2G071CDC

What is a CCDR
a major military leader – either of a large geographical region or of a particular military function
how is command authority exercised
only by commanders of unified or specific combatant commands unless otherwise directed by the President or Sec of Def
What MAJCOM logistics plans responsibility develops a supplement to AFI 10-403, Dev Planning and Execution, to cover those command-unique areas concerning deployment management
Deployment management
what MAJCOM logistics plans responsibility publishes ESP guidance to subordinate units for preparation of their ESPs and develops a budget to fund for ESP site visits
expeditionary site planning
what do war-fighting NAFs conduct
theatre operations with assigned and attached forces and train to perform this role as an integral C2 element
describe an OPLAN
Any plan, except the SIOP, for the conduct of military operations in a hostile environment prepared by the commander of a unified or specified command in a response to a requirement est. by the JCS. OPLAN is an operation plan for the conduct of joint operations that can be used as a basis for development of an OPORD.
what is the general criterion for approving an OPLAN
Adequacy, feasibility, acceptability, and consistency with joint doctrine
what does the OPLAN specify
the forces and support needed to execute the plan and the transportation schedule required to move those resources
who prepares the OPLAN and why
commanders; to fulfill tasks assigned in the JSCP, or otherwise directed by the CJCS
Describe a CONPLAN
an abbreviated format that would require considerable expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN campaign plan, or OPORD
what does the CONPLAN contain
the COCOM’s strategic concept, Annexes A through D and K, and those additional annexes and appendixes deemed necessary by the COCOM to complete planning
when is concept planning conducted
principally in peacetime to develop joint operation plans for contingencies identified in strategic planning documents.
how many phases are contained in the contingency planning process
there are 5 phases
compared to CONPLANS, how are functional plans written
functional plans are written using the JOPES procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN without a TPFDD
who develops functional plans and why
COCOMs develop FUNCPLANS in response to CJCS requirements, JSCS requirements, JSCP tasking, and self-determined contingencies
what are the minimum arts of a functional plan
plan summary, basic plan, Annexes A through D, J, K, V (CJCS approved plans) and Z
describe support planning and what it includes
determining the materiel and personnel requirements and priority of delivery to receive and sustain forces in combat to accomplish the mission. Included are computations of support requirements based on force activity, service planning guidance, inter-service and combined support requirements, host nation and coalition/allied support resources, and the time phasing of this support in accordance with the supported cc’s overall concept of operations
what is the principal product of support planning
development of the appropriate annexes to the plan
Describe supporting commander
a supporting cc provides augmentation forces or other support to a supported cc or who develops a supporting plan
how many AF WMP volumes support the JSCP
five
describe the basic plan and supporting supplements
WMP-1 provides a single source for AF planning and support of combat forces in a time of war. The basic plan addresses the general situation, mission concept of operations, and execution tasks for AF forces in regional conflicts
how many parts do the plans listing and summary contain
two
describe the WMP-3, part 2
UTC availability is the official comprehensive data source for identifying all AF UTCs. It contains all UTC postured capability in the AF listed by UTC/unit identification code/ and record number
describe the white house National Security Council
the principal forum used by the president for considering national security and foreign policy matters. The council also serves as the presidents principal arm for coordinating these policies among various gov’t agencies.
describe the results of the National Security Act
the dept. of war and the dept. of the Navy into the national military est., headed by the SECDEF. It was also responsible for the creation of a dept. of the AF from the existing Army Air Forces. Initially each of the 3 services secretaries maintained quasi-cabinet status, but the act was amended on Aug 10, 1949 to assure their subordination to the SECDEF. At the same time the NME was renamed as the dept. of defense
what provides the framework for est. national strategy and policy objectives for the President
the National Security Council system
describe the JSPS
primary means by which the CJCS carries out statutory responsibilities assigned in titles 6, 10, 22 and 50 USC
what is the primary role of the JSPS
conducting independent assessments; provide independent advise to the President, SECDEF, NSC, and HSC; and assist the President and SECDEF in providing unified strategic direction to the armed forces.
