BHIS 480 Exploring Management Wiley Plus

Self-management means showing emotional intelligence and exercising initiative.
True or False
True
As managerial responsibilities increase, which of the following sets of skills grows in importance?
A) Technical
B) Human
C) Conceptual
D) Social
C) Conceptual
Effective managers
A) lead people who perform non-managerial duties.
B) are not responsible for the quality of life at work.
C) help others to achieve both high performance and satisfaction.
D) are supervised by the board of directors.
C) help others to achieve both high performance and satisfaction.
The two primary areas of skill in emotional intelligence are connection with self and connection with others.
True or False
True
The upside-down pyramid suggests that the style that managers should be one of
A) directing.
B) coaching.
C) ordering.
D) commanding.
B) coaching.
The decisional role describes how a manager
A) handles disturbances.
B) interacts with others.
C) exchanges and processes information.
D) assigns tasks to people.
A) handles disturbances.
__________ actively denies women and minorities the full benefits of organizational membership.
A) Discrimination
B) Inclusion
C) Affirmative action
D) Attitude
A) Discrimination
Top managers are directly accountable to the
A) employees.
B) stockholders.
C) government.
D) board of directors.
D) board of directors.
Mintzberg has identified three roles of managers which include all of the following EXCEPT
A) interpersonal.
B) informational.
C) international.
D) decisional.
C) international.
At Outdoor Furniture Inc., the oversight of top management by its board of directors is called
A) governance.
B) ethics.
C) inverse accountability.
D) QWL issues.
A) governance.
Chuck has a rule that he will not do anything unless “there is something in it for him”. According to Kohlberg, Chuck is in the __________ level of moral development.
A) conventional
B) preconventional
C) principle-centered
D) competitive
B) preconventional
The highest level of social performance comes through the satisfaction of discretionary responsibility.
True or False
True
Jeremiah has often commented that while he would like to be famous and wealthy, what he has to do to achieve these two objectives is important to him; he would never lie, cheat or steal to obtain fame or wealth. Jeremiah is heavily weighing the
A) terminal values.
B) instrumental values.
C) a utilitarian view.
D) procedural justice.
B) instrumental values.
Beliefs that good grades are obtained through good study habits, by getting the “right” test questions, or by sitting beside “smart” friends are examples of
A) good ethics.
B) instrumental values.
C) moral-rights.
D) terminal values.
B) instrumental values.
One of the top reasons U.S. workers fail to report the wrongdoings of others in the workplace is that there are no laws to protect whistleblowers.
True or False
False
Desired end states and the means for accomplishing these ends vary from one person to another due to differences in
A) personal values.
B) work experience.
C) the level of maturity.
D) age.
A) personal values.
Broad beliefs such as honesty, caring nature, and integrity are called
A) beliefs.
B) ideas.
C) ethics.
D) values.
D) values.
__________ involves making use of natural resources to meet today’s needs, while also preserving and protecting the environment for future generations.
A) Abundant consumerism
B) Generous business
C) Sustainable development
D) Environmental capitalization
C) Sustainable development
__________ suggests that there is no one right way to behave and that ethics is dependent on a particular local culture.
A) Procedural rights
B) Universalism
C) Ethical imperialism
D) Cultural relativism
D) Cultural relativism
Which of the following is NOT a source of ethical dilemma?
A) A supervisor holds subordinates accountable for unrealistically high performance goals.
B) A supervisor pressurizes subordinates to support incorrect viewpoints.
C) A supervisor asks subordinates to do business with one of the supervisor’s friends.
D) A supervisor denies an employee promotion due to his/her low performance.
D) A supervisor denies an employee promotion due to his/her low performance.
__________ plans set long-term goals and __________ plans delineate steps to accomplish them.
A) Contingency; tactical
B) Tactical; contingency
C)Strategic; tactical
D)Tactical; strategic
C)Strategic; tactical
Benchmarking would help executives at Coke and Pepsi prepare for new competition such as the appearance of Mecca Cola and Qibla Cola in the European markets.
