Behavior Intervention Final

The primary emphasis in effective classroom management is:
Preventing student problem behavior in the first place.
According to Knoster (2008), the description “teacher self-management of instructional practince in group settings” is a more accurate way to describe:
Classroom management.
In terms of establishing rapport, it is important to first:
Acknowledge as a human being first, and teacher second, you will be inclined to have favorites.
The three primary principles of prevention in classroom management emphasized in your reading include:
Rapport, clear expectations and reinforcement.
Your students will likely ___ if they understand that you have a genuine interest in them on a personal level.
Become increasingly motivated to learn.
Beyond the basic mechanics of building rapport emphasized in your reading, it is also important to:
Think about situations that lead themselves to rapport building.
Negative reinforcement is:
The removal of an undesired stimulus based on the performance of a desired behavior.
Fundamental aspects of establishing clear expectations include:
Identifying, defining, teaching and reinforcing behavior.
Fairness in terms of your delivery of positive reinforcement with your students really means:
May be different from student to student and needs can change every time.
A procedure in which access to a desired stimulus (e.g. dessert at dinner) is made contingent on the appropriate use of a less desired stimulus (e.g. eating one’s vegetables at dinner) is referred to as:
The Premack Principle
Providing a conducive classroom environment (climate) has been associated with:
Higher levels of student academic and behavioral achievement.
In terms of the 4 to 1 ratio emphasized in your reading:
Each student should minimally have access to the 4 to 1 ratio, but what will differ between students may be the time interval within which you have to achieve the 6 to 1 ratio.
Planned ignoring and stop-redirect procedures are examples of what level of student-centered intervention in your classroom according to Knoster (2008)?
Level 1
An effective behavior contract has most to do with:
Reinforcement procedures for occurrence of expected behavior.
***Establishing a behavior contract with a particular student:
Should occur after exhausting your preventative classroom management approaches.
According to Knoster (2008), the key to understanding or decoding student problem behavior lies first and foremost in understanding:
Your own actions and the nature of your own behavior.
Which of the following best reflects the relationship between nature and nurture as it pertains to behavior?
Nature and nurture both effect behavior and the effect may change over time and across situations.
Which of the following are common examples of slow triggers (setting events) commonly associated with problem behavior?
Feeling ill, poor nights sleep, feeling hungry.
When conducting a Functional Behavior Assessment asking the question “when is Jimmy’s problem behavior most likely to occur?” is most useful to
Identify features of the context for Jimmy’s behavior problem.
***Designing a student-centered behavior support plan would be logical ___________.
as a next step if a behavior contract yielded sufficient results.
PBIS is:
a) a precise intervention to be applied in schools
b) an implementation framework to enhance academic and social behavior
c) a type of medically directed therapy
d) an approach exclusively utilized with students with disabilities
B
According to Sugai, which of the following is the best definition of PBIS?
a) a framework for enhancing the adoption and implementation of a continuum of evidence-based interventions to achieve academically and behaviorally important outcomes for all students
b) PBIS is a model that is best applied in special education schools
c) framework for improving behavior of students with disabilities
d) a practice for supporting behavioral change with all students
A
The continuum notion associated with PBIS emphasizes how practice are organized within a Multi-tiered system of support…which has also been referred to as __________.
a) restorative justice
b) community-referenced instruction
c) response to intervention
d) didactic intervention
C
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with schools that are effective with PBIS implementation?
a) high rates of placements of students in to alternative school placements
b) more than 80% of students and staff who can indicate desired expectations
c) 70-80% of their students who have not experienced an office discipline referral for a rule infraction
d) high rates of positive acknowledgments for contributing to a positive and safe school climate.
