CCNA Flashcards 2

No broadcasts, autoconfiguration, and Plug and Play defines what routed protocol?
How many collision domains exist when a hub is used?
The __________________ part of a MAC address is assigned by the IEEE to an organization and is composed of 24 bits, or 3 bytes.
organizationally unique identifier (OUI)
On which layer of the OSI model do routers operate?
What address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address
To specify all hosts in the Class C IP network, what wildcard access list mask would you use?
Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?
Which router command allows you to determine whether an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
show ip interface
What router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
show access-lists
What causes the incrementing of runts on an interface?
True/False: FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69 is a link-local address.
False. Link-local addresses start with FE80::.
What is the dotted-decimal equivalent of /15?
Which command applies access list 10 inbound to an interface?
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 10 in
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
ipv6 unicast-routing
________ lists use the numbers 1-99 or 1300-1999 and filter based on source IP address only.
Standard IP access
The block size of a /26 network is _______.
The output of the show startup-config command comes from ___________.
What standards-based protocol works much like CDP?
Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
What command is used to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?
Router(config-if)#ipv6 address address
What length of subnet mask do routes in the routing table marked with an L have?
True/False: The tunnel mode ipv6ip command enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel and specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.
Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL in the IPv4 header?
Hop Limit
True/False: Layer 2 switches and bridges are faster than routers because they don’t take up time looking at the Data Link layer header information.
False: They are faster because they don’t read Network layer information.
True/False: VLANs greatly reduce network security.
False. The can increase security.
True/False: When a packet is being compared to an access list, it’s always compared with each line of the access list in sequential order until it finds a match.
_____ on an Ethernet network is the retransmission delay that’s enforced when a collision occurs.
What is the PDU called at the Data Link layer?
What Application layer protocol sets up a secure session that’s similar to Telnet?
What command, enabled by default starting with Cisco IOS version 12.x, allows the use of the first and last subnet in a network design?
ip subnet-zero
What mask yields only six IP addresses per subnet?, or /29
True/False: IPv6 headers reuse the IPv4 Checksum field.
False. IPv6 headers eliminate the checksum field.
Which command backs up the Cisco IOS to a TFTP server?
copy flash tftp
What protocol resolves IP addresses to MAC address?
What command provides an excellent overview of the actual operation of all currently running protocols?
show ip protocols
True/False: Layer 2 switches and bridges look at the frame’s hardware addresses before deciding to either forward, flood, or drop the frame.
Type the command that must be present for a layer 3 switch to provide inter-VLAN routing between the two VLANs.
ip routing
True/False: IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
What device hosts a different subnet on each interface?
True/False: IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
What mechanism is used by the client to avoid a duplicate IP address during the DHCP process?
Gratuitous ARP
The advertised prefix length of an IPv6 router advertisement message must be what length?
64 bits
How many subnets are contained in the network
What IP address is called the loopback address?
What is the HyperTerminal setting for connecting to a Cisco router?
9600 bps, parity None, 1 stop bit, and 8 data bits
What type of cable is used to connect to a console port of a router?
Rolled or rollover
What type of Ethernet cable is used to connect from a hub to a switch?
The _______________ command causes the system to return you to your previous prompt after displaying a console message.
logging synchronous
What is the ICMPv6 router advertisement type?
What does the configuration register setting of 0x2102 do?
Tells the router to look in NVRAM for the boot sequence
Which command can be used to determine a router’s capacity to generate debug output?
show processes cpu
What is the IPv6 Link Local prefix used for unicast?
Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses?
IPv6 stateless and stateful autoconfiguration
What is the solicited-node multicast IP address for 2001:DB8:1001:F:2C0:10FF:FE17:FC0F?
Which Cisco IOS command do you use to configure stateless autoconfiguration?
ipv6 address autoconfig
What are three characteristics of satellite Internet connections?
Their upload speed is about 10 percent of their download speed, they are frequently used by rural users without access to other high-speed connections, and they are usually at least 10 times faster than analog modem connections.
What are two requirements for an HSRP group?
Exactly one active router, one or more standby routers
True/False: HSRP is a standard FHRP.
