CJC_Final Exam Review

Which of the following terms means procedural fairness?
Due process
Which of the following terms is defined as the principle of fairness or the ideal of moral equity?
Public-order advocates support the interests of society over individual rights.
Criminology is the scientific study of the causes and prevention of crime and the rehabilitation and punishment of offenders
In the mid-1980s, the sale and use of illicit drugs was at an all-time low.
The crime epidemic of 1850-1880 was related to social upheaval caused by large- scale immigration and the Civil War.
The first ten amendments of the United States Constitution are collectively known as the Bill of Rights.
When an offender receives a _____ sentence, they serve one sentence after another is completed.
Civil justice concerns itself with fairness in relationships among citizens, government agencies, and businesses in private matters.
The ultimate goal of the justice system is to establish balance between _____.
crime control and due process
The dual goals of crime control and due process are often assumed to be opposing goals.
Which model assumes that the system’s subcomponents work together harmoniously to achieve the social product we call justice?
consensus model
Which stage of the criminal justice process involves taking pictures and fingerprints of the suspect?
Which model emphasizes individual rights?
due-process model
Which of the following advocates would support the protection of personal freedoms and civil rights?
individual-rights advocates
The preliminary hearing is used to decide whether _____.
there are reasonable grounds to believe the defendant committed the crime
Individual-rights advocates primarily seek to protect personal freedoms and civil rights within the society, and especially within the criminal justice process.
The due process clause of the United States Constitution is specifically stated in which amendment?
The adjudication period involves a variety of sentences that can be imposed on a defendant.
Contemporary multiculturalism and social diversity draw attention to racial, ethnic, subcultural, generational, faith, economic, and gender lines.
The ________ is based on crimes reported to police.
Uniform Crime Reports
Each of the following are UCR/NIBRS property crime offenses, EXCEPT ________.
The weapons used most often to commit murder are ________.
An example of a violent crime is _____.
All of the following crimes are UCR/NIBRS Part I offenses, EXCEPT ________.
drug use
Most hate crimes are motivated by _____.
racial hatred
Which is not a type of larceny?
armed robbery
Clearances are based primarily on ________.
One of the crimes the National Crime Victimization Survey includes information about is _____.
An incident-based reporting system that collects detailed data on every single crime occurrence is called a ________.
All of the following are Part I offenses, EXCEPT ________.
A criminal offense committed against a person, property, or society that is motivated, in whole or in part, by the offender’s bias against a race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, or ethnicity/national origin is called ________.
hate crime
What type of terrorism, according to the 1996 RAND report, is distinguished by how terrorist groups organize and by how they use high technology?
A murderer who kills at two or more locations with almost no time break between murders is a ________.
spree killer
Which of the following agencies is responsible for compiling the NCVS?
Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS)
Each of the following offenses falls under the category of larceny, EXCEPT ________.
UCR/NIBRS terminology may differ from ________ definitions of crime.
The killing of four or more victims at one location within one event is termed _____.
mass murder
The _____ is based on victims’ reports rather than on police reports.
National Crime Victimization Survey
Any willful or malicious burning or attempt to burn, with or without intent to defraud, a dwelling house, public building, motor vehicle or aircraft, personal property of another, and so on is termed as ________.
What is the most common form of larceny?
stealing motor vehicle parts
Which major crime is most frequently reported to the police according to the UCR/NIBRS?
Which of the following data sources asks respondents to reveal an illegal activity in which they have been involved?
offender self-reports
The weapons most often used to commit murder are _____.
Which of the following would not be categorized as a felony?
simple assault
Which of the following violations is not a misdemeanor?
Which of the following is considered as “law on the books?”
The principle of recognizing previous decisions as precedents to guide future deliberations is called _____.
stare decisis
Most crimes have three elements. They are ______, _________, and _______.
the concurrence of act and intent, actus reus, mens rea
Our legal system generally does not recognize which of the following broad categories of defenses?
Which of the following refers to a traditional body of unwritten legal precedents created from everyday social customs, rules, and practices?
common law
_____ is the philosophy of law.
This is a verdict equivalent to a finding of guilty that establishes the defendant, although mentally ill, was in sufficient possession of his or her facilities to be morally blameworthy for his or her acts.
guilty but mentally ill
What term expresses the belief that a society must be governed by established principles to maintain order?
rule of law
Which of the following types of law is based on the assumption that acts injure not just individuals but society as a whole?
criminal law
How many levels or types of mens rea can be distinguished?
An alibi defense is best supported by _____.
witnesses and documentation
Which of the following is a justification defense?
Which of the following elements of crime means guilty mind?
mens rea
Roles within police agencies generally fall into one of two categories: _____ operations.
line or staff
Which of the following is not a major level of law enforcement?
According to the 2001 Status of Women in Policing Survey, about what percentage of U.S. law enforcement officers is female?
