2SO51 EDC 5 PRETEST 1 MATERIEL MANAGEMENT JOURNEYMAN

(001) What is outlined in AFI 36-2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
a. Duties and responsibilities for the Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard only.
b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career fields or specialties.
c. Career progression for the materiel management career field.
d. Career progression for each military service agent.
b
(001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
a. providing support to maintenance activities.
b. researching and identifying materiel requirements.
c. directing policy and guidance for career field.
d. preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.
c
(002) The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better
understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training,
knowledge, experience, and
a. interfaces.
b. processes.
c. perspectives.
d. provisioning.
c
(002) What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel
management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?
a. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and General Services Administration (GSA).
b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC.
c. GSA and Materiel Management System.
d. Materiel Management System and DLA.
b
(003) Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are
made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
a. One: Enterprise view.
b. Two: Integrated processes.
c. Three: Optimized resources.
d. Four: Integrated technology.
a
(004) What source of supply has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force
weapon system?
a. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS).
b. General Services Administration (GSA).
c. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
c
(004) Local manufacture is a term that describes an item
a. designed by a local commodity center.
b. sourced from another branch of service.
c. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.
d. purchased by an organization using the government purchase card (GPC).
c
(004) What source of supply consists of vendors from the local community?
a. Local manufacture.
b. Local purchase.
c. Lateral support.
d. Other services.
b
(005) Which class of supply includes weapons?
a. II.
b. IV.
c. VI.
d. VIII.
a
(005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
b
(005) What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best
practices, and people into a unified structure?
a. Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR).
b. Air Expeditionary Forces (AEF).
c. Unit type code (UTC).
d. Operation plan.
a
(006) What logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight provides centralized command and control,
planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo,
passengers, and personal property?
a. Traffic Management.
b. Materiel Management.
c. Management and Systems.
d. Deployment and Distribution.
d
(006) Which specialized center will be the hub for the integration and management of
maintenance/supply chain capabilities?
a. Air Force Test Center (AFTC).
b. Air Force Research Lab (AFRL).
c. Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC).
d. Air Force Nuclear Weapons Center (AFNWC).
c
(007) What materiel management system process activates if assets are insufficient to satisfy the
requirement on the requested item?
a. Receipt.
b. Turn-in.
c. Due-out.
d. Shipment.
c
(007) Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item
records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
a. Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG).
b. Miscellaneous file maintenance.
c. Follow-up.
d. Status.
b
(007) How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management
computer system?
a. Five.
b. Six.
c. Seven.
d. Eight.
a
(STQ0084) What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-122?
Table of contents and find tool
(STQ0085) What research tool allows you to type in the word or phrase when researching a document within
AFH 23-123?
Find tool
(STQ0103)What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?
M32
(STQ0107) What information is provided from a part number inquiry?
The NSN, cage code, and TO associated with that particular number
(STQ0108) What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?
5
(008) What Department of Defense (DOD) instruction implements requirements and procedures
for materiel manager and others who need to work within the supply system?
a. 4100.39-M, Management.
b. 4120.24-M, Defense Management System.
c. 4140.1-R, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Regulation.
d. 4500.9-R, Defense Logistics Systems Manual.
c
(008) What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices?
a. Defense logistics management system.
b. Supply management activity group.
c. Degraded operations.
d. Mission capable.
a
((009) How many characters make up a national stock number (NSN)?
a. 12.
b. 13.
c. 14.
d. 15.
b
(011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to
select records using the stock number and transaction date?
Stock number
(011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of
abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?
Abbreviated format (Option A).
(012) Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing
when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?
Reject
(012) Which chapter in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, volume 2, part 2, identifies the
action required to correct the Materiel Management System rejects created during processing?
Seven
(012) Within how many workdays should all Materiel Management System rejects normally be
processed?
One
(012) Which product of the Materiel Management System is used to ensure rejects are processed
in a timely manner?
D818
(012) Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding the
management code and phrase?
MGT
(013) Who determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and
inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user
identification (user ID) is authorized to process?
Individual flight chiefs and terminal security monitors
(013) User identification and controlled transaction identification codes are loaded to designated
terminal functions by the
terminal security manager
(014) Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings
must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF
Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or
an approved supplement
(014) The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer
room production scheduler by which workday?
15th
(015) The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions?
Six
(015) In materiel management, you will primarily deal with which divisions of the Air Force
supply management activity group?
General support division (GSD) and materiel support division (MSD)
(016) What is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to a Logistics Readiness
Squadron (LRS) function?
Check in and out with the flight chief
(016) How frequently should you schedule surveillance visit?
Annually
(016) During a surveillance visit, you should coordinate your review of management products
with what activity?
Analysis element
(017) When the Materiel Management System does not process or update transactions as it
should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment
Systems Group?
AF Form 1815
(017) Who is responsible for submitting and monitoring difficulty reports?
Procedures element
(017) A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected
in the next scheduled release
(018) What analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing
statistical data with standards and norms?
Trend analysis
(018) What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a
specific problem?
Special studies
(019) What transaction identification code input is created from the transaction exception 7 issue
document?
Special requisition (SPR)
(019) What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or
nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?
Six
(020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent
document file?
Source documents with file indicator D
(021) What materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the
daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
Daily Document Control (D04)
(021) What materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction
Register (D06)?
Consolidated Transaction (M19)
(021) What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored
and merged on magnetic tapes?
Consolidated Transaction (M19).
(021) The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an
entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?
D04 and D06
(022) What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?
Ensure an item has been shipped
(022) All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce
what type of detail?
Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)
(022) What transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?
SSC
(022) What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
R40
(023) What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action does not contain a
freeze code?
Q
(023) What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction?
1AM
(023) What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?
Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date