What three items must match for a successful EIGRP neighbor discovery process?
The AS number, K values, and authentication settings if used
What algorithm is used by EIGRP for selecting and maintaining the best path to each remote network?
What is the backup HSRP router called?
In HSRP, what IP address should be the gateway of the hosts?
The IP address of the virtual router
What HSRP feature can be used to monitor the uplinks of the routers?
Interface tracking
What value is used to select the HSRP active router?
What is the default priority of an HSRP router?
True/False: HSRP performs true load balancing.
What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?
Define inside and outside interfaces.
Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
show ip interface loopback 0
Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?
What is it called when a router with a higher priority retakes the AVG role after being down?
To send messages to the VTY lines, use what command?
terminal monitor
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose?
The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched; the symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.
What version of SNMP increased security?
What type of SNMP message is used to retrieve information from a device?
What version of SNMP added the GET BULK message?
What is the collection of information organized hierarchically and accessed by SNMP?
Management information base (MIB)
What version of SNMP added the INFORM message?
Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?
show ip nat statistics
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
Inside global
True/False: Static routing uses consistent route determination.
True/False: Routing is disrupted when links fail.
Why does Cisco uses its proprietary extension of PVST+ with STP and RSTP?
Root bridge placement enables faster convergence as well as optimal path determination.
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
One with a higher priority, even if a switch with a lower priority is available.
Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?
show vlan id 20
What does BPDU Guard perform?
BPDU Guard shuts down a port if a BPDU is seen on that port.
Which two modes enables LACP EtherChannel?
Passive, active
What command is used to determine the name and size of the IOS file?
show flash
What is an image with all feature sets available called?
What are version 15.0 evaluation licenses called?
Right-To-Use licenses
What command displays the unique device identifier (UDI) of the router, which comprises the product ID (PID) and serial number of the router?
show license udi
On which types of networks will OSPF elect a backup designated router?
Non-broadcast and broadcast multi-access
Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol?
Provides common view of entire topology, calculates shortest path, utilizes event-triggered updates
True/False: You will get late collisions if you have a broadcast storm.
Which OSPF state do two routers forming an adjacency appear as in the show ip ospf neighbor output after neighbors are added into the table and hello information is exchanged?
What is the metric of a remote network as reported by an EIGRP neighbor called?
Advertised distance
What three items must match exactly in order for an OSPF adjacency to occur between routers?
Hello/dead timers, area, IP configuration
What is the metric reported by the neighbor plus the metric to the neighbor reporting the route?
Feasible distance
How was the following route learned?D [90/2195456] via, 00:27:06,Serial0/0
What EIGRP table contains all destinations advertised by neighboring routers, holding each destination address and a list of neighbors that have advertised the destination?
Topology table
EIGRP will keep up to ____ feasible successors in the topology table in 15.0 code.
True/False: A feasible successor is a backup route and is stored in the topology table.
Which type of LSA is generated by DRs and referred to as network link advertisements (NLAs)?
Type 2
True/False: You will receive late collisions if you have a duplex mismatch
What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.
What command will show you the root bridge for VLAN 10?
show spanning-tree vlan 10
What is the bandwidth of a T3?
44.736 Mbps
What is the bandwidth of an E1?
2.048 Mbps
True/False: A link joins an MLP bundle only if it negotiates to use the bundle when a connection is established and the identification information that is exchanged matches that of an existing bundle
When the speed provided for both downstream and upstream connections is equal, what type of DSL is in use?
Symmetrical DSL
What is the name for the service that encapsulates PPP frames in Ethernet frames?
What type connector is a V.35?
V.35 is a serial standard used to connect to a CSU/DSU, with speeds up to 2.048 Mbps using a 34-pin rectangular connector
True/False: HDLC is the default serial encapsulation on a Cisco router.
What protocol uses LCP as one of its components?
True/False: Passwords are sent in clear text using CHAP.
What command is used to observe the PPP authentication process in real time?
debug ppp authentication
True/False: Cloud computing is delivered as a service rather than a product.
Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device?