describe the JSCP
provides guidance to accomplish tasks and missioned based on military capabilities to COCOMs, service chiefs, CSA directors, applicable defense agency and DOD field activities directors, and the chief, NGB.
how does the chairman support the GFM process
by est. the force apportionment construct in the JSCP
where are the detailed apportionment tables maintained
global force management implementation guidance
describe joint strategic planning community
refers to those participating in the overall strategic planning of the armed forces. At the national strategic level, the CJCS, in consultation with other members of the JCS, performs joint strategic planning.
describe the planning, programming, budgeting, and execution system
a cyclic process containing 3 distinct but interrelated phases; planning, programming, and budgeting. in addition to est. the framework and process for decision making on future programs, the process permits prior decisions to be examined and analyzed from the viewpoint of the current environment (threat, political, economic, technological, and resources) and for the time-period being addressed.
what is the purpose of the PPBES
to produce a plan, a program, and finally, a budget for the DOD. the budget is fwd in summary to the President for his approval. the president’s budget then is submitted to the develop an acquisition strategy for all major systems.
describe the defense systems acquisitions review and PPBES interface
interface between the weapons and acquisition process, as defined in DOD Directive 5000.1 (ref b) and the PPBES is achieved by designated membership of the DSARC and the DRB and the requirement to develop an acquisition strategy for all major systems.
describe the joint force process
the process begins when a COCOM submits an RFF/C to support emerging operational requirements to the SECDEF via the CJCS. The chairman validates the request by conducting a strategic risk assessment to availability substitution guidance on alternate sourcing strategies (coalition, civilian, or contracted sources), and conduct a legal/policy review
what does the joint staff develop and fwd to the primary JFP
a draft deployment order
what does USJFCOM rely on
relies heavily on its service components with the service HQ and other combatant command service components to track capabilities and forces in order to asses the operational readiness, availability, commitment, and capability substitution options.
once the recommendation is received, who will the JS coordinate with
with the office of the SECDEF, agencies, services, or combatant commands to seek their input on any issues that would result in a non-concurrence of reclama.
when is the request for forces/capability initiated
when the COCOM determines a requirement and submits an RFF/RFC to the joint staff
what does the JCD describe
capability gaps that exist in joint war-fighting functions, as described in the JOpsC or CONOPs. The JCD est. the linkage between the characteristics of the future joint forces identified in the CCJO and the capabilities identified through the FAA.
what is the JCD used for
basis for one or more FSAs and resulting ICDs or joint DCRs
describe the joint sourcing process
directly tasks JFCOM, as primary JFP, or other joint force providers (i.e., TRANSCOM, SOCOM, or STRATCOM), to develop recommended global sourcing solutions. This formal process sources emerging UCC requirements
who will develop and provide the AF position to ACC
AF/A300, working with HAF and MAJCOM FAMs
who assigns nearly all conventional forces based in CONUS
USJFCOM
what is the goal of crisis action planning
the rapid development and execution of an OPORD that is based on a real world crisis or emergency
how many phases are contained in CAP
six
describe situational development
events that have potential national security implications are detected, reported, and assessed to determine whether a military response is required. The combatant supported commander prepares and submits an assessment of the event to the President, SECDEF, and CJCS
describe course of action development
the CJCS issues a planning directive, normally a WARNORD, that directs the COCOM to prepare COAs. The COA development phase of CAP implements a decision by the president, SECDEF, and CJCS to develop military options.
describe a WARNORD
defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships, and, if applicable, tentative combat forces available to the cc for planning and strategic lift allocations. The CJCS WARNORD generally equates to planning directives in deliberate planning processes and should contain all readily available guidance pertaining to the crisis. The precise contents of the WARNORD may vary widely depending on the nature of the crisis and degree of prior planning.