True or False
False
One of the former CEOs of Boeing was asked to resign by his board of directors because he violated the company’s policy on office relationships.
True or False
True
Good planning makes us do all of the following EXCEPT
A) multi-tasking.
B) prioritizing.
C) optimizing resource utilization.
D) anticipating problems and opportunities.
A) multi-tasking.
A statement that clarifies the purpose of the organization and expresses what it hopes to be in the future is called a(n)
A) operational plan.
B) vision statement.
C) strategic plan.
D)tactical plan.
B) vision statement.
Connie has asked her salespeople to set their own sales objectives for the upcoming year. All she asks is that they set the goals at a level that will require them to work extra hard to achieve. Connie has asked them to set __________ goals.
A) short-range
B) long-range
C) elastic
D) stretch
D) stretch
A process by which one establishes lower level objectives in order to meet higher level objectives is called
A) objective analysis.
B) strategic analysis.
C) a hierarchy of objectives.
D) a chain of command.
C) a hierarchy of objectives.
Sumo Pharmaceutical is developing a new drug to treat obesity. Sumo executives have engaged in __________ planning in order to answer the question, “What will Sumo do if the drug does not receive FDA approval?”
A) vision
B) scenario
C) strategic
D) tactical
B) scenario
The process of developing alternative plans in anticipation of having problems with implementing the existing plan is called
A) contingency planning.
B) forecasting.
C) scenario planning.
D) budgeting.
A) contingency planning.
Forecasts about the future
A) seldom uses human judgment.
B) is always quantitative in nature.
C) may be based on statistical analysis of historical data.
D) are always accurate.
C) may be based on statistical analysis of historical data.
Group decision making is always preferred over individual decision making.
True or False
False
A systematic thinker will
A) try to be flexible in his or her thinking.
B) generally be spontaneous.
C) be analytical in his or her approach.
D) be creative in his or her methods.
C) be analytical in his or her approach.
Monique notices that her wait staff has come to her repeatedly over the last month asking for permission to substitute French fries with steamed vegetables for customers who express an interest in reducing their carbohydrate and calorie intake. At a recent employee meeting, she announced that any customer requesting such a substitution should receive it without additional charge and without permission from a manager. This is an example of a(n) __________ decision.

A) programmed
B) nonprogrammed
C) spontaneous
D) intuitive

A) programmed
The __________ heuristic occurs when people adjust a previously existing value to make a decision.
A) escalating commitment
B) representativeness
C) anchoring and adjustment
D)availability
C) anchoring and adjustment
Managers may adopt all of the following approaches EXCEPT
A) problem avoiding.
B) problem solving.
C) problem seeking.
D) problem causing.
D) problem causing.
The decision-making process ends when a decision is implemented.
True or False
False
The behavioral decision model attempts to provide a(n) __________ decision.
A) classical
B) satisficing
C) programmed
D) optimizing
B) satisficing
Joanna decides to hire a purchasing manager who uses the __________ type of cognitive style to make decisions. The manager should be an open communicator and a realistic person.
A) sensation feeler
B) intuitive feeler
C) intuitive thinker
D) sensation thinker
A) sensation feeler
Managers sometimes use simplifying strategies for decision making, which can result in errors.
True or False
True
Tim is a purchasing manager in a large company. He needs to make a decision about selecting a contractor to expand office facilities. There were a few contractors in town who could do the job. He selected four contractors to make bids. He only selected those who came highly recommended. However, there were six more about whom he had heard good things but were not selected to bid. Also, there were an additional ten contractors who Tim hadn’t heard of. After the bids came in, Tim selected the lowest bidder because that contractor offered a good enough solution for his needs. This approach of evaluating and selecting decisions is based on the __________ decision model and is considered a(n) ___________ decision.
A) classical; optimal
B) behavioral; optimal
C) classical; satisficing
D) behavioral; satisficing
D) behavioral; satisficing
Continuous improvement
A) is a certification by the International Standards Organization.