Which policing strategy reorganizes conventional patrol strategies into integrated and versatile police teams assigned to a fixed district?
team policing
Attempts to police the early Western frontier can be characterized as _____.
_____ uses research into everyday policing procedures to evaluate current policing practices and guide future policing decisions.
evidence-based policing
Which of the following is typically not a function of a sheriff’s department?
appoint a local coroner
Alice Stebbins Wells is considered _____.
the first police woman in the world
Which agency would not be encompassed by the term local police?
state police
Semipermanent assignment of officers to particular neighborhoods is called _____.
team policing
The Kansas City Preventative Patrol Experiment established that _____.
preventative patrol does not affect citizen fear of crime
Which law enforcement official is responsible for serving court papers, maintaining security within courtrooms, and running the county jail?
Which strategy is designed to increase the productivity of patrol officers through the application of scientific analysis and evaluation of patrol techniques?
directed patrol
Preventative patrol, routine incident response, emergency response, criminal investigations, problem solving, and support services _____ strategies.
What is considered the backbone of police work?
_____ is the use of best available research on the outcomes of police work to implement guidelines and evaluate agencies, units, and officers.
Evidence-based policing
The FBI employs about _____ special agents.
The operational strategy known as _____ seeks to reduce chronic offending in the community.
problem solving
The nation’s largest law enforcement agency is in _____.
New York
Which state created the first modern state police agency?
To lawfully seize evidence _____, officers must have a legal right to be in the viewing area and must have cause to believe that the evidence is somehow associated with criminal activity.
in plain view
A writ of certiorari _____.
allows appellate courts to review the record of a lower court case
The courts have supported drug testing of police officers based on _____ that drug abuse is occurring.
a reasonable suspicion
Which of the following is not a justification for emergency warrantless searches?
danger to property
Concerning informants, which of the following is part of the test established in Aguilar v. Texas?
There is reasonable belief that the informant is reliable.
To elicit a confession, police departments cannot hire professionals skilled in the art of psychological manipulation because of the decision in the case of _____.
Leyra v. Denno
In Illinois v. Gates the Court held that _____ exists when “there is a fair probability that contraband or evidence of a crime will be found in a particular place.”
probable cause
Historically, officers were allowed to use deadly force to prevent the escape of a suspected felon. This was known as the _____.
Fleeing Felon Rule
Unreasonable searches and seizures are prohibited by the _____.
Fourth Amendment
Chimel v. California established _____.
that officers can search the person arrested and the area under that person’s “immediate control” incident to an arrest
The information gathering activity of police officers that involves the direct questioning of suspects.
A legal principle that excludes any evidence obtained as a result of an illegal search or seizure is known as___________.
fruit of the poisoned tree doctrine
In _____, the U.S. Supreme Court stated that considerations of public safety can override and negate the need for rights advisement prior to limited questioning.
New York v. Quarles
Whether the crime involves attacks against computer systems or the information they contain or more traditional offenses like murder, money laundering, trafficking, or fraud, _____ evidence is increasingly important.
What division of a police department investigates charges that officers are guilty of wrong doing?
internal affairs
How many regional intermediate appellate courts are there in the federal system?
The U.S. Supreme Court case United States v. Bagley compels the prosecution to disclose any evidence that the _____ requests.
Which work group member has the responsibility of demonstrating to a jury that a defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt?
the prosecutor
The U.S. Supreme Court case Gideon v. Wainwright established the right to counsel for indigent defendants in _____ felony court proceedings.
The power of a court to evaluate actions and decisions made by other agencies of government is _____.
the power of judicial review
Case-flow analysis, juror management, and budget management are all duties typical of a _____.
local court administrator
An arraignment, a bail hearing, and a trial for a felony offense are all conducted at which tier of a state court system?
trial court of general jurisdiction
Who is responsible for summoning members of the public for jury duty and subpoenaing witnesses for the prosecution and the defense?
the clerk of court
There is (are) _____ district court(s) in the federal court system.
Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have _____.
appellate jurisdiction
On appeal, when a trial court of general jurisdiction offers a new trial instead of a review of the lower court’s decision, it is giving a _____.
trial de novo
In which court would a felony trial be held in the federal court system?
District Court
Which statement is false regarding the role of the judge in the courtroom work group?
The judge is responsible for presenting the state’s case against the defendant.
Who keeps order in the courtroom and announces the judge’s entry to the courtroom?
the bailiff
McNabb v. U.S. formally established that a defendant being held in custody has a right to appear in court before a magistrate _____.
without unnecessary delay
In 2005 the U.S. Supreme Court in the case of Roper v. Simmons held that anyone who committed their crime when younger than 18 could not be sentenced _____.
to death
What type of plea is most similar to a guilty plea?
nolo contendere
About what percentage of state-level criminal defendants are released pending the outcome of their case?
Which of the following is one of the more rational sentencing goals?
