information
D) engage in an extensive external search for information
D) engage in an extensive external search for information
The mental position a person takes about a topic, person, or event is called a(n):
A) value
B) attitude
C) level of involvement
D) cognition
B) attitude
Which component of an attitude contains the feelings or emotions a person has about a product?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) rational
A) affective
Which component of an attitude refers to a person’s mental images, understanding, and interpretation of a product?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) rational
B) cognitive
Which component of an attitude displays the individual’s intentions, actions, or behavior?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) rational
C) conative
The cognitive component of an attitude:
A) contains the feelings or emotions a person has about an object, person, or idea
B) refers to a person’s mental images, understanding, and interpretations of an object, person, or idea
C) is an individual’s intentions, actions, or behavior
D) is the mental picture a person has of an object, person, or idea
B) refers to a person’s mental images, understanding, and interpretations of an object, person, or idea
The conative component of an attitude:
A) contains the feelings or emotions a person has about an object, person, or idea
B) refers to a person’s mental images, understanding, and interpretations of an object, person, or idea
C) is an individual’s intentions, actions, or behavior
D) is the mental picture a person has of an object, person, or idea
C) is an individual’s intentions, actions, or behavior
In terms of attitude formation, the most common sequence is:
A) affective → conative → cognitive
B) conative → cognitive → affective
C) conative → affective → cognitive
D) cognitive → affective → conative
D) cognitive → affective → conative
Kylie believes St. Francis North Hospital has the best imaging technology in the region and will, therefore, offer excellent care for her son. This reflects which part of an attitude?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
B) cognitive
If an advertisement by Pampers is designed to appeal to a person’s emotions first, the ad addresses which component of an attitude?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) value
A) affective
If Brayden is swayed by an ad that incites fear of his home being burglarized, he is being influenced by which component of an attitude?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) value
A) affective
A low price, low involvement purchase is likely to begin with which component of an attitude?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) value
C) conative
An impulse buy probably means that the consumer acted on which component of an attitude?
A) affective
B) cognitive
C) conative
D) value
C) conative
Strongly held beliefs about various topics or concepts are:
A) attitudes
B) cognitive maps
C) values
D) mental images
C) values
A simulation of the knowledge structures embedded in an individual’s brain is called a:
A) value
B) mental image
C) cognitive map
D) component of an attitude
C) cognitive map
When an individual considers all the ideas that come to mind when the name of a product is mentioned, which best explains the thinking?
A) maps of attitudes
B) value models
C) a cognitive map
D) affect referral
C) a cognitive map
In terms of cognitive mapping, if most consumers have not considered Sunkist lemons as a substitute for salt, then an advertisement that conveys such a message to consumers is attempting to:
A) strengthen a linkage that already exists
B) modify a current linkage
C) create a new linkage
D) create a new layer
C) create a new linkage
An evoked set does not contain:
A) brands a person considers
B) brands linked to a positive experience
C) brands which have been previously purchased
D) brands the consumer knows little about
D) brands the consumer knows little about
The set of brands a person will not consider due to negative feelings is the:
A) inept set
B) inert set
C) negative set
D) evoked set
A) inept set
The set of brands a consumer knows about but has neither positive nor negative feelings for is the:
A) inept set
B) inert set
C) cognitive set
D) evoked set
B) inert set
An evoked set is the set of brands:
A) that are part of a person’s memory, but not considered because they elicit negative feelings
B) the consumer has awareness of, but has neither negative or positive feelings toward
C) that a person would consider as potential solutions to meet a need
D) that are viewed by a consumer as being approximately equal in terms of quality
C) that a person would consider as potential solutions to meet a need
The inept set is the set of brands:
A) that are part of a person’s memory, but not considered because they elicit negative feelings
B) the consumer has awareness of, but has neither negative or positive feelings toward
C) that a person would consider as feasible solutions to meet a need
D) that are viewed by a consumer as being approximately equal in terms of quality
A) that are part of a person’s memory, but not considered because they elicit negative feelings
The inert set is the set of brands:
A) that are part of a person’s memory, but not considered because they elicit negative feelings
B) the consumer has awareness of, but has neither negative or positive feelings toward
C) that a person would consider as feasible solutions to meet a need
D) that are viewed by a consumer as being approximately equal in terms of quality
B) the consumer has awareness of, but has neither negative or positive feelings toward
Derek eliminated New Balance shoes because he doesn’t know anything about them. Derek used which type of evaluation process to make this decision?
A) evoked set method
B) multiattribute
C) affect referral
D) attitude formation
A) evoked set method
While selecting a restaurant, Donna thought about all of her favorite places and finally chose Red Lobster because she loves the food and it has been a while since she ate there. In making this decision, Donna used which method to evaluate the possible choices?
A) evoked set method
B) multiattribute
C) affect referral
D) attitude formation
A) evoked set method
Using the multi-attribute approach, an individual considers:
A) beliefs about product attributes and the importance of those attributes
B) layers, levels, and linkages of the cognitive map
C) cognitive, conative, and affective reactions to the product
D) the evoked, inert, and inept sets of brands
A) beliefs about product attributes and the importance of those attributes
Didi carefully considers price, sound quality, and the size of a new stereo system. The sound quality is the most important factor, followed by the price. The evaluation model being used by Didi is:
A) cognitive mapping
B) evoked set
C) multiattribute
D) affect referral
C) multiattribute
Which model of evaluation of alternatives suggests consumers buy brands they like best or connect with emotionally?