A
Which of the following positive outcomes associated with PBIS have been reported by a number of experimental studies since the 1980s?
a) improvements in problem disciplinary behavior
b) improvements in school climate and organisational health of schools
c) reductions in bully behavior and increases in academic achievement
d) all of the above
D
Which of the following are common misconceptions about PBIS?
a) PBIS is for behavior and response to intervention is for academics
b) PBIS emphasizes tangible rewards which can negatively affect the development of intrinsic motivation
c) neither a or b
d) both a and b
D
PBIS is a marriage of which of the following?
a) milieu therapies and medical treatment approaches
b) cognitive psychology, operant conditioning, and systems of theory
c) behavioral theory, behavior analysis, positive behavior supports and prevention and implementation science
d) self-image theory, psychoanalytic approaches, positive behavior supports, and intervention practice
C
Which of the following are commonly associated with Multi-tiered systems of support?
a) universal screening
b) continuous progress monitoring
c) continuum of evidence-based practice implemented with fidelity
d) all of the above
D
According to Hawken…, school-wide positive behavior support includes which of the following?
a) three main tiers: primary prevention, ancillary services, and crisis intervention
b) three main tiers: ancillary, systolic, and direct prevention
c) three main prevention tiers: primary, secondary, tertiary
d) three main tiers of intervention: primary, mid-level, and secondary
C
Students who do not sufficiently respond to primary-tiered prevention may benefit from secondary-tier interventions…which have also been referred to as ______.
a) punitive interventions
b) targeted interventions
c) dystolic interventions
d) concentrated interventions
B
Second-tier interventions contained features that differentiate them from primary and tertiary tiers, which of the following is not one of those common features of second-tier interventions?
a) referral and involvement with the juvenile justice system
b) similar implementation across students (requiring low effort by teachers)
c) continuous availability and quick access and consistency with school-wide expectations
d) continuous data-based progress monitoring
A
The goal of second-tier intervention is to support approximately what percentage of students who are at-risk but not currently engaging in severe problem behavior?
a) 10-15%
b) 80-90%
c) 3-7%
d) 60-70%
A
Typically, second-tier interventions should be accessible within how much time when needed?
a) usually within one month
b) usually within 24 hours
c) usually within a week
d) usually within the same school day
C
Students are typically identified for secondary-tier intervention quickly and proactively through which of the following?
a) school office for discipline referrals
b) school tardies and./or absences
c) teacher nominations
d) all of the above
D
Secondary-tier interventions should reflect which of the following?
a) consistency with school-wide behavioral expectations
b) systems to monitor student progress, make modifications, and gradually decrease support as student behavior improves
c) both a and b
d) neither a and b
C
Check and connect intervention typically involves which of the following?
a) conducting a functional behavior assessment to design a student-specific BIP
b) placement into alternative education programs
c) connecting the student with a school-based monitor to improve student engagement, decrease absences and ultimately prevent school dropout
d) none of the above
C
What are the 2 common levels of check and connect intervention in schools?
a) unique and common
b) opening and closing
c) baseline and intervention
d) basic and intensive
D
Similar to check and connect, the behavior education program is structured around a scheduled check in system; however, unlike check and connect, the behavior education program is designed to have students check in on what time frame?
a) daily
b) hourly
c) weekly
d) monthly
A
What is/are common elements of a home component of the behavior education program?
a) the student is required to obtain signatures from the assigned probation officer
b) home visits by school personnel must occur each week
c) parents are required to attend weekly meetings at school
d) the student takes a copy of the daily progress report home for parent signature
D
The Behavior education program is also commonly known as which of the following?
a) tertiary-tier intervention
b) check and connect
c) flexible intervention
d) check-in check-out
D
Categorical systems of assessment for emotional and behavioral disorders:
a) classify problems as either present or absent (yes/no)
b) yields a percentage score
c) do not provide specific criteria for disorders or disabilities
d) require that only three features of a disorder be present to diagnose
A
The “construct validity” of any given standardized behavior rating scale:
a) indicates that the instrument is a reliable measure
b) indicates that the instrument measures what it is supposed to measure
c) both a and b
d) neither a and b
B
Most educational problems with children are first identified (brought to other’s attention) by whom?
a) guidance counselor
b) parents
c) principal
d) teachers
D
One limitation of standardized behavior rating scales:
a) rating scales do not dictate choices for interventions
b) rating scales view environmental events and behavior as unrelated
c) rating scales are very expensive and considered cost-prohibitive
d) all of the above
A
Research students have shown ___ of co-existing externalizing and internalizing problems with students identified with emotional disturbance.
a) low occurrence
b) moderate degree of occurrence
c) high occurrence
d) none of the above
C
Research concerning interview responses has revealed ____ between informants in different situations or different relations with a given child.