B) involves operations that make quality an everyday performance objective and strives to do things right the first time.
C) should always be tracked using a control chart.
D) refers to always looking for new ways to improve on current performance.
D) refers to always looking for new ways to improve on current performance.
Ensuring that the final results meet desired standards is called _________ control.
A) feedforward
B) feedback
C) concurrent
D) internal
B) feedback
The current ratio is important because it measures total assets to total liabilities.
True or False
False
Lucy, a manager at a fast food restaurant, began assisting with filling orders when she noticed a problem of lines forming at the cash registers. This would be an example of
A) feedback control.
B) concurrent control.
C) feedforward control.
D) staff control.
B) concurrent control.
The control function makes sure that plans are achieved and that actual performance meets or surpasses objectives.
True or False
True
Developing a balanced scorecard begins with a clarification of
A) an organization’s mission and vision.
B) an organization’s innovation and learning.
C) quality standards.
D) learning outcomes for team members from diverse backgrounds.
A) an organization’s mission and vision.
The type of control that influences behavior through norms and expectations set by the organization’s culture is called _______ control.
A) market
B) external
C) bureaucratic
D) clan
D) clan
Sara, along with her supervisor, agreed that she would increase product sales by 20% in the upcoming year, which is 10% more than the previous year. This is an example of
A) a personal development objective.
B) an improvement objective.
C) a standard objective.
D) a social objective.
B) an improvement objective.
Aering Autos, an automobile company, has decided to be the first to market the next generation hybrid technology. Which of the following balanced scorecard objectives is it measuring?
A) Customer satisfaction
B) Just-in-time scheduling
C)Innovation
D) Financial performance
C)Innovation
The control process begins with
A) forecasting.
B) establishing objectives and standards.
C) measuring performance.
D)comparing objectives and standards.
B) establishing objectives and standards.
The process of formulating and implementing strategies to accomplish long term goals and to maintain a competitive advantage is called
A) strategic controlling.
B) strategic management.
C) globalization.
D) vertical integration.
B) strategic management.
A special strength that an organization does well in comparison to competitors is called
A) strategic intent.
B) core competency.
C) diversification.
D) differentiation strategy.
B) core competency.
The most extreme form of retrenchment is restructuring.
True or False
False
The preferred strategy for dog businesses would be
A) investment to capture all of the benefits of the market position.
B) to limit investment to only the least promising businesses in this category.
C) to hold and “milk” the investments for any and all profits.
D) retrenchment by divestiture.
D) retrenchment by divestiture.
When Goodyear, a tire manufacturer, purchased rubber tree plantations to supply its own need for rubber in tire production, it pursued
A) market development.
B) unrelated diversification.
C) backward vertical integration.
D) forward vertical integration.
C) backward vertical integration.
The levels of strategy used in organizations are _______, _______, and
A) personal; competitive; corporate.
B) competitive; corporate; legal.
C) corporate; business; functional.
D) business; functional; competitive.
C) corporate; business; functional.
An example of a focused cost leadership strategy is when an airline offers heavily discounted fares and “no frills” service for customers who want to travel point-to-point for the lowest prices.
True or False
True
A strategy that tries to operate without a strong national identity and seeks a balance between the efficiency of worldwide operations and responsiveness to local cultures is called a ___________ strategy.
A) multidomestic
B) globalization
C) diversification
D) transnational
D) transnational
The recommendation of the BCG matrix on question marks is retrenchment or
A) integration.
B) diversification.
C) growth.
D) niche.
C) growth.
Ultimately, a good strategy helps an organization achieve
A) vertical integration.
B)diversification.
C) competitive advantage.
D) globalization.
C) competitive advantage.
Social entrepreneurship is the act of converting new ideas into usable applications with positive economic or social value.
True or False
False
People may resist change for all of the following reasons EXCEPT for
A) the fear of the unknown.
B) disrupting habits.
C) the fear of punishment.
D) work overload.
C) the fear of punishment.