describe a planning order
the PLANORD defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships and if applicable, tentative combat forces available for the cc for planning and strategic lift allocations
if the EXORD was preceded by a detailed ALERTORD or PLANORD, then?
the EXORD simply direct the deployment and employment of forces
what order is issued by the SECDEF to prepare forces to deploy without approving the execution of a plan
PREPARE TO DEPLOY ORDER (PTDO)
COCOMs report directly to
SECDEF
what functional area is responsible for setting policies, procedures, and concepts for logistics plans support of assigned and programmed forces
MAJCOM
what senior war-fighting echelon plays an integral role as a C2 element during contingency and wartime ops
NAF
what criterion is used to assess an OPLAN compliance with the CJCS guidance and joint doctrine
Adequacy
what OPLAN criterion is used when considering if the resources made available for planning are used effectively or are insufficient to satisfy plan requirements
Feasibility
when describing a concept of operations, an unnamed day on which a particular operation begins is known as
D-day
what contingency planning phase makes sure that a plan properly incorporates the mobilization, deployment, employment, and redeployment of forces and resources
Supporting plan
Joint operations planning end execution systems (JOPES) procedures that task military ops for humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping and or counter-drug ops are used to write
functional plan
why are functional plans developed by COCOM
in response to CJCS requirements
what is a principle product of support planning
development of appropriate annexes
the war mobilization plan (WMP) consists of how many volumes
five
what volume of the WMP contains UTC availability and contains all postured UTC capabilities
WMP-3, combat and support forces
what AFI governs WMP-4, wartime aircraft activity, Part I and II
AFI 10-401, AF operations planning and execution
what caused the merger of the dept. of war and the dept. of the Navy into the National Military Establishment (NME)
the National Security Act of 1947
who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)
the president
regarding national security strategy, how are presidential level decisions made
through the National Security Council System (NSCS)
what implements, and augments presidential and SECDEF guidance that’s fwd in the guidance for employment of forces (GEF)
joint strategic capabilities plan
the PPBES has how many phases
three
military departments and defense agencies provide advice to the PPBES…
so that execution and accountability may be assessed properly
what is the end result of global force management (GFM)
the timely allocation of those forces and capabilities necessary to execute combatant command missions
the DOD has historically conducted strategic force management…
through a decentralized process where the SECDEF exercises combatant command authority over forces
the US joint force command (USJFCOM) controls what percentage of combat ready conventional forces
80%
what crisis action phase involves the combatant supported commander’s assessment to the president, SECDEF, and CJCS
Situation Development (Phase I)
what order is developed during crisis action planning when the SECDEF approves and transmits the selected COA issued by the chairman and direct the supported cc to initiate phase V
ALERTORD
What is UTC development
the process of adding a UTC to the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging (MEFPAK) system, building the manpower and/or equipment detail, and getting the UTC added to the TUCHA
what can prevent USTRANSOM from validating airlift requirements
lack of standard planning data movement characteristics loaded in the TUCHA
when must a UTC be developed
when new equipment types enter the inventory, when deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concepts or mission, when significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment, when significant program operational changes occur, when AF organizations require a change in the way an existing capability functions.