a) high levels of agreement
b) low levels of agreement
c) absolutely no agreement (0%)
d) complete (100%) agreement
B
The two different approaches to classifying children’s emotional or behavioral disorders are:
a) Blooms taxonomy and categorical systems
b) the parent checklist and parent interview
c) categorical systems and the hierarchy scaling system
d) categorical systems and empirically based taxonomies
D
Besides assessing problems from the child’s perspective, child interviews can be a key source of information for:
a) assessing feasibility of interventions
b) referral for mental health services outside of school
c) referral for social services outside of school
d) all of the above
D
Statistical procedures are employed to derive syndromes or grouping of behavioral and emotional problems when using:
a) categorical systems of EBD assessment
b) empirically based taxonomies for EBD assessment
c) the apgar scale
d) the kelvin scale
B
The diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders lists a total of how many disorders?
a) 60
b) 20
c) 40
d) 10
A
The DSM 4 is commonly used to classify disorders of individuals referred for:
a) gen ed services
b) mental health services
c) juvenile justice services
d) spec ed services
B
IDEA requires:
a) a DSM4 diagnosis for all spec ed services and programs
b) the use of an empirically based taxonomy in assessing for EBD
c) neither a nor b
d) both a and b
C
The IDEA defines how many types of disabilities?
a) 13
b) 20
c) 9
d) 12
A
The IDEA and DMS4 are both examples of:
a) psycho-pathological approaches
b) categorical classification systems
c) empirically based taxonomies
d) systems that require a determination as to the degree of presence of a disorder’s characteristics
B
Children with EBD are msot likely to qualify for spec ed under the IDEA category of:
a) behavioral disorder
b) emotional handicap
c) psychologically impaired
d) emotional disturbance
D
Spec. Ed. decision making under the IDEA:
a) in all situation requires an IQ score
b) is incompatible with human service decisions reached using the DSM4
c) is similar to the DSM4 in that a categorical decision regarding the presence or anbsence of a disability must be determined
d) none of the above
C
To be identified as emotionally disturbed under IDEA:
a) the evaluation team must determine both eligibility and need for special education
b) the child must exhibit one or more of five particular characteristics or be diagnosed with schizophrenia
c) the child must experience the problems over a long period of time, to a marked degree, and it must adversely affect educational performance
d) all of the above
D
Which of the following in NOT one of the five characteristics of ED under IDEA?
a) suicidal threats
b) a general pervasive mood of unhappiness or depression
c) an inability to learn that can not be explained by intellectual, sensory, or other health factors
d) inability to maintain satisfactory interpersonal relationships with peers and teachers
A
Best practice in assessing for emotional and behavioral problems suggest that info should always be obtained from:
a) the family doctor
b) teacher and parent reports and direct assessment of the child
c) clinical observations in a controlled setting
d) a psychiatrist
B
Best practice in assessing for emotional and behavioral problems:
a) relies exclusively on clinical information
b) assumes that no one single method or procedure be considered as definitive in yielding evidence of emotional or behavioral disorders
c) looks primarily at a child’s psychopathology
d) none of the above
B
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic reasons as to why conventional approaches to “manage” student problem behavior are often ineffective?
a) conventional approaches typically pay little attention to understanding the social context of behavior
b) conventional approaches have emphasized reinforcement for appropriate behavior over negative feedback for problem behavior
c) conventional approaches typically pay little attention to understanding the function of the problem behavior
d) conventional approaches have emphasized negative consequences to control student behavior
B
Tertiary Prevention consists of:
a) highly individualized supports for students with behavioral challenges
b) methods to place students in more restrictive educational programs
c) primarily crisis intervention techniques
d) group-based targeted interventions
A
PBS emphasizes:
a) using the court system to adjudicate students with problem behavior
b) changing educational placements
c) prevention through changing problem environments and teaching new skills for students to use to meet their needs
d)providing student centered practices that can only be implemented in certain residential programs who have trained staff
C
Individualized PBS is needed when:
a) the child’s problem behavior persists despite consistently implemented classroom-based interventions
b) a child has accumulated more then two office referrals
c) a child is identified as eligible for spec. ed.
d) a child is assigned a probation officer
A
Which of the following is one of the basic principles or assumptions of PBS?