A force-coercion strategy is one that uses legitimacy, punishment, and _______ powers to induce change.
A) referent
B) expert
C) reward
D)coercive
C) reward
Observable culture is all of the following EXCEPT
A) what you see in people’s behavior.
B) how people dress.
C) evident in organizational stories, heroes, symbols, rites, and rituals.
D) the organizations’ beliefs.
D) the organizations’ beliefs.
___________ creates products or services that become so widely used that they largely replace prior practices and competitors.
A) Commercializing innovation
B) Reverse innovation
C) Green innovation
D) Disruptive innovation
D) Disruptive innovation
Achievement award programs are __________ that contribute to a company’s core values.
A)stories
B) heroes
C) rites and rituals
D) symbols
C) rites and rituals
In theory, every manager should act as a change leader, but the reality is that most accept things as they are and prefer not to change.
True or False
True
According to Lewin, the correct order in the steps of change is
A) freezing, refreezing, and changing.
B) unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.
C) refreezing, changing, and unfreezing.
D) changing, unfreezing, and refreezing.
B) unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.
Getting people to become willing to change has been likened to a “burning bridge” phase. Sometimes, to get people to jump off of a bridge, you might need to set it on fire.
True or False
True
__________ supports sustainability by creating ways to reduce the carbon footprint of an organization or its products.
A) Commercializing innovation
B) Business model innovation
C) Green innovation
D) Reverse innovation
C) Green innovation
A matrix organization attempts to capture the benefits of both the functional structure and the divisional structure.
True or False
True
The __________ problem occurs as a result of a lack of communication, coordination, and problem solving across functions.
A) division of labor
B) functional chimneys
C) matrix dilemma
D) virtual organization
B) functional chimneys
Articles from Business Week and The Wall Street Journal are cited in the text, which describes Microsoft as
A) a bureaucracy.
B) entrepreneurial in spirit.
C) decentralized in most decisions and flat in structure.
D) extremely innovative and adaptive to its environment.
A) a bureaucracy.
A more bureaucratic form of organization is called a __________ design, which thrives in stable environments, while a less bureaucratic from is called a(n) __________ design and is best suited for adaptation in less predictable environments.
A) centralized; decentralized
B) controlling; empowered
C) mechanistic; organic
D) taller; flatter
C) mechanistic; organic
Marketing, engineering, and manufacturing departments are examples of __________ organizations.
A) matrix
B) cross-functional
C) informal
D) functional
D) functional
A(n) __________ allows organizations to network with outside contractors to procure essential services.
A) management club
B) acquisition
C) corporate takeover
D) strategic alliance
D) strategic alliance
A classical management principle regarding delegation is that authority should __________ responsibility.
A) equal
B) exceed
C) diminish
D) eliminate
A) equal
Management scholars have reported that alternative work schedules result in an increase of employee-related problems such as low morale and absenteeism.
True or False
False
Organizational charts provide all of the following EXCEPT
A) a clear division of work.
B) lines of supervisory relationships.
C) recognition of the spans of control.
D) unofficial relationships among an organization’s members.
D) unofficial relationships among an organization’s members.
A company that serves educational, business, and home user markets is likely to group its employees under a __________ structure.
A) functional
B) divisional
C) matrix
D) team
B) divisional
LMX theory recognizes that in most leadership situations everyone is treated the same by the leader.
True or False
False
The contingency leadership perspective suggests that
A) leaders should be hired contingent upon their predominant style being a good match for the job.
B) leaders should adjust their styles based upon the maturity of their followers.
C) leaders are effective when they help followers along paths through which they can achieve both work and personal goals.
D) effective leadership styles vary by the nature of the situation and people involved.
D) effective leadership styles vary by the nature of the situation and people involved.
_________ power is the capacity to influence others through the authority attached to a position.
A) Expert
B) Leadership
C) Legitimate
D) Coercive
C) Legitimate
____________ is the ability to manage one’s emotions in social relationships.
A) Personal management
B) Intelligence quotient
C) Emotional intelligence
D) Integrity
C) Emotional intelligence
Interactive leadership emphasizes all of the following EXCEPT
A) self-management.