A) cognitive mapping
B) multiattribute
C) affect referral
D) evoked-set
C) affect referral
In using the affect referral approach to decision making, the person considers:
A) product attributes and the importance of attributes
B) the brand he or she likes the best
C) cognitive and conative cues
D) evoked, inept, and inert sets of brands
B) the brand he or she likes the best
Carrie buys a Honda Accord without considering other brands because she really likes the Accord and feels it is the best automobile on the market. Carrie’s evaluation of alternatives is best explained by which model?
A) cognitive mapping
B) evoked set
C) multiattribute approach
D) affect referral
D) affect referral
Mackenzie is taking forever to buy a pair of jeans because she is considering all the factors involved, such as price, color, and style. Which method is being used to evaluate the various brands?
A) cognitive mapping approach
B) evoked set
C) multiattribute approach
D) affect referral
C) multiattribute approach
All of the following are reasons consumers use the affect referral method to evaluate alternatives, except:
A) consumers have already eliminated the evoked set from consideration
B) the affect referral method saves time and mental energy
C) the consumer may have already used the multiattribute approach in a previous purchase situation
D) the consumer has developed an emotional bond with the particular brand
A)
Despite being 52 years old, Claire likes to wear young-looking fashions, such as short skirts, and drive her new red convertible sports car. This is an example of the consumer buyer behavior trend of:
A) age complexity
B) gender complexity
C) active, busy lifestyles
D) individualism
A) age complexity
Which consumer buyer behavior trend suggests that the traditional roles, lifestyles, and interests of both men and women are becoming blurred?
A) age complexity
B) gender complexity
C) active, busy lifestyles
D) individualism
B) gender complexity
Advertisements for food products and cleaning supplies once directed exclusively to women now must also be geared towards men. This is an example of the consumer behavior trend of:
A) age complexity
B) gender complexity
C) active, busy lifestyles
D) individualism
B) gender complexity
The consumer demand for convenience and time-saving devices is the result of which consumer buyer behavior trend?
A) age complexity
B) cocooning
C) active, busy lifestyles
D) pleasure pursuits
C) active, busy lifestyles
Spending more money on homes and making the home environment pleasurable is a result of which consumer buyer behavior trend?
A) health emphasis
B) cocooning
C) active, busy lifestyles
D) pleasure pursuits
B) cocooning
Pleasure cruises and exotic vacations take advantage of which consumer behavior trend?
A) health emphasis
B) cocooning
C) active, busy lifestyles
D) experience pursuits
D) experience pursuits
The group of people who make a business-to-business purchasing decision on behalf of a company is called the:
A) decision-makers
B) marketing team
C) institutional buyers
D) buying center
D) buying center
The member of the buyer center who actually utilizes items after they are purchased is the:
A) user
B) influencer
C) decider
D) gatekeeper
A) user
In a buying center, who would say, “Since I’m the one who actually has to use this product, you should listen to me”?
A) a user
B) a buyer
C) a decider
D) a gatekeeper
A) user
In a buying center of a large company, the purchasing agent is normally the:
A) user
B) buyer
C) decider
D) gatekeeper
B) buyer
The member of the buying center who is most likely to negotiate the price is the:
A) user
B) influencer
C) buyer
D) gatekeeper
C) buyer
The members of the buying center who shape purchasing decisions by providing information and criteria are called:
A) users
B) influencers
C) deciders
D) buyers
B) influencers
In a buying center, the person who would be the most likely to say, “We need to limit our choices to local vendors” is:
A) a user
B) a buyer
C) an influencer
D) the gatekeeper
C) an influencer
The members of the buying center who authorize purchasing decisions are called:
A) users
B) influencers
C) deciders
D) buyers
C) deciders
The members of the buying center who control the flow of information and keep vendors in or out of the process are called:
A) users
B) influencers
C) deciders
D) gatekeepers
D) gatekeepers
The member of the buying center who is most likely to let the group know that some alternative companies have already been rejected is the:
A) user
B) influencer
C) decider
D) gatekeeper
D) gatekeeper
Two of the factors that affect members of the buying center are individual factors and:
A) perceptual factors
B) ideological factors
C) recreational factors
D) organizational factors
D) organizational factors
Decision rules that help employees make quick decisions regarding purchases are called:
A) heuristics
B) satisficing
C) methodologies
D) role playing
A) heuristics
When an acceptable purchasing alternative has been identified and it is taken, the process is called:
A) decision maximization
B) satisficing
C) utilization
D) standardization
B) satisficing
An organizational factor that impacts the manner in which a purchase decision is made includes the:
A) norms members of the buying center are expected to follow
B) risk involved in switching vendors
C) personalities of the sales staff and members of the buying center
D) capital assets a firm has available
D) capital assets a firm has available
The following are individual factors that might influence a member of the buying center, except:
A) personality features
B) roles and perceived roles
C) levels of cognitive involvement
D) capital assets a firm has available
D) capital assets a firm has available
In terms of personality, an extrovert is likely to display each of the following characteristics within the buying center, except:
A) spends more time talking within the buying center
B) becomes more involved in the buying process
C) will not ask important questions
D) will not listen to others in the group
C) will not ask important questions
In terms of personality, an introvert is likely to display each of the following characteristics within the buying center, except:
A) spend less time talking within the buying center
B) become more involved in the buying process
C) will not ask important questions because of timidity
D) will listen carefully to others in the group
B) become more involved in the buying process
Roles and perceived roles, motivational levels, and attitudes toward risk are examples of which factor that affects members of business buying centers?
