CDC Volume 2: Air Force Emergency Management

The Air Force atomic, biological, chemical (ABC) warfare program in was formed in 1951 in response to proliferation of
Of nuclear weapons after World War II and led to the formation of the Air Forces Atomic, Biological, Chemical (ABC) warfare program in 1951.
What emergency management (EM) career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today?
The DRF patch was originally worn on utility uniforms and response clothing and was later placed on decals and used to identify disaster response assets.
What career field award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually?
The Colonel Frederick J. Riemer award was created in 1994. This annual award honors the lifetime accomplishments of Colonel (ret.) Frederick J. Riemer and recognizes the readiness and emergency management flight that best demonstrates exemplary performance in support of the readiness and installation EM missions.
After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of the
National Incident Management System (NIMS)
The Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management system (NIMS) by
Implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.
The Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge in
Air Force approval was successful and on 7 February 2006
What does the career field education and training plan (CFETP) state about wearing the emergency management (EM) occupational badge?
You must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.
Which activities should include training and education as well as exercises, personnel qualifications, equipment certification, and the integration of planning and procedures?
Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) fall into what readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set?
What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight?
Manpower authorizations.
Who supervises the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight and analyzes the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards?
Flight chief.
Who is the key emergency management (EM) representative for the senior AF authority and will perform the duties necessary to properly train and educate airmen on AF specific requirements such as chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?
EM section.
Which section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10-210, Prime BEEF Program, and Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 10-219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management?
Expeditionary engineering section.
Who do senior readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight personnel directly report to?
Base civil engineer.
Who is responsible for ensuring unit emergency management (EM) programs are managed according to AFMAN 32-1007 and AFI 10-2501?
Flight leadership.
Which of the following would not be included in the meeting agenda?
List of people attending but include date/time, location and purpose.
The emergency management (EM) program review is designed
To facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.
After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting?
Schedule the time and place for the meeting.
The Work Center Assignments option falls under which module of Automated Civil Engineering System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR)?
Which module of Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) allows the user to manage equipment, mobility, the Emergency Management (EM) Program, and stats?
Which function of the Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) Personnel module allows the user to add and modify records; view personnel history and/or move records to history; view, assign, and or delete additional duties; and assign personnel to work center positions?
Recall Roster.
Which emergency management (EM) section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment?
Checklists for readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight equipment must be prepared within how many days after the new equipment is received?
30 days.
Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed?
What document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals for accomplishing the assigned mission, tasks, or duties?
Allowance standard
Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard?
War reserve material (WRM).
Which of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard?
When broken equipment needs to be repaired.
Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as
special allowances.
What is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but is already on hand?
Retention authority.
Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of
180 calendar days or less.
Unless otherwise directed by the secretary of defense (SecDef), installations may not stock supplies solely for
Defense support to civil authorities (DSCA).
What is the key to logistics?
Effective inventory management.
Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process?
Establishing equipment turn-in procedures.
Which system is a cross-service Web-enabled automated tracking system designed to initiate, process, and track equipment deficiency reports from the warfighter through the investigation process?
Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).
Who must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain materiel needed to accomplish their specific function’s emergency management (EM) tasks in support of response plans?
Unit commanders.
The types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment are specified in
The logistics portions of war and contingency plans.
What must you do prior to starting any equipment task?
Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures.
Members appointed as technical order (TO) distribution account (TODA) representatives must complete training within how many days of assignment?
90 days.
In chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threat areas, who must store and maintain pre-positioned materiel for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans?
Installation Commanders
Who ensures unit materiel, including materiel in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, accessibility, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity?
Unit Commanders
The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by
When emergency management (EM) training is completed the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element updates
Automated Civil Engineer System – Personell Readiness (ACES-PR)
When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmentees should be
Given the same consideration as active duty personell
What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training?
Proper Documentation
How often must the installation Disaster Response Force’s (DRF) ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2 be exercised?
Who is responsible for exercising the ability to conduct deployed combat operations?
ANy unit with a wartime mission
Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to remember that exercises are conducted during a limited timeframe and objectives must be able to be met during that time?
Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed?
What is the first step in establishing an effective “Be Ready” Awareness Campaign?
Budget for items
Which element of the readiness and emergency (R & EM) flight ensures emergency support function ESF -5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC)?
THe readiness and emergency management flight element ensures that every unit and agency on the installation is in commpliance with the emergency management program by…
Implementing the EM program review process.
WHo determines which installations will train and equip geographically separated units (GSU) in compliance with the EM program?
How long after the most recent EM program review should the unit EM representiative perform a self-assessment using the EM program review checklist?
6 months
Each EM program review should be coordinated with the unit EM Rep and commander at least how many weeks before the visit?