what is the last step in the UTC development process
registration
what activities take place for a new UTC request once the UTC is in the MEFPAK
manpower force element (MFE) and logistics detail (LOGDET) activities
when is a UTC considered registered in the TUCHA
when all personnel and/or logistics data are developed
describe the kind of assistance the CSAF provides to meet the CCDR requirements
the principal adviser to the SECDEF in AF activities and provides assistance for organization, training, and equipping air and space forces to meet CCDR requirements
describe the directorate of logistics readiness
the OPR for AF deployment and redeployment ops. HQ USAF A4R serves numerous roles that are vital to logistics daily
describe a NAJCOM
a major subdivision of the AF, assigned a major segment of the USAF mission. They possess the full range of staff functions needed to perform required tasks. there are two types; operational and support
describe a NAF
an organizational unit of the AF. it is a large striking organization of one major category of air strength. The NAF has two or more wings usually grouped with auxiliary units. The NAF is the senior war-fighting echelon of the AF. The conduct ops w/ assigned and attached forces under a command element
who is responsible for determining an installations worst case scenario
the IDO
what step for determining an installations worst case scenario involves reviewing an installation’s OPLANs and CONPLANs
step 1
what step for determining an installation’s worst case scenario involves reviewing the war aircraft activity report (WAAR)
step 3
what is updated in step 8 of determining an installation’s worst case scenario
LOGMOD
describe the RSO&I process
reception, staging, onward movement, and integration is the final stage of deployment. RSO&I is the essential process that transitions deploying forces, consisting of personnel, equipment, and materiel arriving in theater into forces capable of meeting the CCDR’s ops requirements
who is responsible for RSO&I
the supported commander
describe staging
this process begins in marshaling areas in the vicinity of PODs when personnel link up with their equipment. Units arrive at the staging area and begin preparation for movement by assembling, processing and accounting for personnel; performing maintenance and ops checks on equipment,; and checking load plans for movement
describe command and control (C2)
the CCDR directs subordinate commands and forces as necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command, including authoritative direction over all aspects of military ops, joint training, and logistics within the AOR. No single C2 option works best for all RSO&I ops. Supported CCDRs and their subordinates should be more flexible in modifying command structures to meet the specific requirements of each situation with emphasis on unity of effort, whether it is small foreign humanitarian ops up to a major theater war
describe the reception control center (RCC)
this work center provides overall direction and coordination of reception and bed-down procedures and resolves and problems affecting reception of resources. It oversees two functions, the RPU and the CRF
the cargo reception function (RCF) is similar to what deployment function
cargo deployment function
describe aggregation
UTCs grouped together at locations in the US or overseas where airlift will arrive to p/u the personnel and equipment and transport them to the APOD
what is used at the APOD to move personnel and equipment to final destinations
the hub and spoke model
what is different between redeployment and deployment
redeployment is the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, another location within the area, or to home station. It is not the same as deployment in reverse. Redeployment may, for military, political, or diplomatic reasons, be far more rapid then the deployment phase.
what does redeployment apply to
onward or fwd deployment as well as return to home station which includes rotation of airmen when AEF rotations have been est. to sustain an operation
what are the four phases of redeployment operations
redeployment planning, pre-deployment activities, movement, and JRSOI
who is responsible for redeployment planning
the losing supported cc or the gaining supported cc when the redeployment is to a new operational area
what could happen if the collection of documentation is not accomplished
it could cause a delay in the redeployment process
what redeployment process work center ensures that all hazardous materials being moved comply with AFMAN 24-204(I)
cargo deployment function
what is the last step in the UTC process
registration
if a UTC is not registered in the TUCHA then…
the USTRANSCOM cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements
who is the principal advisor to the SECDEF on AF activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet CCDR requirements
CSAF
who manages and coordinates the AEF schedule and tracks execution
AFPC/DPW
what is an intermediate echelon of command, directly under the operational and support commands
NAF
who is responsible for determining a base’s worst case scenario
the IDO
when does the IDO identify the total number of personnel affected during the worst case scenario
after reviewing plans
the reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration functions are applicable during…
both deployment and redeployment phases of military ops
who directs subordinate commands and forces as necessary to carry out all aspects of military ops
supported cc