The 1996 Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act focuses on _____.
federal appeals by death row inmates
When a defendant “stands mute” at her arraignment, she is considered to have entered a _____.
not-guilty plea
Americans are less likely to support the death penalty _____.
if they believe innocent people have been put to death
A sentence of 8 to 25 years is an example of a( n ) _____.
indeterminate sentence
Pretrial publicity about a case creates problems for the justice system because _____.
it becomes difficult to find jurors who have not already formed an opinion about the case
Weapons, tire tracks, and fingerprints are what type of evidence?
real evidence
Which sentencing goal is closely associated with the phrase “an eye for an eye?”
Which of the following is an argument in favor of indeterminate sentencing?
Judicial discretion allows judges to tailor the sentence to the defendant.
Bail serves two purposes. One is to help ensure the reappearance of the accused at trial. The other is _____.
to prevent people who have not been convicted from suffering imprisonment unnecessarily
Under the 2005 U.S. Supreme Court cases of U.S. v. Booker and U.S. v. Fanfan the Federal sentencing guidelines can no longer be considered _____.
Separating offenders from the community furthers which sentencing goal?
Which sentencing goal stressed vengeance?
The federal Speedy Trial Act allows for the dismissal of charges when the prosecution does not seek indictment within _____ days of arrest, or when a trial does not begin within 70 days after indictment.
What is the earliest known rationale for punishment?
The bail decision is made at what stage of the court process?
first appearance
The majority of offenders housed in federal institutions have been convicted of _____.
drug offenses
A product of inmate labor produced under the state-use system would include _____.
license plates
Rhodes v. Chapman held that overcrowding in prisons is not by itself _____.
cruel and unusual punishment
Federal Prison Industries, responsible for prison labor opportunities in the federal prison system, is also called _____.
The _____ is a control mechanism used by correctional administrators at regular intervals throughout the day.
Historically, _____ was the most widely used type of physical punishment.
What early correctional leader developed a system of marks through which prisoners could earn credits to buy their freedom?
Captain Alexander Maconochie
_____ capacity refers to the inmate population the institution was originally built to
Who created the Irish system of imprisonment?
Sir Walter Crofton
A significant factor that contributes to variation in incarceration rates between states is each state’s _____.
violent crime rate
A state or federal confinement facility that has custodial authority over adults sentenced to confinement is known as________.
The expression “an eye for an eye” is an example of lex talionis, the _____.
law of retaliation
In the Federal Bureau of Prisons, medium security institutions are called _____.
federal correctional institutions
What type of inmate labor system allows private businesses to pay to use inmate labor?
contract system
During the early decades of the twentieth century, there was opposition to prison industries primarily because they _____.
threatened the jobs of workers
Which type of sentence requires that offenders serve time in a local jail before a period of supervised probation?
split sentence
Bob is sentenced to probation. The conditions of his probation include: maintain employment, possess no firearms, obey all laws, and meet with his probation officer biweekly. These are _____ conditions that apply to all probationers in the jurisdiction where he was sentenced.
Parole is a correctional strategy with the primary purpose of _____.
returning offenders gradually to productive lives
Morrissey v. Brewer provides procedural safeguards to parolees at _____ hearings.
The _____ model of prison culture suggests that inmates bring values, roles, and behavior patterns from the outside world.
Which type of sentence requires that offenders serve weekends in jail and receive probation supervision during the week?
mixed sentence
Which of the following statements about probation is false?
Convicted murderers and rapists cannot be sentenced to probation.
Prison language is also called _____.
prison argot
Discretionary parole is granted by _____.
a parole board
The socialization of inmates into the prison subculture is called _____.
Who makes the release decision when an offender is sentenced to shock parole?
the parole board
Which of the following sentences is a prisoner reentry strategy?
Researchers have described one type of prisoner who takes advantage of the positive experiences the prison has to offer as _____.
an opportunist
Probation is ordered by the _____.
Which of the following is not an advantage of using probation instead of imprisonment?
increased risk to the community
Ex Parte Crouse, built around the doctrine of parens patriae, clarified the power states had _____.
in committing children to institutions
_____ indicates that the juvenile court is the only court with statutory authority to deal with children for specific infractions.
Exclusive jurisdiction
In juvenile court, a petition is similar to a _____ in adult court.
criminal complaint
Which of the following categories of children “violate laws written only for children?”
status offenders
McKeiver v. Pennsylvania held that juveniles do not have the constitutional right to _____.
a jury trial
Children who are abandoned in violation of the law are considered _____.
dependent children
If a juvenile is charged with a status offense, what is the lowest evidentiary standard that can be used by the judge to support the finding?
preponderance of the evidence
Breed v. Jones severely restricted the conditions under which transfers from _____ may occur.
juvenile to adult court
What category of children in the juvenile justice system includes children who are mistreated emotionally?
abused children
What term is applied to juvenile actions or conduct in violation of criminal law?