Inside local and inside global
Which protocol in the PPP stack provides built-in authentication methods, compression, and multilink?
What are the three steps in a PPP session establishment?
Link establishment, optional authentication, network layer protocol phase
What technology is used by traditional telephone companies to deliver advanced services (high-speed data and sometimes video) over twisted-pair copper telephone wires?
What structures does MPLS use to identify the path to a destination?
The Cisco StackWise technology is typically used to unite access switches that are mounted in the same rack and creates some management overhead.
True/False: The following three service models are typically provided from a cloud: IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS
True. The three service models are Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS).
True/False: SDN offers a centralized view of the network, giving an SDN controller the ability to act as the “brains” of the network.
The SDN architecture slightly differs from the architecture of traditional networks. It comprises three stacked layers (from the bottom up). What are these three layers?
Data (or forwarding) plane, control plane, application plane
What is Cisco’s latest SDN Controller platform for enterprise networks (access, campus, and WAN)?
Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller Enterprise Module (Cisco APIC-EM)
What are the four components of IWAN?
Transport Independent Connectivity, Intelligent Path Control, Application Optimization, Highly Secure Connectivity
True/False: DHCP snooping is a layer 2 security feature that acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers
True/False: DHCP snooping is a layer 2 security feature that acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers
The IEEE 802.1x standard allows you to implement the identity-based networking based on the client/server access control. What are the three roles defined by the standard?
Client (supplicant), Authenticator (usually a switch or AP), Authentication server (RADIUS)
What command, and at which prompt, is used to enable EIGRPv6 on the Corp router in AS 10?
Corp (config) #ipv6 router eigrp 10
To what multicast address are hello packets sent in EIGRPv6?
The two most popular options for external AAA are what?
In QoS mechanisms, after you have identified and marked traffic, you can treat it by a set of actions. These actions include which five options?
include bandwidth assignment, policing, shaping, queuing, and dropping decisions
True/False: NBAR is a layer 1 to layer 7 deep-packet inspection classifier.
False. It is a layer 4 -7 classifier.
In the following output, what value is the feasible distance?
P 2001:DB8:C34D:15::/64, 1 successors, FD is 2170112
via FE80::209:7CFF:FE51:B401 (2170112/2816), Serial0/0/1
NBAR has two different modes of operation. What are they?
Passive and active mode
What are the three general ways to classify traffic?
Marking, addressing, and application signature
What command, and at what prompt, places an interface in area 0 for process 1 using OSPFv3?
Corp (config-if) #ipv6 ospf 1 area 0
Which proprietary Cisco STP extension would put a switch port into error disabled if a BPDU is received on this port
PortFast with BPDU Guard
True/False: DSCP is a set of 6-bit values that are used to describe the meaning of the layer IPv4 ToS field
True: While IP precedence is the old way to mark ToS, DSCP is the new way.
What command will you use to see information about a specific port channel interface?
show etherchannel number port-channel
We configure the bridge priority in blocks of _______ rather than in increments of 1 in PVST+.
True/False: The address 0000.0c07.ac0a is an HSRP address.
What is the HSRP group number in the following HSRP address?
Generally, you can place QoS tools into different categories. What are they?
Classification and marking tools; policing, shaping, and remarking tools; congestion management or scheduling tools; link-specific tools
Two OSPF neighbors are stuck in EXCHANGE/EXSTART state. What could be possible reason for it?
Mismatched MTU
Which Cisco technology allows up to nine individual switches joined in a single logical switching unit?
What are two typical examples of layer 2 VPN?
VPNs provide many benefits. List four.
Cost savings, scalability, compatibility with broadband technology, security
IPsec provides four important security services. What are they?
Confidentiality (encryption), data integrity, authentication, antireplay protection
True/False: The Cisco DMVPN feature provides simple provisioning of many VPN peers.
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
ntp master
What is the subnet and broadcast address of this host:,
Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?
When the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require outside Internet access
True/False. When configuring static routes, an exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.
Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
Access point
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
IEEE 802.1 Q
True/False. This is a valid hostname for a switch following Cisco’s guidelines:
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
Router on a stick
True/False. Routers perform this on a packet: Update the layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations.