B) communication.
C) dealing with problems by teamwork.
D) participation.
A) self-management.
Tyler is a manager at Hart Inc. Employees respect and like him because he is fair, hardworking alongside the employees, interested in the employees as people, and very good-natured. Tyler very likely has considerable
A) coercive power.
B) legitimate power.
C) expert power.
D) referent power.
D) referent power.
According to a leadership survey of U.S. workers, what percent of managers are perceived as strong leaders?
A) 95%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 33%
D) 33%
Setting the direction is one of the four functions of management.
True or False
True
If performance incentives are poor, House would suggest using:
A) transactional leadership.
B) directive leadership.
C) achievement-oriented leadership.
D) participative leadership.
D) participative leadership.
The three contingency variables Fiedler used for his least-preferred coworker scale were
A) leader-member power, organizational structure, and personal power.
B) leader’s referent power, job structure, and leader’s need for power.
C) leader-member relations, task structure, and position power.
D) leader’s experience difficulty, organizational structure, and leader’s need for power.
C) leader-member relations, task structure, and position power.
It is better to give the recipient of feedback all of the information you have to give, all at one time, even if it is hard for the recipient to accept, rather than breaking up the feedback in smaller portions delivered at different times.
True or False
False
Poorly given feedback is better than no feedback at all.
True or False
False
Effective communication occurs when
A) the message is sent.
B) the message gets to the receiver.
C) the interpreted message matches the intended message.
D) the message is encoded.
C) the interpreted message matches the intended message.
The way that we use space and design the physical layout of an office that will be conducive to effective communication is called:
A) prosthetics.
B) proxemics.
C) ergonomics.
D) architectural dynamics.
B) proxemics.
During a meeting, Eric said, “I am willing to take on the Middle-East assignment.” At the same time, Eric had his arms crossed, was frowning, and shook his head back and forth. Eric is
A) using physical distractions.
B) employing trade-offs between efficient and effective communication.
C) sending mixed messages.
D) communicating logically.
C) sending mixed messages.
Which of these management actions is liable to decrease the chance of filtering?
A) Allowing a highly charged political environment to develop.
B) Punishing the bearer of bad news.
C) Making employees accountable for the results of their activities.
D) Fostering a learning environment where mistakes are treated as growth opportunities.
D) Fostering a learning environment where mistakes are treated as growth opportunities.
All of the following are considered basic communication skills EXCEPT
A) using e-mail and social media.
B) working well in teams.
C) writing memos, letters and reports.
D) creating ethnocentric messages.
D) creating ethnocentric messages.
Jordan is an employee at Maryland University. He works in the foundation office and his job is to solicit donations from prospective donors for scholarships. Jordan knows that when he asks for a gift he is most successful when he sincerely listens to the person, tries to find the full meaning in what they are saying, and controls his emotions while he is listening to their response. Jordan is engaging in
A) constructive feedback.
B) proxemics.
C) fundraising.
D) active listening.
D) active listening.
All of the following are considered forms of nonverbal communication EXCEPT
A) eye contact.
B) an e-mail.
C) body posture.
D) facial expressions.
B) an e-mail.
____________ communications provides the highest quality and quantity of information.
A) Telephone
B) E-mail
C) Face-to-face
D) Television
C) Face-to-face
About __________ percent of age discrimination lawsuits result in some financial settlement in favor of the person filing the claim.
A) 20
B) 40
C) 60
D) 80
A) 20
Independent contractors are not part of an organization’s permanent workforce.
True or False
True
According to scholars Pfeffer and Veiga, an organization that views its employees as a cost to be reduced, will enjoy higher industry profits in the long run.
True or False
False
A realistic job preview
A) is a “tell and sell” approach to an interview where the interviewer tells candidates about a job and then tries to get them interested in it.
B) provides job candidates only with the positive aspects of the job.
C) provides job candidates with positive and negative aspects of the job.