a location in the US or overseas that is designated to collect UTCs during a deployment is called
aggregation points
selected locations in the AOR where personnel and equipment are aggregated together are called
APODs
the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station
redeployment
which redeployment phase responsibility is determined by the post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force
joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)
it is important for the redeployment process to be flexible and able to adapt to the unique requirements of the redeployment environment because…
the redeployment may require a far more rapid response than a deployment
deployed log planners, or designated alternates, collect as many deployment docs as possible because the…
the info is needed to redeploy the units
it makes sense to have all the files and docs ready before the redeployment order is executed because…
the process of moving personnel and equipment happens very quickly
what is the purpose of WRM
to meet the planned defense objectives already identified by DOD planning guidance
how is WRM positioned
as either starter or swing stock, or used as a combo of both
where is WRM swing stock positioned
afloat or on land
what are swing stocks
assets required at or near the point of intended use
who must all WRM indirect mission support use be coordinated with
WRMO/NCO
who appoints the WRMPM for all installation and codes the positions as SECRET
wing or installation cc
who validates all WRM documents for accuracy and notifies the CWRMO/NCO of problems
WRMO/NCO
who ensures that all WRM assets are properly inspected maintained marked and stores
unit WRM manager
who appoints a WRMM to manage the unit
sqdn cc
how many types of training are est. to train members on WRM
2
explain WRM orientation training
overview for newly assigned WRM program managers and WRM review board members. Usually occurs within 30 days of assignment. Formal briefing, desktop brief, or office visit
describe WRM surveillance and its purpose
an inspection conducted by the logistics planner assigned as the WRMNCO. its purpose is to ensure compliance w/appropriate instructions and policy
what actions are included in WRM surveillance visits
Reviewing appointment letters and records of initial and recurring training.
• Checking security clearances of individuals receiving classified WRM source documents.
• Ensuring WRM managers have access to appropriate and current WRM policies, directives, instructions, regulations, and guides.
• Checking that all WRM assets are properly marked and stored, including rotation of shelf stock if necessary.
• Reviewing inspection and serviceability documents for all WPARR and WCDO items. This review may include WPARR items that are marked as joint use.
• Ensuring all required technical orders (TO) and TO changes, tools, and required parts are on hand or on order.
• Determining that all documentation pertaining to WRM use or check out to any organization is correct and on file.
explain the purpose of the WERM review board
to initiate, accomplish, and direct actions necessary to ensure that WRM programs can provide the capability to perform the wartime mission
who selects WRM review board members
wing cc
when will a WRM review board be conducted
annually or within 60 days of receiving a new WCDO or WAAR
who normally fills the WRMPM position
mission support group cc
who chairs the review board
WRMPM
how many levels of review boards are conducted under the WRM program
3
what does the WRMNCO compile and submit to the WRMPM for annual budget requests
FINPLAN
what is WRM reconstitution
the actions taken to bring the required resources together in appropriate quantities to restore the USAF ops forces or support functions after being used
who is responsible for managing an installation’s WRM program
WRMNCO
how many SBSS reports are used to reconcile WRM docs
4
who are the WRMMs that assist the log planners in ensuring that WRM authorizations loaded correctly in SBSS and CAS
supply and munitions WRMMs
how many steps are used to determine out-loaded requirements
4
what step has the WRMO/NCO ensuring that the requirements are input in the ESP
step 4
when does the support agreement process start
when the log planner assigned as SAM receives a request for support from a unit
what is the requesting unit referred to as
the receiver
how does the support requests get from receiver to the FAACs
through the SAM
what form is used to document support requests
dd form 1144, support agreement
as a general rule, at what level should support agreements disputes/impasses be resolved
at the lowest level
what does the SAM do if an impasse concerning the overall agreement cannot be resolved between the supplier and receiver
SAM and receiver pass the info to their MAJCOM counterparts for resolution
who should the MAJCOM advise if any formal impasses are outstanding for more than 180 days
HQ USAF/A4L
when are support agreements reviewed
when there are significant changes in the requested support and when finance conducts its annual review of the finding annexes
who conducts the installation’s annual budget review
the FMO
how much time must be given to the other parties in the event that the supplier or receiver needs to reduce, modify, or terminate the support agreement
a min of 180 days notice
what personnel should assist the supplier SAM w/ FAAC training
manpower office and financial analysis office
Describe what an ACSA is
an international agreement that est. basic terms, conditions, and procedures for provision of mutual logistics support under a variety of circumstances.