a) challenging behaviors are context related
b) challenging behaviors serve a function for the student
c) effective interventions are person-centered and based on an understanding of the function of the student’s problem behavior and his/her social context
d) all of the above
D
Overall, research has shown the use of PBS across all levels of primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention has:
a) yielded some inconsistent, positive results
b) yielded limited, but promising results
c) yielded positive results for students with disabilities
d) yielded positive results for students with and without disabilities
D
Effective team collaboration helps to create ___ as it pertains to a student-centered behavior support plan.
a) behavioral reciprocity
b) set of standardized assessment procedures
c) a good contextual fit
d) none of the above
C
The provisions for PBS in the IDEA include:
a) when the child’s behavior impedes his/her learning
b) when the child’s behavior impedes the learning of others
c) when the IEP team is considering disciplinary action resulting in a change in educational placement
d) all of the above
D
The process of conducting a FBA:
a) concludes when the school administrator is satisfied with the results
b) requires one month for data gathering
c) is a process of gathering and analyzing information to explain the reasons for the student’s problem behavior
d) involves conducting a series of standardized tests to determine if the student has an ED
C
What is the first step in conducting an FBA?
a) to seek out a consultant to conduct the FBA
b) to prioritize and define the student’s problem behavior
c) to conduct a manifestation determination
d) none of the above
B
Gathering broad info when conducting an FBA includes:
a) strengths, interests as well as general information about the student’s health and quality of life
b) very precise info about the fast triggers for the problem behavior
c) defining precisely what interventions will work
d) both b and c
A
Which of the following is least relevant when gathering specific info when conducting and FBA?
a)the psychological reason behind the student’s problem behavior
b) when the student is most as well as least likely to engage in the problem behavior of concern
c) the triggers that precede the student’s problem behavior
d) the function of the students problem behavior
A
All functional assessment tools may be classified in to which two types of general info gathering methods?
a) standardized tests and norm-referenced methods
b) interviews and rating scales
c) indirect and direct methods
d) direct methods and observational preocedures
C
Team generated hypothesis:
a) summarize the results of the FBA
b) provide a logical explanation for the student’s problem behavior
c) guide the development of the student-centered behavior support plan
d) all of the above
D
A specific hypothesis is comprised of which of the following component parts?
a) when this happens; the student does; the teacher does
b) the student does; the teacher does; in order to
c) when this happens; the student does; in order to
d) the student does; in order to; as opposed to
C
The function of the student’s problem behavior is reflected in which part of the specific hypothesis?
a) when this happens…
b) the student does…
c) in order to…
d) none of the above
C
The global hypothesis reflects:
a) broad information
b) student skills, interests, preferences, overall health and well-being
c) provides a contextual explanation for why the events identified int he specific hypothesis are problematic for the student
d) all of the above
D
Once a specific and global hypothesis are formulated the team is ready to:
a) design a comprehensive behavior support plan
b) determine the educational placement for the child
c) hire an external consultant
d) inquire about medication (as relevant)
A
Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended self-check questions to be used when conducting an FBA?
a) were both broad and specific infor gathered?
b) Were the assessment results summarized in to a specific and global hypothesis?
c) Is your team prepared to link interventions and support strategies back to the hypotheses?
d) is the student’s problem behavior a manifestation of his/her disability?