False. They update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hop.
True/False. Routers perform this on a packet: Examine the layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets.
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. Which protocol will the workstation now use to determine the MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
A voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
Data Link
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. How many broadcasts are there?
On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?
A hub
What is the default lease title for a DHCP binding?
24 hours
Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?
1600 bytes
True/False. Tracert uses ICMP packets.
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
Administrative distance
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?
Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?
A transmitting host MAC address is not in the MAC table of a switch. What will the switch will do when it receives the frame from the host?
The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to the destination host if known; if not, it will flood the frame.
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
Which routing protocol has the default administrative distance of 90?
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled?
Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?
Static NAT
True/False. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default.
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
Destination MAC address
True/False. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
True/False. TCP provides synchronized communication.
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A multicast address. Range is through
When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
True/False. Configuring the inside interface identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access lists or route maps.
Which option must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
True/False. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is in the same VLAN, except the port it was received on.
When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and destined to another, which portion of the packet is replaced?
Layer 2 frame header and trailer
Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
True/False. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
True/False. RIP is a link-state routing protocol.
A host uses something called a _____________ to help avoid a possible duplicate address. The DHCP server uses a _______ session to check for duplicates.
Gratuitous ARP, ping
With a /28 mask, the mask is ___________________, the block size is ___________________, and the number of host addresses available is ___________________., 16, and 14
This command displays information about the Cisco IOS software version currently running on a routing device, the ROM monitor and Bootflash software versions, and information about the hardware configuration, including the router’s configuration register.
Show version
To enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router, use the following command: ______________.
ipv6 unicast-routing
The _________________ command displays any security settings that have been applied to the port.
show port-security
What type of ACL uses the numbers 1-99?
When TCP is used as the Transport protocol, it can use ____________ for flow control.
TCP uses the protocol number ___?
With as the network address and as the subnet mask, we have a range of IP addresses from? to, broadcast address .159.
The four simple steps that Cisco recommends for troubleshooting are (in this order) ping the loopback address, ping the NIC, ping the default gateway, and ping the remote device.
The copy startup-config running-config command enables a switch (or a router) to copy the configuration from RAM to its NVRAM.
Which command specifies the address of the DHCP server, which allows the router to relay broadcast traffic destined for a DHCP server to that server?
ip helper-address
The show ipv6 arp command displays the current MAC-to-IPv6 mappings.
The switchport port-security command enables port security, which is a prerequisite for the other commands to function.
Unlike 802.1q, which encapsulates the frame with control information, ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control information.
Standard IP access lists can filter network traffic based on the source and destination IP address and source and destination port number.
Switches operate at the Data Link layer as they filter traffic based on layer 2 information.
WRED is a congestion-avoidance mechanism.
StackWise can connect up to nine individual switches joined into multiple logical switching units and managed by one IP address.
False. They are joined into one logical switching unit.
The best definition of cloud computing is an on-demand computing model.
Which QoS mechanism is a 6-bit value that is used to describe the meaning of the layer 3 IPv4 ToS field?
Southbound SDN interface are used between which two planes?
Control, data
Which QoS mechanism is a term that is used to describe a 3-bit field in the QoS control field of wireless frames?
What are the three general ways to classify traffic?
Markings, addressing, and application signatures
CoS is a layer 2 QoS __________?
A session is using more bandwidth than allocated. Which QoS mechanism will drop the traffic?
What are the three SDN layers?
Data, control, application
What are two examples of newer queuing mechanisms that are recommended for rich-media networks?
What is a layer 4 to 7 deep-packet inspection classifier that is more CPU-intensive than marking?
______________ APIs are responsible for the communication between the SDN controller and the services running over the network.
Voice traffic is real-time traffic and comprises constant and predictable bandwidth and packet arrival times. One-way requirements include latency < ___ms, jitter <__ms, and loss < _%, and bandwidth needs to be __-___ Kbps.
150, 30, 1, 30-128
On which SDN architecture layer does Cisco APIC-EM reside?