2 weeks
R & EM Flight leadership will submit the written EM program review assessment to the civically engineering CE commander within how many duty days after the out brief?
5 duty days.
Which of the following is not a factor that will affect the size of the EM support team?
Training requirements.
Which element of the R & EM flight serves as the OPR for chemical, bio, rad, and nuclear passive defense and consequence management planning?
The R & EM flight planning element is responsible for assisting with the portions of the installion risk management process?
Which group performs and documents the risk management process?
Installion’s Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG)
Which of the following is not of the three assessments required to be completeed as part of the rick management process?
Efficiency Assessment
Which is the most important assessment tool in the risk management process for an installations EM program?
Hazard Assessment
Which risk management assessment describes all the resources and capabilities available both on and off the installation for incident response and recovery?
Hazard Assessment
Which risk management assessment identifies shortfalls (prodcedural or programmatic) and steps taken to either mitigate or elimante the shortfalls throughout procurement, developing support agreements, developing or revising plans/procedures, accepting the risk, or some other method?
Capability Assessment
Which risk management assessment areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate, and deter hazards and serves as one of the foundations compoents for effective emergency management?
Vulnerability Assessment
How often are the assessment associated with the risk management process conducted?
Which publication provides Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emgencry operation plans??
CPG 101, Developing and Maintaing Emergency Operations Plans
Which of the following is the foundation for state, territorial, tiribal, and local emergnecy planning in the United States and is the standard for emergency managment(EM) planning used within the Air Force EM program?
CPG 101, Developing and Maintaing Emergency Operation Plans
Planners can test whether critical plan elements are sufficiently flexible by…
Exercising them agains scenarios of varying rage and magnitude.
Which of the following is not one of the planning tiers>?
Planners typically use which approach to develop planning assumptions primarily for hazard-or threat-specific annexes to a basic plan?
Scenario-Based Planning
Whic approach to planning focuses on jurisdiction’s capacity to take a course of action?
Capabilities-based Planning
What establishes an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents?
Support Agreements
For Defesne Support to Civil Authorites (DSCA) response with the US, its terrirtories, and possessions, who coordinates response activites for federal agencies if the incident affects areas outside the installions boundaries?
Department of Homeland Security
At the National Level, who is responsible for EM within the continental US (CONUS)?
Federal Emergnecy Management Agency (FEMA)
Which plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency reponse to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made or technological hazards?
Installations Emergency Managment Plan (IEMP 10-2)
Who approves the IEMP 10-2
Installation Commander
What was developed and adopted to assist Air Force Emergency Managers in the development process of their respective IEMP 10-2
IEMP 10-2 Planning Tool
Units must develop and or update implementing instructions within how many days of publication of an IEMP 10-2?
60 days
Who is responsbilie for identifying and evaluation installations facilities that many used for shelters?
American Red Cross Personell
What is used during natural, man-made, or technological condition to provide limited protection for unprotected personel or casualties?
Shelter- In Place
Which announcement is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident?
When planning supply and re supply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of CBRN contaminations?
7 consecutive days
Which agency is responsbile for providing notification or earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and to reduce loesses through forecasts based on the best possible scientific information?
United States Geological Survey (USGS).
To determine which areas in the US are at higher risk than others to an earthquake, the USGS creates seismic hazard maps that show?
Plead Ground Accelerations
Which agency monitors ocean wavers after any Pacfici earthquakes with a magnitude greater than 6.5?
International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS)
When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico as well as the Central Pacific basin?
1 June to 30 Nov.
Which agency issues coastal tropical cyclone watches and warnings for the US and its Caribbean territories and provides watch and warning recommendations to other World Meteorological Organizations Region IV meteorological services?
Notation Hurricane Center (NHC)
What is the nickname for the area of the US that consistently experiences a high frequency of tornados each year?
Tornado alley
A boundary separating hot, dry air to west form warm, moist air to the east is called?
A Dry Line
Which level of hazardour materials response is conducted when the hazard is confined to a small area that can be controlled by first responders, does not require evacuation beyond the involved structure, and poses no immediate threat to life or property?
Level 1
Which level of hazardhour materials response is conducted when the hazard poses a potential threat to life or property?
Level 2
Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as the result of an single incident that exceeds local logistic support capabilities, is called all..
Mass Casualty Incident.
Conventional explosives are the most troubling weapons of mass destruction because….
They can disperse chemical, bio and radiological agents
Chemcial agents are categorized base on their…
Physiological effects
What is the primary defesne agains biological weapons?
Which weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock or plants?
Which of the following is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorist can use radiation to carry out an attack?
Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons.
A dirty bomb is another name for what kind of weapon?
Convention Explosives.
Critical Water or sewer system failures can and occur quite often, primarily as a result of?
Natural Hazard
According to the World Food Programmer, what is the greatest worldwide threat to health?