what is the purpose of an ACSA
to simplify the interchange of log support, supplies, and services between USAF and other allied friendly forces
describe the conditions under which ACSA use is most appropriate
should be reserved for critical support areas involving AF where another existing program or authority does not allow for the specific log exchange, or where time constraints preclude the use of an existing authority.
what are responsibilities of the MAJCOM ACSA manager
est. policies and procedures for ACSA program mngt and execution and is charged with consolidating and reporting on all USAF ACSA activity at the end of each fiscal year
describe the role of MAJCOM FM in the ACSA program
provides valuable info when dealing with international financial issues. appoints a single POC to coordinate w/ the ACSA manager, acts as the entry point on all ACSA issues, coordinate with DFAS on all ACSA related issues, and ensures all billing and collection requirements are completed
who does the installation ACSA manager coordinate all requirements for new IAs with
the pertinent NAF or MAJCOM ACSA manager
how does ACSA enhance operational readiness
by allowing simplified procurements of resources by allowing US forces to acquire outside of commercial contracting procedures and to transfer items outside of FMS. ACSA also facilitates cost-effective mutual support due to reciprocal pricing, i.e. charging each other what we charge ourselves
what advantages do ACSA authorities have compared to FMS
the use of FMS case sales in an operational environment is normally the least preferable of the available legal authorities because of inflexible contract terms, higher prices, and lengthy processing times.
describe the 2 separate legal authorities provided in ACSA legislation
acquisition-only authority, which allows the US to acquire goods and services from designated nation, but does not allow US to transfer goods or service to another nation. Cross-servicing authority allows the US to acquire goods and services from or transfer the same to a designated nation or international organization
how might the transfer of support, supplies, and services under ACSA authorities reduce the US “logistics tail”
by allowing procurement of needed items from a HN rather than shipping them or deploying another military unit to provide the service.
describe the two principal docs critical to the ACSA transaction execution process
the ACSA agreement, which provides authority for requests for log support, but doesn’t financially commit either party. Included within the ACSA agreement is an IA, which outlines billing procedures and identifies points of contact for all parties; and the Order/Receipt/Invoice form, which functions as both a request for support and an acknowledgment that support was provided, as well as the final invoice submitted to the receiving party.
describe the purpose of implementing instructions
Implementing instructions are written to establish USAF procedures for handling a specific situation or transaction. They establish the specific services or items to be exchanged, terms of exchange, responsibilities, and methods of payment, billing and reporting instructions.
during wartime and contingency ops, what office is normally responsible for the admin of ACSA agreements, including conduct of transactions
The JA’s office is usually responsible for negotiating, concluding, reporting and maintaining international agreements; however, administration of ACSA agreements (including conduct of ACSA transactions during wartime or contingency operations) is the responsibility of the logistics plans office.
list the basic steps in the transaction execution process
Identify the logistics requirement; Ensure ACSA is the appropriate transfer mechanism; Negotiate terms and conditions of the specific order; Initiate the ACSA order; Deliver/Receive Logistics Support, Supplies, or Services; Verify delivery and receipt; Prepare and submit invoice(s); Make/collect reimbursement; Report transaction.
what is the primary purpose od assigning unique transaction numbers
to est. an audit trail
describe the purpose of AGATRS
CSA managers at all levels are required to maintain local files and original documents for all transactions executed. The AGATRS is used for this purpose. AGATRS is the DOD system of record for the Office of the SECDEF, Joint Staff, COCOMs, and Services to manage and report on ACSA transactions. AGATRS is an unclassified, web-based system that provides a worldwide cradle-to-grave automated means of building, tracking, and managing ACSA transactions; associated IAs; and subsequent orders for support throughout their life cycle. This system also serves as the worldwide library for ACSAs and their associated IAs.