A) organizational
B) individual
C) cultural
D) economic
B) individual
A person’s level of power in the buying process depends on each of the following, except:
A) his or her role in the buying center
B) his or her official position in the company
C) the impact of the purchase decision on a his or her job
D) the level of cognitive involvement
D) the level of cognitive involvement
Buying center members with higher levels of cognitive involvement will:
A) use the purchasing process to further personal power goals
B) ask more questions during the purchasing process
C) have no opinion about purchase risk
D) be most inclined to base a purchase decision on nepotism
B) ask more questions during the purchasing process
Individuals with high levels of cognitive involvement will display all of the following characteristics, except:
A) want more information prior to making a decision
B) ask more questions during the purchase process
C) spend less time deliberating prior to making a decision
D) want clear message arguments
spend less time deliberating prior to making a decision
A straight rebuy involves:
A) re-ordering raw materials from the same vendor
B) buying materials from a new vendor
C) seeking bids from a new vendor because of dissatisfaction with the current supplier
D) purchasing a new building for an expansion project
A) re-ordering raw materials from the same vendor
The purchase decision that requires the least effort and is often made quickly is a(n):
A) straight rebuy
B) modified rebuy
C) new task
D) accelerated buy
A) straight rebuy
A straight rebuy purchase decision occurs:
A) when the firm has previously chosen a vendor and intends to place a reorder
B) when a company is dissatisfied with their current vendor and wants to consider new options
C) when a new company makes an offer that appears to be more attractive than what is currently being supplied by the current vendor
D) at the end of a contractual relationship and the company wants to evaluate competitive bids
A) when the firm has previously chosen a vendor and intends to place a reorder
There is no evaluation of vendor alternatives or information in which situation?
A) modified rebuy
B) straight rebuy
C) new task
D) high-involvement
B) straight rebuy
A modified rebuy purchase decision occurs in each of the following situations, except:
A) when the firm has previously chosen a vendor and intends to place a reorder
B) when a company is dissatisfied with their current vendor and wants to consider new options
C) when a new company makes an offer that appears to be more attractive than what is currently being supplied by their current vendor
D) at the end of a contractual relationship and the company wants to evaluate competitive bids
A) when the firm has previously chosen a vendor and intends to place a reorder
A modified rebuy is most likely to occur when:
A) the company becomes dissatisfied with a vendor and wants to examine new options
B) re-ordering raw materials from the same vendor
C) buying a new computer system
D) purchasing a new building for an expansion project
A) the company becomes dissatisfied with a vendor and wants to examine new options
A company that buys a product but only has limited or infrequent experience with that product will be involved in a:
A) straight rebuy
B) modified rebuy
C) new task purchase
D) joint demand purchase
C) new task purchase
Julian, the owner of a small company asks his secretary to call some of the local office supply stores and locate two that would offer a good deal on a new copy machine. In performing this task, the secretary is assuming which initial roles within the buying center?
A) user and gatekeeper
B) user and buyer
C) user, decider, and influencer
D) buyer and gatekeeper
A) user and gatekeeper
If a potential vendor offers what is perceived by a member of the buying center to be a better buy, the company may want to revisit the purchase decision. This type of situation is typically a:
A) straight rebuy
B) modified rebuy
C) new task purchase
D) joint demand purchase
B) modified rebuy
A company has reached the end of a contractual agreement with a vendor and wants to open it up for bid again before signing a new contract. This type of purchase situation is a:
A) straight rebuy
B) modified rebuy
C) new task purchase
D) joint demand purchase
B) modified rebuy
A new task purchasing decision involves:
A) re-ordering from the same vendor
B) ordering new materials from the same vendor
C) requesting bids from multiple vendors since the contractual period with the current vendor has expired
D) buying an expensive good or service for the first time
D) buying an expensive good or service for the first time
Which takes the most time to complete and involves the highest number of people in the buying process?
A) straight rebuy
B) modified rebuy
C) new task purchase
D) identifying a need
C) new task purchase
Kimberly-Clark is going to place an additional order for plastic from its current vendor because of a larger order it has received from a customer for products the company manufacturers. The additional order for plastic would be a:
A) straight rebuy purchase
B) modified rebuy purchase
C) new task purchase
D) none of the above
A) straight rebuy purchase
In the business-to-business buying process, the first step is:
A) identification of a need
B) establishment of specifications
C) identification of alternatives
D) appointing a committee
A) identification of a need
Derived demand is demand:
A) from consumers for new goods and services
B) from manufacturers to find new customers
C) linked to the production and sale of some other item
D) as specified by governmental orders
C) linked to the production and sale of some other item
The linkage between the demand for automobile tires and sales of automobiles is an example of:
A) derived demand
B) co-demand
C) joint demand
D) fabricated demand
A) derived demand
When a firm’s buying center agrees that defect rates for a purchased component part should be less than .01% of items received, the team is:
A) identifying needs
B) establishing specifications
C) evaluating vendors
D) negotiating purchase terms
B) establishing specifications
When members of the buying center agree to consider IBM, Dell, and Hewlett-Packard in purchasing new computers because they are the firms that expressed interest, which stage of the business-to-business buying process is taking place?