D) is an exercise where candidates learn on the job.
C) provides job candidates with positive and negative aspects of the job.
All of the following are true of labor unions EXCEPT that they
A) are made up of workers.
B) act as a “collective” voice for the workers.
C) are run by the company management.
D) bargain for the workers.
C) are run by the company management.
Which of the following is true of training?
A)It develops employee skills and capabilities.
B) It is costly and should be avoided.
C) It is not necessary if employees with appropriate qualifications are hired.
D) It should always include coaching by managers.
A)It develops employee skills and capabilities.
Employees should assume all of the following regarding privacy on the job EXCEPT that technology can allow employers to
A) monitor e-mails from company computers.
B) identify who is receiving phone calls.
C) track internet searches done on company equipment.
D) spy on employees to decide who will get a promotion.
D) spy on employees to decide who will get a promotion.
Refusing to hire or promote someone for non-job-relevant reasons is called
A) prejudice.
B) bias.
C) discrimination.
D) right to work.
C) discrimination.
A contingency worker is denied all of the following EXCEPT
A) health care.
B)employment.
C) a pension.
D) fringe benefits.
B) employment.
Julia is a human resource management specialist. Her job has become increasingly more important because
A) specialists with her qualifications are not usually outsourced.
B) the employment environment is complicated by legal issues, labor shortages, and economic turmoil.
You got it right
C) there are very few laws protecting employees, and human resource management specialists deal with employers on behalf of the employees.
D) she and her team report directly to the board of directors.
B) the employment environment is complicated by legal issues, labor shortages, and economic turmoil.
Robyn is very organized and focuses on getting her work done. Even when work gets hectic, she remains calm. Customers say that she is very helpful, and she is well-liked in the organization. Which of the following personality traits is Robyn most likely to possess?
A) Emotional instability
B) Perception
C) Agreeableness
D) Introversion
C) Agreeableness
When Sally met Sean for the first time, she was very impressed by his impeccable dress sense and immediately formed a positive impression of him. She instantly concluded that Sean is well-organized and professional. This perceptual distortion is called
A) selective perception.
B) a halo effect.
C) stereotyping.
D) projection.
B) a halo effect.
__________ is the extent to which one believes what happens is within one’s control.
A) Self-confidence
B) Emotional stability
C) Extroversion
D) Locus of control
D) Locus of control
Absenteeism and turnover are NOT very expensive for employers.
True or False
False
An individual’s personality traits are NOT effective in helping him or her determine a possible career direction.
True or False
False
Katie works with a team where Steve, one of the members, has not performed well and has let the team down. Katie and the other team members confront Steve and ask him to improve his performance. Steve is instantly enraged and blames his team members for his inability to perform. In this case, Steve’s behavior is an example of a
A) self-serving bias.
B) projection.
C) stereotype.
D) fundamental attribution error.
A) self-serving bias.
The perceptual distortion caused by assigning attributes commonly associated with a group to an individual is known as
A) projection.
B) stereotyping.
C) a halo effect.
D) selective perception.
B) stereotyping.
Which of the following is NOT a good predictor of the level of job satisfaction an employee perceives?
A) Absenteeism
B) Turnover
C) Less job security
D) Attitude
C) Less job security
Tiffany is considered by her supervisor to be a model employee. She is subservient and willing to obey orders without complaint. Which of the following types of personality is Tiffany likely to have?
A) High internal locus of control
B) Authoritarian
C) High-Mach
D) Extroverted
B) Authoritarian
Which of the following is NOT a trait of a Type A personality?
A) Moving, walking, and eating rapidly
B) Interrupting others while speaking
C) Working on one task at a time until it is completed
D) Disliking waiting
C) Working on one task at a time until it is completed
Which of the following is true of Maslow’s progression principle?
A) Satisfied need is not a motivator of behavior.
B) People try to satisfy lower-level needs first, then move step-by-step up the hierarchy.
C) Given a choice, people will choose to satisfy a higher-order need over a lower-order need.