describe the capability BaS&E provides
to collect new data while retaining the ability to centrally store existing data of “military value”.
describe the capability the tool delivers
It performs assessments against specific site data, resulting in expedient force bed-down and base decisions
what does BaS&E identify
resources and combat support requirements at potential deployment locations
describe the environment that BaS&E operates in
classified and unclass
describe the BaS&E user tool
Read only access to BaS&E with capability to view his/her own personal information.
describe the capability of the BaS&E administrator
The capability to assign roles to additional BaS&E users and retain all privileges associated with the AOR manager, site manager, functional data manager, and BaS&E user roles
who provides command policy and guidance for implementing BSP, and expeditionary site planning concepts to meet their specific mission
MAJCOM log plans division
who is the installation OPR for the BSP/ESP
log plans function
why does the log plans office review unit inputs to the BSP/ESP
The review ensures that the unit has answered all applicable questions pertaining to the chapter in the BSP and the input conforms to the policy and guidance the MAJCOM BSP office provided to the installation BSP office.
if planning docs are received when are BSP/ESP Part II complete
NLT 90 days
why are BSP and ESPs developed
BSPs are primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence, and are fully developed by the planning efforts of many functional experts with a deliberate planning time line. ESPs are chiefly associated with locations without a permanent Air Force presence and may contain only the minimum data necessary to make initial bed-down decisions. ESPs may be developed in short timeframes to meet contingency needs without full staffing or coordination.
describe the activity the log plans office performs in step 6 in determining LIMFACs
fwd validated LIMFACs to applicable NAF log plans function
the MAJCOM log plans office coordinating validated LIMFACs with appropriate MAJCOM functional manager for resolution action defines which step in determining LIMFACs
step 11
describe the purpose of the expeditionary site survey process
The ESSP is a subset of the overall expeditionary site planning process. It is the foundation for Air Force expeditionary operations. The ESSP provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and prioritizes the actions for the site survey teams.
what does the ESSP produce
a BSP and an ESP
describe what the ESSP process as a part of ACS and ECS defines
defines capability, est. resource allocations, and determines solutions to shortages/limitations
describe an example when multiple MAJCOMs have operational responsibility at the same location where both may field a site survey team
An example would be a place where AMC has a throughput mission and ACC has an aircraft bed-down mission.
who fwd indirect mission support requests to the next approval level via the war readiness materiel program manger (WRMPM)
WRMO/NCO
how many commands are responsible for managing WRM
3
what WRM functional area participates in WRM surveillance/staff visits as requested by the command WRMO/NCO
command WRMM
who accompanies the WRMNCO during a WRM surveillance visit
WRMM
who selects the members of the installation WRM review board
wing cc
who does the WRMO/NCO submit the WRM budget to and how often
base financial officer, annually
what system do log planners use to load validated WRM authorizations
standard base supply system (SBSS)
the support agreement process starts when..
the SAM receives a request for support
how often is a support agreement budget review performed and who conducts it
annually by the installation FMO
a new SA funding annex is developed if…
there is more than a 10% change to the requested support
when providing functional area agreement coordination (FAAC) training supplier SAMs are assisted by personnel from…
manpower and financial analyses offices
the purpose of the ACSA is to simplify the interchange of…
log support between USAF and friendly forces
who coordinates with DFAS on all ACSA related issues and ensures that all billing and collection requirements are completed
MAJCOM FM
who may assign a functional data manager a user role in the BaS&E
site manager
who coordinates with the reception base or transit location on unique support requirements, suggested changes, or other impacts on reception planning
deploying unit cc
units are required to update/re-write a BSP/ESP when…
there has been a significant change in the unit’s support posture
part II of the BSP/ESP should be completed NLT than how many days after the release of an updated doc…
90 days
what is the key to successful ESP and must function w/ senior leadership involvement
base support planning committee (BSPC)
how often should the BSPC hold meetings
semi-annually
what does the ESSP process define
capability