D
Taken together, the specific and global hypothesis:
a) tell the team if they should try interventions in the current placement or change the educational placement for the student
b) give the team a clear sense of the potential of success with the student
c) can serve as the behavior intervention component of the IEP for a student with disabilities and problem behavior
d) guide the development of behavior support plans for individual students
D
Effective positive behavior support plans:
a) are assessment based
b) are only used in emotional support programs
c) focus only on the classroom setting
d) emphasize crisis intervention
A
The most effective interventions:
a) are based primarily on manipulating consequences
b) always involve a clear and concise crisis management plan
c) can minimized the team’s reliance on the FBA
d) are linked to the hypothesis that explain problem behaviors
D
Designing a comprehensive behavior support plan:
a) elusively addresses the staff needs
b) involves multiple components and reflects preferences of implementer
c) involves selecting five strategies to implement
d) none of the above
B
An effective support plan for a particular student:
a) will fit the student’s environmental and social contexts
b) does not require collaboration
c) makes use of knowledge and experiences of the external consultant
d) will not require changes over time
A
Multi-component support plans are comprised of which of the following key components:
a) consequence and long-termj supports
b) teaching alternative skills and antecedent and setting even modifications
c) both an and b above
d) none of the above
C
Which of the following is not a primary benefit of providing antecedent and setting event modification:
a) they are powerful and fast acting to prevent problem behavior
b) they teach new skills to the student
c) they avoid the problems and negative consequences often associated with reactive interventions
d) they address fast and slow triggers associated with the students problem behavior
B
Which of the following are types of antecedent and setting event modifications:
a) removing a problem event
b) interspersing difficult events with easy events
c) blocking problem events or adding events that promote desired behavior
d) all of the above
D
Teaching alternative skills:
a) changes the environment by directly changing antecedents to problem behavior
b) describe crisis intervention skills to be taught to staff
c) can occur if there is not a need for a crisis intervention plan
d) teaches students socially acceptable alternative means of obtaining desired outcomes from the student’s perspective
D
The three types of alternative skills to teach in a behavior support plan are:
a) prevention behaviors, coping skills, and general skills
b) replacement skills, general skills, and coping skills
c) prevention behaviors, replacement skills, coping skills
d) general skills, long-term prevention skills, and coping skills
B
Replacement skills:
a) are broad skills that alter problem behavior
b) change the function of the problem behavior
c) serve the exact same function as the problem behavior
d) help the staff tolerate stressful cirumstance
C
When asking the question “What social, communication, leisure, or academic skills might help the individual prevent problem situations?” the team is identifying:
a) antecedent and setting even modifications
b) general skills to teach
c) coping and tolerance skills to teach
d) replacement skills to teach
B
When teaching coping skills to a student, we are in face teaching the student:
a) replacement skills
b) general skills
c) to work through unpleasant events
d) none of the above
C
Which of the following is not true of consequence strategies in a BSP:
a) they are no longer needed
b) they are no longer predominate the plan of intervention
c) the focus on reinforcement of alternative skills
d) they are a part of a crisis management plan (if needed)
A
Consequence strategies are used to:
a) increase use of alternative skills
b) increase use of alternative skills and reduce outcomes of problem behavior
c) reduce outcomes of problem behavior
d) none of the above
B
Which of the following are consistent with the purpose of sonsequence interventions:
a) increase the use of alternative skills
b) reduce outcomes of problem behavior
c) are unseful in crisis management
d) all of the above
D
Which of the following is not one of the reasons to consider long-term supports?
a) students are more likely to learn acceptable social behavior in contexts that are enjoyable and meaningful to them
b) limited opportunities for choice and/or loneliness may contribute directly to problem behavior
c) lifestyle intervention ensures that the membership of the support team will remain constant
d) maintenance and generalization strategies allow for on-going, long-term support of the individual
C
When evaluating the effectiveness of a BSP, what three primary outcomes/results are we looking to see?
a) decreases in problem behavior, increases in the use of alternative skills, general improvements in lifestyle/quality of life
b) decreases in problem behavior, cost efficiency and long term prevention
c) increases in alternative skills, cost efficiency, and improved quality of life
d) general improvement in lifestyle, use of social acceptable skills, increases in the use of alternative skills
A
The best method for collecting progress monitoring data in typical home, schooo, and community settings:
a) will always require direct observation
b) will provide the useful information for decision making without interfering with typical activities and routines
c) will results in data collection that lasts for approximately two weeks after intervention has commenced
d) none of the above
B
Which of the following is not one of the primary difference between the abridged vs. comprehensive PBS process?
a) the abridged process typically does not reflect comprehensive long term supports
b) the abridged process focuses almost exclusively on the global hypothesis
c) the abridged process does not typically reflect a crisis management plan
d) the abridge process will likely be limited in application to a particular context
B
Long-term supports can be best classified broadly as:
a) short term environmental manipulations
b) quality of life strategies and contingency contracts
c) skill expansion
d) lifestyle interventions and maintenance/generalization strategies
D
DSM4 is…
Offers a common language and standard criteria for the classification of mental disorders