D) Needs are based entirely upon the life-stage.
B) People try to satisfy lower-level needs first, then move step-by-step up the hierarchy.
Which of the following can lead to goals that are the most motivating?
A) Instructions to “do your best”.
B) Easy goals.
C) Set impossibly difficult goals so people will have to work hard.
D) Involve the people who will be doing the work in the goal setting session.
D) Involve the people who will be doing the work in the goal setting session.
To maximize expectancy in Vroom’s Expectancy Theory, a manager should do all of the following EXCEPT
A) establish and maintain good relationships with workers.
B) selecting workers with the right abilities for the jobs to be done.
C) providing the best training and development.
D) supporting workers with resources.
A) establish and maintain good relationships with workers.
The process described by expectancy theory would look like this
A) Performance >>> Effort >>> Reward.
B) Effort >>> Performance >>> Reward.
C) Reward >>> Effort >>> Performance.
D) Effort >>> Reward >>> Performance.
B) Effort >>> Performance >>> Reward.
Mary Kay Cosmetics gives pink Cadillacs (or other luxury vehicles) to their top performing saleswomen. This is a form of
A) negative reinforcement.
B) punishment.
C) extinction.
D) positive reinforcement.
D) positive reinforcement.
Maslow’s lower-order needs translate to which Alderfer’s ERG need categories?
A) Growth and existence needs
B) Existence and physiological needs
C) Relationship and growth needs
D) Existence and relatedness needs
D) Existence and relatedness needs
Motivation can be explained by looking within the individual as well as viewing the impact of environmental consequences.
True or False
True
According to theorists, human needs follow a very unpredictable pattern.
True or False
False
Even though J.K. Rowling’s first Harry Potter was rejected by 12 publishers, she did not give up. This is an example of
A) need for power.
B) satisfier factors.
C) motivation.
D) commitment to the characters she created.
C) motivation.
Vroom’s Expectancy Theory’s equation is Motivation = ________ ×
×
Instrumentality ×
×
Valence.
A)Outcome
B) Results
C) Expectancy
D) Goals
C) Expectancy
Virtual meetings are increasingly recommended in teams because there are no downsides to using technology as a replacement for face-to-face meetings.
True or False
False
All of the following are stages of development in a team EXCEPT
A) forming.
B) managing.
C) storming.
D) norming.
B) managing.
__________ is a tendency for highly cohesive teams to lose their evaluative capabilities.
A) Decision avoidance
B) Communication drift
C) Centralized communication
D) Groupthink
D) Groupthink
To avoid confusion, teams should limit themselves to just one decision-making method.
True or False
False
The major input categories required for effective teams are organizational setting, nature of task, membership composition, and
A) resources.
B) technology.
C) structures.
D) team size.
D) team size.
The tendency of some people to avoid responsibility by free-riding in groups is called
A) laziness.
B) redundancy.
C) social loafing.
D) work avoidance.
C) social loafing.
Elena and Tom are working on a group project with Mark. Mark tends to slack off during group meetings and does not offer any inputs. Which of the following is NOT an action Elena and Tom should take to get Mark to participate?
A) Reward Mark for his contributions.
B) Increase the group size so Mark has more competition.
C) Make Mark’s individual contributions more visible.
D) Make Mark’s task assignments more interesting.
B) Increase the group size so Mark has more competition.
Virtual teams are also called __________ teams.
A) distributed
B) cross-functional
C) task force
D) employee involvement
A) distributed
Team members are expected to behave in a certain manner which is governed by norms. Which of the following is NOT likely to be considered a norm for a team?
A) Coming on time to meetings.
B) Completing assigned tasks.
C) The amount of training each team member is supposed to receive.
D) The level of work effort members are expected to contribute.
C) The amount of training each team member is supposed to receive.
Which of the following can strengthen team cohesiveness?
A) Providing food at all team meetings.
B) Putting together team members who are very different from one another.
C) Keeping the team size small.
D) Rewarding individual performance.
C) Keeping the team size small.