A) vendor selection
B) identification of alternatives
C) identification of vendors
D) vendor evaluation
C) identification of vendors
In the “establishing specifications” step of the business-to-business purchasing process, for a modified rebuy situation, specifications are:
A) examined to ensure that they are current and still meet the company’s needs
B) never examined
C) developed by the users of the product
D) developed with the assistance of the vendors bidding on the contract
A) examined to ensure that they are current and still meet the company’s needs
When the buying center members find out that leasing a fleet from one car rental company has the advantage of a better repair service contract than other companies provide, they are in which stage of the business-to-business buying process?
A) identification of vendor
B) establishment of specifications
C) vendor selection
D) vendor evaluation
D) vendor evaluation
In the business-to-business buying process, the vendor audit would occur in the ________ stage.
A) establishment of specifications
B) vendor identification
C) vendor selection
D) vendor evaluation
D) vendor evaluation
An audit team is utilized in which stage of the business-to-business buying process?
A) identification of vendors
B) vendor evaluation
C) vendor selection
D) negotiating of terms
B) vendor evaluation
In the business-to-business buying process evaluation of vendors normally occurs at two levels. The second level is:
A) a vendor audit
B) an initial screening of proposals
C) a sharing of vendor audit information
D) vendor identification
A) a vendor audit
Once a firm has carefully studied all of the vendors, bids have been considered, and the vendor audit has been conducted, the next step in the business-to-business buying process is:
A) the vendor screening
B) vendor selection
C) negotiation of purchase terms
D) postpurchase evaluation
B) vendor selection
In the business-to-business arena, the post-purchase phase is critical because:
A) businesses are more critical of quality than are consumers
B) of the high cost involved in purchase decisions
C) of the critical importance of supplying a continual supply of a product
D) a positive evaluation may result in a straight rebuy situation or an advantage in a modified rebuy situation
D) a positive evaluation may result in a straight rebuy situation or an advantage in a modified rebuy situation
Selling virtually the same goods or services to consumers and businesses is called:
A) relationship marketing
B) double vending
C) dual-channel marketing
D) marketing extension
C) dual-channel marketing
Selling personal computers to both retail stores and other businesses is an example of:
A) multi-outlet marketing
B) merchant distribution
C) quantity enhancement marketing
D) dual-channel marketing
D) dual-channel marketing
It is typical for dual-channel marketing to begin with:
A) sales to businesses and later to consumers
B) manufacturer demand for better component parts
C) retailer demand for new products
D) consumer demand for more purchasing options
A) sales to businesses and later to consumers
Spin-off sales occur when:
A) a person likes a business product so well he or she buys one for personal use
B) advertising is combined with consumer promotions
C) retailing is combined with wholesaling
D) two related business buyers are identified by the vendor
A) a person likes a business product so well he or she buys one for personal use
A sales rep who likes his company car so well that he buys the same brand for personal use is creating:
A) joint demand
B) derived demand
C) a spin-off sale
D) vendor audit sale
C) a spin-off sale
Starbucks would be an example of a company involved in dual-channel marketing because the company sells coffee:
A) in retail stores only
B) to businesses such as United Airlines, Holland America cruise line, and Chicago’s Wrigley Field
C) using integrated channels
D) to both consumers and businesses
D) to both consumers and businesses
The role and importance of a strong brand name is dramatically important in today’s global market because of:
A) the emphasis on accountability
B) importance of consumer E-commerce
C) brand parity in the business-to-business sector
D) database mining capabilities of business firms
C) brand parity in the business-to-business sector
When Applebee’s faced declining sales in 2008, efforts were made to:
A) divest IHOP to raise capital
B) raise prices and increase quality
C) rejuvenate the brand
D) co-brand with IHOP
C) rejuvenate the brand
The feelings consumers and businesses have about an organization and its brand is the corporation’s:
A) advertising program impact
B) flanker brand
C) image
D) persona
C) image
The corporate image of an automobile manufacturer such as Porsche, Mazda, Toyota, or Ford might be based on the following, except:
A) evaluations of vehicles
B) whether the company is foreign or domestic
C) economic conditions
D) customer views of company advertising and the local dealership
C) economic conditions
Which is not part of a corporate image?
A) tangible elements
B) intangible elements
C) what the company stands for as well as how it is known in the marketplace
D) governmental regulations that affect the company
D) governmental regulations that affect the company
The following items are tangible components of a corporate image, except:
A) goods and services sold
B) retail outlets where the product is sold
C) advertising, promotions, and other forms of communication
D) competing businesses
D) competing businesses
Which is an intangible element of a corporate image?