The ________________ represents the core layer of the SDN architecture and is where the Cisco APIC-EM resides.
Control plane
In the IaaS service model, is the customer responsible for managing the operating system, software, platforms, and applications
______________ provides only the network and delivers the computer infrastructure (platform virtualization environment).
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
An IP phone is a common trust boundary.
IP phones and the boundary between the ISP and enterprise network are common examples of trust boundaries.
The IWAN allows transport-independent connectivity.
Which advanced classification tool can be used to classify data applications?
The DSCP field constitutes how many fields in the IP header?
Between which two planes are SDN southbound interfaces used?
Control and data
_______________ is a term to describe designated fields in a frame or packet header. How devices treat packets in your network depends on the field values. __________ is usually used with Ethernet frames and contains 3 bits.
Class of Service (CoS), Class of Service (CoS)
Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth?
What are the three layers of the SDN architecture?
Data, control, and application.
NBAR is a layer 4 to layer 7 deep-packet inspection classifier.
Southbound APIs are used for communication between the controllers and network devices.
OnePK is Cisco proprietary
The Cisco switch stack is managed as a single object and has a single management IP address
PaaS service provides the operating system and the network.
IaaS service provides the required software, operating system, and the network.
False. That’s SaaS
When connecting to the cloud, you must do local backups on your PC.
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged?
Discarding, forwarding
Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command?
The type of cable that is connected to the interface and the status of the physical layer of the interface
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
Which type of switch ports drop packets with 802.1Q tags?
Access ports
You enter the show ipv6 route command on a router and the device displays a route. What routing protocol is used?
Which switch states are valid for 802.1w?
Discarding, learning, forwarding
What can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain?
Congestion on the switch inband path, BS duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
What is a benefit of switch stacking?
It provides higher port density with better resource usage.
What protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more switches?
Which part of the PPPoE server configurator contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
Virtual Template Interface
What process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
Electing designated ports
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
What is the purpose of traffic policing?
It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol?
The requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality, and high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
IP SLAs are used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
Look for the 07.AC in the address, such as: 0000.0C07.AC15.
Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?
Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2?
It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link, and it routes over links rather than over networks.
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
802 .1x
Describe slow inter-VLAN forwarding
The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded more slowly than expected.
Intelligent DNS can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
When a switch in rapid PVST+ mode has a topology change, the switch immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
False. It deletes all MAC addresses in that one VLAN instance.
Named ACLs support only extended ACLs.
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
Change the operational mode to static access.
Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?
DTP uses the native VLAN to send data
Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding state?
Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
Cisco APIC
MPLS operates at what layer?
It operates between layer 2 and layer 3.
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
Ping the default gateway.
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?
Configure the server group.
EIGRPv6 needs a RID under the routing process.
When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, it installs the route with
lowest AD
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP ?
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting?
packet-loss detection
What is the necessary component that is used to enable ipv6 routing ?
loopback interface
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One
route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a
metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router
install in the routing table?
the EIGRP route
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true?
Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
late collisions
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol?
The connection is established before data is transmitted.
It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed ?
the PPP Session phase
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state?
The tunnel interface is down.
A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true?
They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs
They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level
What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures?
Packet loss
Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?
Which statement about LLDP is true?
It is configured in global configuration mode.
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts
attached to Switch1
can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that
the router and
Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1
to correct this problem?
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
show ipv6
What are two benefits of using NAT?
NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?
What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q ?
Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric ?
unequal cost load balancing
In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked ?
the ToS byte
Which three options are switchport config that can always avoid duplex mismatch error between
the switches?
set both side on auto-negotation.
set both sides on half-duplex
set both side of connection to full-duplex
What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses?
they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA
provide network isloation from the internet
Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology
it reduces management overhead.
it requires only 1 IP add per VLAN.
Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules ?
The ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM.
What is known as ―one-to-nearest addressing in IPv6 ?
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to
network access control
How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?
assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the
discarding role?
Switch3, port Gi0/2
Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between the two devices in a network?
ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM
When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you
must perform?
Verify that the router interface IP address is correct.
Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.
Verify that the route appears in the Routing table