A) the corporate name and logo
B) ideals and beliefs of corporate personnel
C) the employees
D) the package and label
B) ideals and beliefs of corporate personnel
In the mind of the consumer, a strong corporate image is linked to:
A) perceptions of economic conditions
B) ratings by financial advisors
C) reduction of search time in purchase decisions
D) finding substitute goods when making purchases
C) reduction of search time in purchase decisions
From a consumer’s perspective, a strong corporate image provides each of the following functions, except:
A) provides assurance regarding purchase decisions in unfamiliar settings
B) provides purchase alternatives
C) reduces search time
D) provides social acceptance of purchases
B) provides purchase alternatives
From a consumer’s perspective, a strong corporate image generates which element when customers purchase goods or services with which they have little experience?
A) memorable reference
B) positive assurance
C) immediate feedback
D) increased purchasing options
B) positive assurance
Feeling good after making a purchase from a company with a strong and positive image is an example of:
A) an impulse buy
B) psychological reinforcement
C) cognitive dissonance
D) brand metrics
B) psychological reinforcement
When you know other people have purchased the same brand that you are buying, the feeling is called:
A) social acceptance
B) reliability
C) cognitive dissonance
D) brand recognition
A) social acceptance
From the perspective of the corporation, a strong brand image is related to each of the following, except:
A) ability to attract quality employees
B) higher level of brand parity
C) positive word-of-mouth recommendations by customers
D) higher level of channel power
B) higher level of brand parity
From the perspective of the corporation, a strong brand image is related to each of the following, except:
A) being able to charge a higher price
B) psychological reinforcement and social acceptance
C) more frequent purchases by customers
D) more favorable ratings by financial observers
B) psychological reinforcement and social acceptance
From the company’s perspective, a quality corporate image enhances the introduction of a new product because:
A) the company can charge a lower price for the new product
B) a new distribution channel can be established
C) customers normally transfer their trust in and beliefs about the corporation to a new product
D) the competition does not know how to respond
C) customers normally transfer their trust in and beliefs about the corporation to a new product
Which of the following statements about image is false?
A) Reinforcing or rejuvenating a current image that is consistent with the view of consumers is easier to accomplish than changing a well-established image that is not consistent with the image the company wants to project.
B) It is relatively easy to change the image people hold about a given company.
C) Any negative or bad press can quickly destroy an image that took years to build.
D) The image being projected must accurately portray the firm and coincide with its goods and services.
B) It is relatively easy to change the image people hold about a given company.
When seeking to identify the desired corporate image, company leaders first assess:
A) the company’s current image
B) the external environment
C) tangible competitor advantages
D) intangible competitor advantages
A) the company’s current image
In making decisions about the image to be projected, it will be the easiest for marketers to:
A) rejuvenate an image that is consistent with consumer’s current view of the company
B) reinforce an image that is not consistent with a consumer’s current view of the company
C) develop a new image for a new company
D) revert to an earlier image of the company
A) rejuvenate an image that is consistent with consumer’s current view of the company
It is important that the image being projected by a company’s marketing messages:
A) reinforce the competition’s concept of the image
B) accurately portray the firm and coincide with the goods and services being offered
C) be consistent with what consumers already believe about the firm
D) coincide with what competitors are doing
B) accurately portray the firm and coincide with the goods and services being offered
The desired corporate image is one that:
A) coincides with the majority of companies within the industry
B) highlights the quality of products being sold by the company
C) is consistent with the views of management of each company
D) sends a clear message about the unique nature of an organization and its products
D) sends a clear message about the unique nature of an organization and its products
Keeping a consistent image while incorporating new elements is an example of:
A) developing a new image
B) image positioning
C) rejuvenating an image
D) completing an image
C) rejuvenating an image
When business travelers began to view Holiday Inn as outdated with old decor, the management team remodeled many properties and terminated contracts with proprietors that did not meet the new standards. This is an example of:
A) reinforcing the current image
B) developing a new image
C) rejuvenating an image
D) changing an image
C) rejuvenating an image
102) When Hewlett-Packard’s management team decided to alter the impression that the company was a staid company run by engineers into an ultimate lifestyle technology company in tune with pop culture is an example of:
A) developing a new image
B) reinforcing a current image
C) rejuvenating an image
D) changing an image
D) changing an image
Changing an image is most necessary:
A) every few years to meet changing consumers
B) when sales begin to decline
C) when target markets shrink or disappear or a firm’s image no longer matches industry trends and consumer expectations
D) when a competitor enters the market with a product that is viewed as being superior
C) when target markets shrink or disappear or a firm’s image no longer matches industry trends and consumer expectations
104) Target’s addition of designer product lines and advertising intended to raise the brand’s prominence is an example of seeking to:
A) reinforce an image
B) acquire an image
C) change an image
D) perfect an image
C) change an image
Which type of corporate name reveals what a company does?
A) overt
B) implied
C) conceptual
D) iconoclastic
A) Overt
American Airlines and BMW Motorcycles are examples of:
A) overt names
B) implied names
C) conceptual names
D) iconoclastic names
A) Overt Names
Which type of corporate name contains recognizable words or word parts that imply what the company is about?
A) overt
B) implied
C) conceptual
D) iconoclastic
B) implied
Federal Express and International Business Machines (IBM) are examples of:
A) overt names
B) implied names
C) conceptual names
D) iconoclastic names
B) implied names
Which type of corporate name captures the essence of the idea behind the brand?
A) overt
B) implied
C) conceptual
D) iconoclastic
C) conceptual
Lucent Technologies and Google are examples of:
A) overt names
B) implied names
C) conceptual names
D) iconoclastic names
C) Conceptual names
Which type of corporate name does not reflect the company’s goods or services?
A) overt
B) implied
C) conceptual
D) iconoclastic
D) iconoclastic
Which type of corporate name is unique, different, and memorable without suggesting the company’s goods or services?
A) overt
B) implied
C) conceptual
D) iconoclastic
D) iconoclastic
Monster.com is an example of a(n):
A) overt name
B) implied name
C) conceptual name
D) iconoclastic name
D) iconoclastic name
Overt names:
A) reveal what the company does
B) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand
C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the company is about
D) do not reflect the company’s goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable
A) reveal what the company does
Implied names:
A) reveal what the company does
B) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand
C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the company is about
D) do not reflect the company’s goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable
C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the company is about
Conceptual names:
A) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand
B) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the company is about
C) do not reflect the company’s goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable
D) reveal what the company does
A) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand
Iconoclastic names:
A) reveal what the company does
B) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand
C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the company is about
D) do not reflect the company’s goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable
D) do not reflect the company’s goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable
Logos help with in-store shopping because:
A) they are more readily recognized by shoppers
B) they move traffic past goods which are not being purchased
C) they are a form of clutter
D) consumers have made up their minds prior to arrival
A) they are more readily recognized by shoppers
Stimulus codability is:
A) a form of brand name
B) the perception that the brand is known
C) consensually held meanings among customers
D) another name for product positioning
C) consensually held meanings among customers
The symbol used to identify a company and its brands is a(n)
A) trademark
B) patent
C) icon
D) logo
D) logo
When a logo elicits shared meanings across consumers, it exhibits:
A) stimulus codability
B) reliability
C) consensus
D) referent response
A) stimulus codability
McDonald’s arches create shared meaning across consumers in the United States and around the world, which mean they exhibit:
A) duality
B) stimulus codability
C) brand endurance
D) brand equity
B) stimulus codability
A logo with a consensually held meaning, such as the Prudential Rock, displays:
A) brand prominence
B) stimulus codability
C) brand parity
D) product positioning
B) stimulus codability
Corporate logos:
A) are unrelated to image but are related to positioning
B) help with recall of advertisements and brands
C) usually are inexpensive to develop
D) increase search time in product purchase decisions
B) help with recall of advertisements and brands
Quality logos and corporate names should pass each of the following tests, except:
A) be similar to others in the industry
B) be familiar
C) elicit a consensual meaning among those in the firm’s target market
D) evoke positive feelings
A) be similar to others in the industry
The Nike Swoosh is an example of a:
A) brand
B) package
C) label
D) logo
D) logo
Names assigned to individual goods or services or to groups of products in a line are:
A) brands
B) logos
C) metrics
D) designs
A) brands
Strong brands achieve the following, except:
A) allow a company to charge more for products
B) create brand parity
C) provide customers assurance of quality
D) transfer to other products or brands the company sells
B) create brand parity
The advertising campaign created by Hormel that was designed to show customers the rich variety of brands sold by the company was designed to:
A) allow the company to charge more
B) create brand parity across company brands
C) create perceptions of corporate uniqueness
D) transfer perceptions of strong brands to other company products
D) transfer perceptions of strong brands to other company products
A family brand is:
A) one in which a company offers a series or group of products under one brand name
B) a type of extension or flanker brand offered by one company
C) a logo or theme of a brand
D) one that has a high level of brand equity
A) one in which a company offers a series or group of products under one brand name
Black and Decker’s line of power tools is an example of a(n):
A) adaptation
B) family brand
C) flanker brand
D) private label brand
B) family brand
A brand extension is:
A) a group of related core products sold under one name
B) the creation of a logo which further explains the brand
C) the design of a public relations campaign to support a brand
D) using an established brand name on goods or services not related to the core brand
D) using an established brand name on goods or services not related to the core brand
Nike creating a line of clothing to go along with their main products (shoes) is an example of a:
A) flanker brand
B) brand extension
C) cooperative brand
D) complementary brand
B) brand extension
Which is a flanker brand?
A) the offering of two or more brands in a single marketing offer
B) the joint venture of two or more brands into a new product or service
C) development of a new brand by a company in a good or service category where it currently has other brands
D) a brand with the same name in a different industry
C) development of a new brand by a company in a good or service category where it currently has other brands
When Procter and Gamble introduces a new laundry detergent with a different brand name, it is an example of creating a:
A) family brand
B) cooperative brand
C) co-brand
D) flanker brand
D) flanker brand
When Procter and Gamble added a new laundry detergent in Asia called “Panda” to its current line of laundry detergents, the Panda brand would be considered a:
A) brand extension
B) family brand
C) flanker brand
D) complementary brand
C) Flanker brand
If a company’s marketing team believes that offering a new product under the current brand name may adversely affect the current brand, the best approach would be to introduce the product as a(n):
A) brand extension
B) ingredient brand
C) flanker brand
D) co-brand
C) flanker brand
Which involves using an established brand name on goods or services that are not related to the core brand?
A) brand extension
B) private brand
C) flanker brand
D) complementary brand
A) brand extension
When a company develops a new brand in the same category in which the firm already has a branded product, it is a:
A) brand extension
B) private brand
C) flanker brand
D) complementary brand
C) flanker brand
When a company’s marketing team introduces a new brand within a product category where it already has brands in an effort to appeal to target markets the team believes is not being reached by the company’s current brand, which is being used?
A) brand extension
B) private brand
C) flanker brand
D) complementary brand
C) flanker brand
Which approach is used by firms operating in high-end markets in order to avoid damaging the high-end brand’s reputation?
A) brand extension
B) co-branding
C) flanker brand
D) complementary brand
C) flanker brand
A firm that is expanding to international markets often adds additional brands to current brands in order to strengthen an international presence, reflecting which strategy?
A) brand extension
B) private brand
C) flanker brand
D) complementary brand
C) flanker brand
Co-branding can take the following forms, except:
A) flanker brand
B) ingredient brand
C) cooperative brand
D) complementary brand
A) flanker brand
Ingredient branding involves:
A) placing one brand within another
B) developing a new brand to be sold in a category where the firm already has a brand
C) a joint venture of two brands in one product
D) marketing two brands together to encourage co-consumption
A) placing one brand within another
Intel Pentium processors placed inside computers is a form of:
A) ingredient branding
B) flanker brand
C) cooperative branding
D) complementary branding
A) ingredient branding
Cooperative branding is:
A) private labeling with a major brand
B) placing one brand in another as a form of cooperation
C) the joint venture of two or more brands in one product
D) the marketing of two brands together to encourage co-consumption
C) the joint venture of two or more brands in one product
Co-branding works the best when:
A) the two brands are unrelated
B) a well-known brand is attached to a lesser-known brand
C) a private label is co-branded with a manufacturer’s brand
D) it builds the brand equity of both brands
D) it builds the brand equity of both brands
Complementary branding is:
A) using a private label to complement the main brand
B) placing one brand within another brand
C) the joint venture of two or more brands in one product
D) marketing two brands together to encourage co-consumption
D) marketing two brands together to encourage co-consumption
Selling Reese’s Peanut Butter Cup milkshakes at the DQ is an example of:
A) flanker branding
B) extension branding
C) cooperative branding
D) complementary branding
C) cooperative branding
A Pillsbury cookie mix featuring Hershey’s Chocolate is a form of:
A) flanker branding
B) cooperative branding
C) ingredient branding
D) complementary branding
C) ingredient branding
The placement of one brand within another brand is:
A) ingredient branding
B) cooperative branding
C) complementary branding
D) flanker branding
A) ingredient branding
The joint venture of two or more brands into a new good or service is:
A) ingredient branding
B) cooperative branding
C) complementary branding
D) flanker branding
B) cooperative branding
The marketing of Velveeta Cheese with Rotel Tomatoes and Diced Green Chilies is an example of:
A) ingredient branding
B) flanker branding
C) cooperative branding
D) complementary branding
D) Complementary branding
The marketing of two or more brands together to encourage co-consumption or co-purchases is:
A) ingredient branding
B) cooperative branding
C) complementary branding
D) flanker branding
C) complementary branding
In terms of co-branding, the highest risk strategy is:
A) ingredient branding
B) cooperative branding
C) complementary branding
D) flanker branding
C) complementary branding
The goal of branding is to:
A) be able to charge a higher price than the competition
B) gain the largest market share
C) set a product apart from its competitors
D) have a trademark that is easily identifiable
A) be able to charge a higher price than the competition
When a brand is viewed a superior, a good value, and of high quality, the brand enjoys:
A) diligence
B) acceptance
C) salience
D) divergence
C) salience
A customer’s belief in the efficacy and reliability of a brand that has been established over time through personal experience is:
A) brand competence
B) trust
C) reliability
D) distinctiveness
B) trust
The iPhone’s 100,000 apps that allow users to tailor the phone to fit their personalities is an example of brand building by:
A) standardization
B) a brand flanker program
C) repeated product use (repetition)
D) customization and personalization
D) customization and personalization
When customers purchase only one brand and consider no other brand, regardless of price differences, which exists?
A) brand involvement
B) brand specialty
C) brand loyalty
D) brand parity
C) brand loyalty
The perception that all brands are essentially the same is called:
A) brand equity
B) brand parity
C) flanker branding
D) the private label problem
B) brand parity
Charles sees only minor differences among the various brands of high definition televisions. This is an example of:
A) brand equity
B) brand parity
C) flanker branding
D) the private label problem
B) brand parity
The perception that a brand is different and better is called:
A) brand equity
B) brand parity
C) flanker branding
D) the private label advantage
A) brand equity
When a customer believes Black and Decker makes the best and most reliable tools, this is an example of:
A) brand parity
B) brand equity
C) brand cooperation
D) brand decision
B) brand equity
Which is not true concerning brand equity?
A) it allows the company to charge a higher price
B) it reduces name retention
C) it is helpful in business-to-business markets
D) it is helpful in international markets
B) it reduces name retention
Which measures returns on branding investments?
A) brand infringement
B) brand parity
C) brand equity
D) brand metrics
D) brand metrics
When brand equity is measured using estimates of the future cash flows of a brand based on its unique strength and characteristics, which will then be discounted to determine a net present value, the method is:
A) financial value
B) market value
C) revenue premium
D) consumer value
A) financial value
When brand equity is measured using stock valuation with an estimate of the portion of the value allocated to brand equity and not physical assets, the method is:
A) financial value
B) market value
C) revenue premium
D) consumer value
B) market value
When brand equity is measured using a comparison of a branded product to the same product without a brand name, such as a private label, the method is:
A) financial value
B) market value
C) revenue premium
D) consumer value
C) revenue premium
When brand equity is measured using the value of a brand based on input from consumers, such as familiarity, purchase considerations, customer satisfaction, and willingness to seek out the brand, the method is:
A) financial value
B) market value
C) revenue premium
D) consumer value
D) consumer value
In measuring brand equity companies can use a method called revenue premium, which compares a branded product’s revenue to:
A) the industry’s average
B) a private label brand
C) a firm’s primary competitors
D) the industry leader
A) a private label brand
A proprietary brand marketed by an organization and distributed within the organization’s outlets is a:
A) private label
B) flanker brand
C) co-brand
D) complementary brand
A) private label
Private brands are:
A) new brands sold in the same category
B) the joint venture of two or more brands in a new good or service
C) the use of established brand names on goods and services not related to the company’s core brand
D) proprietary brands marketed by an organization and normally distributed exclusively within the organization’s outlet
D) proprietary brands marketed by an organization and normally distributed exclusively within the organization’s outlet
Over the past few years, each of the following are changes that have occurred in the area of private branding, except:
A) increase in prices to equal national brands
B) improved quality
C) increased advertising of private brands
D) increased quality of in-store displays of private brands
A) increase in prices to equal national brands
The following statements about private labels are true, except:
A) quality levels of many private label products have improved
B) prices for private labels are going up in many markets
C) consumers still perceive private labels as being inferior to manufacturer’s brands
D) some firms have begun advertising private labels
C) consumers still perceive private labels as being inferior to manufacturer’s brands
Manufacturers are using all of the following methods to respond to inroads made by private labels, except:
A) focusing on a few core brands
B) increasing advertising expenditures
C) introducing new products and new versions of current products
D) reducing prices to meet private label pricing
D) reducing prices to meet private label pricing
Manufacturers are using all of the following methods to respond to inroads made by private labels, except:
A) modifying the brand’s position in the marketplace
B) expanding product offerings
C) using alternative promotional methods
D) improving in-store displays and packaging
A) modifying the brand’s position in the marketplace
Traditionally, a package provided each of the following functions, except:
A) allow customers to see the product
B) provide for ease of shipping, moving, and handling
C) protect the contents
D) provide for easy placement on store shelves
A) allow customers to see the product
Labels on packages serve the following purposes, except:
A) provide legal requirements in terms of content
B) provide consumers with pricing per unit information
C) another marketing opportunity to reach consumers
D) provide warranty and guarantee information
B) provide consumers with pricing per unit information
Which is the most recent new trend in packaging and labeling?
A) providing warranty information
B) meeting legal requirements
C) adding QR codes
D) protecting product content
C) adding QR codes
Brand infringement occurs when:
A) an Internet domain is used that is similar to a brand name
B) individuals purchase domain names just for the purpose of selling them later to famous individuals or companies
C) a company creates a brand name that closely resembles a popular or successful brand name
D) the brand name is used in advertisements by competitors
C) a company creates a brand name that closely resembles a popular or successful brand name
Domain squatting occurs when:
A) an Internet domain is used that is similar to a brand name
B) individuals purchase domain names just for the purpose of selling them later to famous individuals or companies
C) a company creates a brand name that closely resembles a popular or successful brand name
D) the brand name becomes a generic term for the product category
A) an Internet domain is used that is similar to a brand name
Using a standardized global brand offers all of the following advantages, except:
A) lower marketing costs
B) meets the need of individual cultures within different countries
C) transference of best practices from one country to another
D) a higher perceived quality because it is sold in different countries
B) meets the need of individual cultures within different countries
Global brands perform best with:
A) highly visible products, such as clothing and furniture
B) high-profile, low-involvement products
C) high-profile, high-involvement products
D) low-involvement everyday products
C) high-profile, high-involvement products
When Black and Decker introduced a new form of wrench with the name “Black and Decker Adjustable Wrench,” which was being used?
Family Brand
Brand Equity offers the following benefits?
Charge more, higher gross margin, gives power to retailers and manufacturers, capture additional retail shelf, prevent erosion of market share, use as a weapon against consumers enticed by promotions.
Attitudinal measures associated with branding can be used to track?
Financial value, revenue premium, consumer value, stock market value
Private labels are attractive to retail stores because?
it results to higher gross margin, no middleman, and increase loyalty for retailers
New trends in packaging include the following?
Superior packaging that is flashy, portable, convenient, and fresh
The product positioning strategy based on how a product is used is the positioning approach of?
use or application
Pepsi and Coke both have reached the point that investing more dollars in advertising yields lower and lower increases in sales. The model used to illustrate this concept is?
marginal analysis, concave downward function, sales-response function curve, diminishing returns